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UPPCS / UPPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper (Answer Key & Hindi Solutions)

यूपीपीएससी / यूपीपीसीएस प्रारंभिक परीक्षा 2019 सामान्य अध्ययन प्रश्न-पत्र 1 (आधिकारिक उत्तर कुंजी)

Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission Combined State / Upper Subordinate Exam • UPPSC Combined State / Upper Subordinate GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D

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Question 1Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Vegetation Type) | List-II (Region) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Maquis | 1. California | | B. Fynbos | 2. Mediterranean Sea Coastal Region | | C. Chaparral | 3. South Africa | | D. Matorral | 4. Chile | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: | सूची-I (वनस्पति प्रकार) | सूची-II (क्षेत्र) | | :--- | :--- | | A. मैक्विस (Maquis) | 1. कैलिफ़ोर्निया | | B. फिनबॉस (Fynbos) | 2. भूमध्यसागरीय तटीय क्षेत्र | | C. चैपरल (Chaparral) | 3. दक्षिण अफ्रीका | | D. मैटोरेल (Matorral) | 4. चिली | कूट: A B C D

A
2 3 1 4
2 3 1 4
Correct Option
B
4 3 2 1
4 3 2 1
C
3 4 1 2
3 4 1 2
D
4 2 3 1
4 2 3 1
Explanation:

Mediterranean climate biomes across the world are characterized by sclerophyllous scrub vegetation known by distinct regional names:

  • Maquis: Mediterranean basin scrubland (coastal southern Europe and northern Africa).
  • Fynbos: Cape Floral Kingdom of South Africa (exceptionally high plant endemicity).
  • Chaparral: California chaparral shrubland (drought-hardy woody shrubs adapted to summer wildfires).
  • Matorral: Central Chile Mediterranean sclerophyllous shrubland.

Matching: A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4.

Question 2Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Country) | List-II (Capital) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Uzbekistan | 1. Tashkent | | B. Tajikistan | 2. Dushanbe | | C. Kyrgyzstan | 3. Bishkek | | D. Turkmenistan | 4. Ashgabat | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: | सूची-I (देश) | सूची-II (राजधानी) | | :--- | :--- | | A. उज्बेकिस्तान | 1. ताशकंद | | B. ताजिकिस्तान | 2. दुशांबे | | C. किर्गिस्तान | 3. बिश्केक | | D. तुर्कमेनिस्तान | 4. अश्गाबात | कूट: A B C D

A
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4
Correct Option
B
1 2 4 3
1 2 4 3
C
1 3 4 2
1 3 4 2
D
1 4 2 3
1 4 2 3
Explanation:

Central Asian Republics capital cities:

  • Uzbekistan: Tashkent (site of the 1966 Tashkent Agreement where PM Lal Bahadur Shastri passed away).
  • Tajikistan: Dushanbe.
  • Kyrgyzstan: Bishkek (site of the historic Ala-Archa national park).
  • Turkmenistan: Ashgabat (famed for white marble architecture).

Matching: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.

Question 3Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Natural Vegetation) | List-II (Region) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Epiphytes | 1. Mediterranean | | B. Acacia | 2. Equatorial | | C. Baobab | 3. Sahara | | D. Cedars | 4. Savanna | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: | सूची-I (प्राकृतिक वनस्पति) | सूची-II (क्षेत्र) | | :--- | :--- | | A. अधिपादप (Epiphytes) | 1. भूमध्यसागरीय | | B. बबूल (Acacia) | 2. विषुवतीय (इक्वेटोरियल) | | C. बाओबाब (Baobab) | 3. सहारा | | D. देवदार (Cedars) | 4. सवाना | कूट: A B C D

A
2 4 3 1
2 4 3 1
Correct Option
B
2 3 1 4
2 3 1 4
C
2 3 4 1
2 3 4 1
D
2 4 1 3
2 4 1 3
Explanation:

Natural vegetation types and their representative biomes/regions:

  • Epiphytes (plants growing on other trees, e.g. orchids): Characteristic of Equatorial rainforests (A-2) due to stratified dense canopies.
  • Acacia: Characteristic of Savannas and semi-arid grasslands (B-4).
  • Baobab: Succulent-trunked tree adapted to desert margins like the Sahara (C-3).
  • Cedars: Coniferous evergreen trees typical of Mediterranean highlands (D-1).

Matching: A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1.

Question 4Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? | Tribe | Place | | :--- | :--- | | (A) Pygmy | Congo basin | | (B) Angami | Nagaland | | (C) Ainu | Japan | | (D) Kirghiz | Sudan |

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही सुमेलित नहीं है? | जनजाति | निवास स्थल | | :--- | :--- | | (A) पिग्मी | कांगो बेसिन | | (B) अंगामी | नागालैंड | | (C) ऐनू | जापान | | (D) खिरगीज | सूडान |

A
Pygmy - Congo basin
पिग्मी - कांगो बेसिन
B
Angami - Nagaland
अंगामी - नागालैंड
C
Ainu - Japan
ऐनू - जापान
D
Kirghiz - Sudan
खिरगीज - सूडान
Correct Option
Explanation:

Global indigenous tribes and their geographic habitats:

  • Pygmy: Equatorial rainforests of Congo basin (Central Africa).
  • Angami: Naga ethnic community inhabiting Nagaland (India).
  • Ainu: Indigenous people of Hokkaido (Japan).
  • Kirghiz: Semi-nomadic pastoralists of the Tien Shan mountains and steppes of Central Asia (Kyrgyzstan), NOT Sudan (Africa). Sudan is home to tribes like the Dinka and Nuer.

Therefore, (D) is NOT correctly matched.

Question 5General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Indian Ocean has become the military bases of many big powers. Reason (R): There is strong geo-political benefits in Indian Ocean and adjacent countries. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): हिंद महासागर कई बड़ी शक्तियों के सैन्य अड्डों का केंद्र बन गया है। कारण (R): हिंद महासागर और आस-पास के देशों में मजबूत भू-राजनीतिक लाभ हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
Correct Option
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:
Assertion (A)True

The Indian Ocean has become the military bases of many big powers (True - US base at Diego Garcia, French presence at Réunion/Mayotte, Chinese base at Djibouti).

Reason (R)True

There are strong geo-political benefits in the Indian Ocean and adjacent countries (True - vital SLOCs carrying 80% of world maritime oil trade through chokepoints of Hormuz, Malacca, and Bab-el-Mandeb, vast EEZ fishery and seabed mineral reserves).

Because of these vital geopolitical and energy trade interests (R), major superpowers establish military footholds and forward naval deployments (A). Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 6Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the hills of Central India locured from West to East"?

पश्चिम से पूर्व की ओर मध्य भारत की पहाड़ियों का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही क्रम है?

A
Maikal, Satpura, Mahadeo and Chhotanagpur
सतपुड़ा - महादेव - मैकाल - छोटानागपुर
B
Satpura, Mahadeo, Maikal and Chhotunagpur
महादेव - सतपुड़ा - मैकाल - छोटानागपुर
Correct Option
C
Maikal, Mahadeo, Satpura and Chhatanagpur
सतपुड़ा - मैकाल - महादेव - छोटानागपुर
D
Satpura, Mahadeo, Chhotanagpur and Maikal
महादेव - मैकाल - सतपुड़ा - छोटानागपुर
Explanation:

Hills of Central India arranged from West to East:

  1. Satpura Range: Located furthest to the west across eastern Gujarat and western Madhya Pradesh.
  2. Mahadeo Hills: Located in the central portion of the Satpura system in MP (harbors Mount Dhupgarh, 1,350 m, near Pachmarhi).
  3. Maikal Range: Forms the eastern crescent of the Satpura system in MP/Chhattisgarh (origin of Narmada and Son rivers at Amarkantak, 1,048 m).
  4. Chhotanagpur Plateau: Located furthest east across Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Correct sequence from West to East: Satpura -> Mahadeo -> Maikal -> Chhotanagpur (Option B).

Question 7Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The highest concentration of seismic zones lies in Himalayan region in India. Reason (R): There are many longitudinal thrust zones in Himalayas. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): भारत में भूकंपीय क्षेत्रों का सर्वाधिक संकेंद्रण हिमालयी क्षेत्र में स्थित है। कारण (R): हिमालय में कई अनुदैर्ध्य थ्रस्ट (उत्क्षेप) क्षेत्र स्थित हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
Correct Option
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:
Assertion (A)True

The highest concentration of seismic zones (Zones IV and V) in India lies in the Himalayan region (True - collision boundary of Indian and Eurasian plates).

Reason (R)True

There are many longitudinal thrust zones in the Himalayas (True - Main Central Thrust [MCT], Main Boundary Thrust [MBT], and Himalayan Frontal Thrust [HFT] traverse the entire length of the mountain chain).

Because these major longitudinal thrust fault zones accommodate continuous tectonic convergence (~5 cm/year) by building elastic strain that abruptly releases as catastrophic earthquakes, the Himalayan belt experiences the highest seismic risk. Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 8Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

The 'Imphal Basin' surrounded by the Manipur hills is a classic example of which landform plain?

मणिपुर की पहाड़ियों से घिरा 'इम्फाल बेसिन' एक सुंदर उदाहरण है:

A
Lacustrine plain
सरोवरीय मैदान का
Correct Option
B
Loess plain
लोएस मैदान का
C
Glacial plain
हिमानी मैदान का
D
Alluvial plain 3
जलोढ़ मैदान का
Explanation:

The Imphal Basin (Manipur Valley) surrounded by the Manipur hills is a classic geomorphological example of a Lacustrine plain (sarovariya maidan). It was formed by the gradual silting, sediment infilling, and draining of an ancient prehistoric lake basin, of which modern Loktak Lake is the direct wetland remnant.

  • Lacustrine plain: Formed from lakebed sediment accumulation.
  • Loess plain: Windblown silt deposits (e.g. Hwang Ho basin, China).
  • Glacial plain: Deposited by glacier till and outwash.
  • Alluvial plain: Formed along flowing river floodplains.
Question 9Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which of the following rivers is famous for its fault valley drainage?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी नदी अपनी भ्रंश घाटी (फॉल्ट वैली) जलप्रवाह के लिए प्रसिद्ध है?

A
Chambal
चंबल
B
Damodar
दामोदर
Correct Option
C
Gandak
गंडक
D
Ramaganga
रामगंगा
Explanation:

The Damodar River is famous for its fault valley / rift valley (graben) drainage in India. It flows in a downfaulted tectonic trough between the Hazaribagh Plateau in the north and the Ranchi Plateau in the south before discharging into the Hooghly.

  • The Damodar valley preserves India's richest Gondwana coalfield deposits (Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro).
  • While Narmada and Tapi are west-flowing rift valley rivers, Damodar is India's preeminent east-flowing river flowing through a rift valley.
  • Other options: Chambal is famous for ravines/badlands; Gandak and Ramganga are Himalayan alluvial rivers.
Question 10Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which one of the following natural regions is known as "Land of Big Games"

निम्नलिखित प्राकृतिक क्षेत्रों में से किसको "बड़े खेलों की भूमि" के रूप में जाना जाता है

A
Temperate Grassland
शीतोष्ण घास का मैदान
B
Tropical Monsoon Region
उष्णकटिबंधीय मानसून क्षेत्र
C
Hot Desert Region
गर्म रेगिस्तानी प्रदेश
D
Tropical Savanna Region
उष्णकटिबंधीय सवाना क्षेत्र
Correct Option
Explanation:

The Tropical Savanna Region (also called Sudan-type climate) is globally known as the 'Land of Big Games' (shikar bhoomi).

  • Distinct alternating wet summer and dry winter seasons support extensive open grasslands (elephant grass reaching up to 3 meters) interspersed with scattered xerophytic trees (acacias, baobabs).
  • These vast grassy plains support enormous herds of herbivorous ungulates (zebras, wildebeests, antelopes, giraffes, buffaloes, elephants), which in turn sustain the highest diversity and density of large carnivorous predators (lions, cheetahs, leopards, hyenas, wild dogs).
  • Historically, European big-game hunters mounted extensive safari expeditions here, giving rise to the epithet 'Land of Big Games'.
Question 11Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the Himalayan range, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. The sedimentary rocks of the greater Himalayas were fossil-less. 2. Marine living fossils are found in the sedimentary rocks of lesser Himalayas. 3. Remains of human civilization are found in outer or Shivalik Himalayas. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

हिमालय पर्वत श्रेणी के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. महान हिमालय की अवसादी चट्टानें जीवाश्महीन थीं। 2. लघु हिमालय की अवसादी चट्टानों में समुद्री जीव जीवाश्म पाए जाते हैं। 3. बाह्य या शिवालिक हिमालय में मानव सभ्यता के अवशेष पाए जाते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
Correct Option
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3 are correct
1, 2 और 3 सभी सही हैं
Explanation:

Himalayan Range geological statements:

  1. 'The sedimentary rocks of the Greater Himalayas were fossil-less': Incorrect. The Tethyan sedimentary zone (Tethys Himalayas) lying immediately north of the Higher Himalayan crystallines contains fossiliferous marine sedimentary rocks spanning from the Cambrian to the Cretaceous (rich in ammonites, trilobites, and marine invertebrates).
  2. 'Marine living fossils are found in the sedimentary rocks of Lesser Himalayas': Correct. Formations in the Lesser Himalayas (e.g., Krol and Tal formations in Garhwal/Himachal) contain marine fossil records, stromatolites, and shelly microfossils reflecting ancient marine transgressive basins.
  3. 'Remains of human civilization are found in outer or Shivalik Himalayas': Correct. Abundant prehistoric hominoid and early hominid fossil remains (Ramapithecus, Sivapithecus) as well as early Palaeolithic stone-tool cultures (Soan pebble-chopper culture) have been discovered in the Shivalik foothills.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct (Option B).

Question 12History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Akbar, like Sher Shah, tried to regulate the currency of the state. Reason (R): As in Sher Shah's currency, the chief copper coin of Akbar's time was the Dam. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): अकबर ने शेरशाह की तरह राज्य की मुद्रा को विनियमित करने का प्रयास किया। कारण (R): शेरशाह की मुद्रा प्रणाली की भांति ही अकबर के समय का मुख्य तांबे का सिक्का 'दाम' था। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
Correct Option
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:
Assertion (A)True

Akbar, like Sher Shah, tried to regulate the currency of the state (True - Akbar introduced a standardized, high-purity tri-metallic coinage system of gold [Mohur], silver [Rupaya], and copper [Dam] with uniform weights and exchange rates across mints, continuing and systematizing the monetary reforms initiated by Sher Shah Suri).

Reason (R)True

As in Sher Shah's currency, the chief copper coin of Akbar's time was the Dam (True - Akbar's Dam, also called Paisa, weighed ~323 grains of copper and traded at 40 Dams to one silver Rupaya, continuing Sher Shah's copper standard).

While both statements are historically true, the fact that the copper coin was called Dam is merely an individual coin feature, not the causal reason why Akbar regulated the entire state monetary and minting system. Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (Option B).

Question 13History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Arrange the following battles in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below: I. Battle of Sarnul 2. Battle of Bilgram 3. Battle of Dharmat 4. Baule of Jajau Codes:

निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार कीजिए और उन्हें सही कालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिए: I. Battle of Sarnul 2. Battle of Bilgram 3. Battle of Dharmat 4. Baule of Jajau Codes:

A
II, I, III, IV
द्वितीय, मैं, तृतीय, चतुर्थ
Correct Option
B
II, III, IV, I
II, III, IV, I
C
III, II, I, IV
तृतीय, द्वितीय, मैं, चतुर्थ
D
III, I, II, IV 4
III, I, II, IV 4
Explanation:

Chronological order of the historic Mughal-era battles:

  1. Battle of Bilgram (Battle of Kanauj): 17 May 1540 - Sher Shah Suri decisively defeated Mughal Emperor Humayun, forcing him into exile and establishing the Sur Empire.
  2. Battle of Sarnul: 23 December 1572 - Emperor Akbar defeated the rebellious Mirzas in Gujarat near the Mahi River during his Gujarat campaign.
  3. Battle of Dharmat: 15 April 1658 - War of Mughal Succession; Prince Aurangzeb and Murad Bakhsh defeated the imperial Mughal army commanded by Maharaja Jaswant Singh of Marwar and Qasim Khan near Ujjain.
  4. Battle of Jajau: 18 June 1707 - War of succession following Aurangzeb's death; Prince Muazzam (Bahadur Shah I) defeated and killed his brother Prince Muhammad Azam Shah near Agra.

Chronological order: II (1540) -> I (1572) -> III (1658) -> IV (1707) (Option A).

Question 14History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to Hath Yog, which of the following statement is/are correct? 1. Hath Yog was practiced by Nathpanthis. 2. Hath Yug technique was also adopted by the Sufis. Select the correct answer using the endes given below: Codes:

हठ योग के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. हठ योग का अभ्यास नाथपंथियों द्वारा किया जाता था। 2. हठयुग तकनीक को सूफियों ने भी अपनाया था। नीचे दिए गए अंतों का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: कोड:

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
Correct Option
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1, न ही 2
Explanation:

Hatha Yoga historical statements:

  1. 'Hatha Yoga was practiced by Nathpanthis': Correct. The Nath Sampradaya (founded by Matsyendranath and popularized by Gorakhnath in the 10th-11th centuries) formalized Hatha Yoga techniques (asanas, pranayama, mudras, shatkarmas, and kundalini awakening) through authoritative texts like the Goraksha Samhita, Siddha Siddhanta Paddhati, and Hatha Yoga Pradipika by Svatmarama.
  2. 'Hatha Yoga technique was also adopted by the Sufis': Correct. Medieval Indian Sufis, particularly of the Chishti and Shattari orders, enthusiastically engaged with Yogic practices. The famous Sanskrit yogic treatise Amritakunda ('The Pool of Nectar') was translated into Arabic and Persian as Hauz al-Hayat, and Sufi saints adopted yogic breath-control (habs-i-dam) and meditation postures into their zikr rituals.

Therefore, Both statements 1 and 2 are correct (Option C).

Question 15History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Which one of the following is NOT the characteristics of Iqta System?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा इक्ता प्रणाली की विशेषता नहीं है?

A
Iqta was a revenue collection system
इक्ता एक राजस्व संग्रहण प्रणाली थी
B
Siyasatnama was the source of information for Iqta System
सियासतनामा इक्ता प्रणाली के लिए जानकारी का स्रोत था
C
Revenue frum Iqta was directly deposited in Sultan's account
इक्ता से प्राप्त राजस्व सीधे सुल्तान के खाते में जमा होता था
Correct Option
D
Muqti was supported to maintain troops out of the revenue collected from Iqta
मुक्ति को इक्ता से एकत्रित राजस्व से सैनिकों का रख-रखाव करना पड़ता था
Explanation:

The Iqta System under the Delhi Sultanate (institutionalized by Iltutmish):

  • (A) 'Iqta was a revenue collection system': True. An Iqta was a territorial assignment of revenue given to nobles/officers in lieu of cash salary for state administration.
  • (B) 'Siyasatnama was the source of information for Iqta System': True. The 11th-century administrative treatise Siyasatnama (Book of Government) written by Nizam al-Mulk Tusi, Seljuk vizier, is the classic primary text defining the institutional principles of Iqta.
  • (C) 'Revenue from Iqta was directly deposited in Sultan's account': INCORRECT. The holder of the Iqta (Iqtadar or Muqti) directly collected the land revenue from his assigned territory, deducted his personal salary and the sanctioned maintenance costs of his military troops, and only remitted the remaining surplus balance known as Fawazil to the Sultan's central treasury (Diwan-i-Wizarat). The revenue of Crown lands (Khalisa), NOT Iqta, went directly to the Sultan's treasury.
  • (D) 'Muqti was supported to maintain troops out of the revenue collected from Iqta': True.

Therefore, (C) is NOT a characteristic of the Iqta system.

Question 16History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Books) (Writers)

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित नहीं है? (Books)

A
Tabaqat-i-Nasiri Minhaj-us- Siraj-Juzjani
तबकात-ए-नासिरी मिन्हाज-उस- सिराज-जुज्जानी
B
Turikh-i-Firozshahi Shams-i-Siruj-Alif
तुरिख-ए-फ़िरोज़शाही शम्स-ए-सिरुज-अलिफ़
C
Tughlaqnama Ibn Battuta
तुगलकनामा इब्न बतूता
Correct Option
D
Humayunnama Gulbadan Begam
हुमायुन्नमा गुलबदन बेगम
Explanation:

Medieval Indian historical texts and their authors:

  • (A) Tabaqat-i-Nasiri: Written by Minhaj-us-Siraj Juzjani in Persian (dedicated to Sultan Nasiruddin Mahmud; invaluable source for Delhi Sultanate up to 1260).
  • (B) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi: Written independently by both Ziauddin Barani and Shams-i-Siraj Afif (Afif wrote the detailed history of Firoz Shah Tughlaq's reign after Barani).
  • (C) Tughlaqnama: Written by the famous poet Amir Khusrau (his last historical masnavi chronicling the rise of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq and the defeat of Khusrau Khan in 1320). Ibn Battuta wrote the famous travelogue Kitab al-Rihla (The Travels). Therefore, (C) is NOT correctly matched.
  • (D) Humayunnama: Written by Gulbadan Begum (daughter of Babur and sister of Humayun, providing an intimate account of the Mughal royal household).
Question 17History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

In which year was the 'Native Marriage Act' passed?

'मूलनिवासी विवाह अधिनियम' किस वर्ष पारित किया गया था?

A
1870
1870
B
1872
1872
Correct Option
C
1874
1874
D
1876
1876
Explanation:

The Native Marriage Act (also known as the Civil Marriage Act or Act III of 1872) was enacted in 1872 during the viceroyalty of Lord Northbrook.

  • Origin: Spearheaded by the social reformer Keshab Chandra Sen and the Brahmo Samaj to legalise inter-caste marriages and civil marriages outside traditional religious ceremonies.
  • Key Provisions: It prohibited polygamy and bigamy and fixed the minimum legal age of marriage at 14 years for girls and 18 years for boys.
  • Irony: Keshab Chandra Sen later violated his own advocated law in 1878 by marrying his underage daughter (aged 13) to the Maharaja of Cooch Behar, leading to a split in the Brahmo Samaj (formation of the Sadharan Brahmo Samaj).
Question 18History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Movement) | List-II (Year) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Pabna | 1. 1855-56 | | B. Eka | 2. 1873-85 | | C. Santhal | 3. 1922 | | D. Tana Bhagat | 4. 1914 | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: | सूची-I (आंदोलन) | सूची-II (वर्ष) | | :--- | :--- | | A. पावना | 1. 1855-56 | | B. एका | 2. 1873-85 | | C. संथाल | 3. 1922 | | D. ताना भगत | 4. 1914 | कूट: A B C D

A
1 2 4 3
1 2 4 3
B
2 3 1 4
2 3 1 4
Correct Option
C
3 1 4 2
3 1 4 2
D
4 3 2 1
4 3 2 1
Explanation:

Prominent peasant and tribal rebellions in colonial India and their timelines:

  • Pabna Agrarian League: 1873-1885 (Pabna district, Bengal; peasant resistance against illegal rent enhancement by zamindars; led by Ishan Chandra Roy and Shambhu Nath Pal; culminated in Bengal Tenancy Act 1885).
  • Eka Movement: 1921-1922 (Awadh region of United Provinces / UP - Hardoi, Bahraich, Sitapur; radical peasant movement led by Madari Pasi demanding payment of rent only in cash and refusal of begar).
  • Santhal Rebellion (Hul): 1855-1856 (Rajmahal hills, Bihar/Jharkhand; tribal insurrection against British revenue collectors and mahajans; led by brothers Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu).
  • Tana Bhagat Movement: 1914 (Chotanagpur, Jharkhand; messianic religious and non-violent anti-colonial reform movement among the Oraon tribe led by Jatra Bhagat).

Matching: A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (Option B).

Question 19History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Event) (Year)

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित नहीं है? (Event)

A
Indian Navy Act 1927
भारतीय नौसेना अधिनियम 1927
B
Civil Disobedience 1930 Movement
सविनय अवज्ञा 1930 आंदोलन
C
Second Round Table 1931 Conference
द्वितीय गोलमेज सम्मेलन 1931
D
The Communal Award 1933
सांप्रदायिक पुरस्कार 1933
Correct Option
Explanation:

Modern Indian historical events and their exact years:

  • (A) Indian Navy Act: Enacted in 1927 (reorganized the Royal Indian Marine as the Royal Indian Navy).
  • (B) Civil Disobedience Movement: Commenced in 1930 (inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March from 12 March to 6 April 1930 breaking the Salt Law).
  • (C) Second Round Table Conference: Convened in London in 1931 (7 September to 1 December 1931; attended by Mahatma Gandhi as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact).
  • (D) The Communal Award: Announced on 16 August 1932 (NOT 1933) by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald, granting separate electorates to forward and backward minorities, Muslims, Sikhs, and the Depressed Classes (which led to Gandhi's fast unto death in Yerwada Jail and the subsequent Poona Pact in September 1932).

Therefore, (D) is NOT correctly matched.

Question 20History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below: I. Appointment of Simon Commission 2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre 3. Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March 4. Death of Ferozshah Mehta Codes:

निम्न घटनाओं को कालानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिये औरनीचे दिये कूटों में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:I. साइमन आयोग की नियुक्तिIl. जलियाँवाला बाग हत्याकाण्डगा. महात्मा गांधी की डाण्डी यात्राIv. फिरोजशाह मेहता की मृत्युकूटः

A
IV, II, I, III
IV, II, I, III
Correct Option
B
I, II, IV, III
I, II, IV, III
C
II, III, IV, I
II, III, IV, I
D
IV, III, II, I
चतुर्थ, तृतीय, द्वितीय, प्रथम
Explanation:

Chronological order of prominent national events:

  1. Death of Sir Pherozeshah Mehta: 5 November 1915 (Veteran Moderate leader, founder of Bombay Chronicle, and co-founder of the Indian National Congress).
  2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: 13 April 1919 (Amritsar, Punjab; Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered firing on an unarmed peaceful gathering celebrating Baisakhi).
  3. Appointment of Simon Commission: 8 November 1927 (Indian Statutory Commission appointed by British Government under Sir John Simon, with all-white British members, arriving in India in February 1928).
  4. Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March: 12 March to 6 April 1930 (March from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi coast to initiate the Civil Disobedience Movement).

Chronological order: IV (1915) -> II (1919) -> I (1927) -> III (1930) (Option A).

Question 21History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

The historic trial of the Officers of the Indian National Army (I.N.A.) was held at which location?

आई.एन.ए. के अधिकारियों का मुकदमा में आयोजित किया गया था

A
Red Fort, Delhi
लाल किला, दिल्ली
Correct Option
B
Gwalior Fort
ग्वालियर किला
C
Amer Fort, Jalpur
आमेर किला, जालपुर
D
Agra Fort
आगरा का किला
Explanation:

The historic court-martial trials of the officers of the Indian National Army (INA / Azad Hind Fauj) were conducted by the British colonial government between November 1945 and May 1946 at the Red Fort in Delhi (famed as the 'Red Fort Trials').

  • Accused Officers: Major General Shah Nawaz Khan, Colonel Prem Kumar Sahgal, and Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon were tried jointly for treason, murder, and abetment to murder.
  • Significance: The joint trial of a Muslim, a Hindu, and a Sikh electrified the entire country across communal lines, unleashing unprecedented nationwide mass anti-colonial protests, strikes, and mutinies (Royal Indian Navy Mutiny in Feb 1946).
  • INA Defence Committee: Formed by the Indian National Congress, comprising legal luminaries including Bhulabhai Desai, Tej Bahadur Sapru, Kailash Nath Katju, Asaf Ali, and Jawaharlal Nehru.
Question 22History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The Asiatic Society of Bengal was established in the period of Warren Hastings and he modestly declined the offer of Presidentship of that learned body in favour of Sir William Jones. Reason (R): Warren Hastings was himself a great scholar and an ardent orientalist who used to encourage the study of Sanskrit, Persian and Arabic. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): वॉरेन हेस्टिंग्स के काल में एशियाटिक सोसाइटी ऑफ बंगाल की स्थापना हुई थी और उन्होंने सर विलियम जोन्स के पक्ष में उस विद्वान संस्था की अध्यक्षता का प्रस्ताव विनम्रतापूर्वक अस्वीकार कर दिया था। कारण (R): वॉरेन हेस्टिंग्स स्वयं एक महान विद्वान और प्राच्यवादी थे, जिन्होंने संस्कृत, फारसी और अरबी के अध्ययन को प्रोत्साहित किया। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
Correct Option
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:
Assertion (A)True

The Asiatic Society of Bengal was established in the period of Warren Hastings and he modestly declined the offer of Presidentship of that learned body in favour of Sir William Jones (True - established on 15 January 1784; Hastings, then Governor-General of Bengal, gracefully declined the presidency to let the eminent linguist and Orientalist Sir William Jones lead the institution).

Reason (R)True

Warren Hastings was himself a great scholar and an ardent orientalist who used to encourage the study of Sanskrit, Persian and Arabic (True - Hastings was fluent in Persian and Bengali, founded the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781, and wrote the famous introduction to Charles Wilkins' first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita in 1785).

Because Hastings personally valued scholarship and recognized Sir William Jones's unmatched philological expertise, he supported the society's creation and declined the titular chair in Jones's favor. Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 23General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to the National Calendar, which of the statements are correct? 1. The National Calendar of India is based on Vikram Fra. 2. The National Calendar is adopted from January 26. 1950. 6 Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

राष्ट्रीय पंचांग के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. भारत का राष्ट्रीय पंचांग विक्रम संवत पर आधारित है। 2. राष्ट्रीय पंचांग को 26 जनवरी, 1950 से अपनाया गया था। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither nor 2
न तो 1, न ही 2
Correct Option
Explanation:

National Calendar of India factual analysis:

  1. 'The National Calendar of India is based on Vikram Era': Incorrect. The National Calendar of India is based on the Saka Era (starting in 78 AD), with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days (366 days in a leap year). The Vikram Era starts in 57 BC.
  2. 'The National Calendar is adopted from January 26, 1950': Incorrect. The Saka-based National Calendar was officially adopted on March 22, 1957 (Chaitra 1, 1879 Saka era) along with the Gregorian calendar, based on the recommendations of the Calendar Reform Committee chaired by renowned astrophysicist Dr. Meghnad Saha (constituted in 1952).

Therefore, Neither 1 nor 2 is correct (Option D).

Question 24General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

In which year was accounting separated from auditing and Comptroller and Auditor General's task only remained confined to auditing the Government Accounts?

निम्नलिखित में से किसी बस्तु के नमूने को हवा में खुलारखने पर कुछ समय पश्चात्‌ गायब हो जाता है जैसे कपूरनैफ्थलीन अथवा शुष्क बर्फ इस परिघटना को कहते हें

A
1975
ऊर्ध्वपातन (b) वाष्पीकरण
B
1977
1977
C
1976
1976
Correct Option
D
1981
1981
Explanation:

Separation of accounting from auditing for the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG):

  • Prior to 1976, the CAG was responsible for both compiling accounts and auditing the expenditure for both the Union and the State Governments.
  • In 1976, the Central Government enacted the Comptroller and Auditor General's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Amendment Act, 1976, which relieved the CAG of the responsibility for compiling and maintaining the accounts of the Union Government, separating audit from accounts at the Union level.
  • Consequently, the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, was established to oversee accounting, while the CAG's task remained confined to the independent constitutional audit of Government accounts.
  • (Note: At the state government level, the CAG continues to maintain accounts for most states).
Question 25History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Who opposed Planned Development in India"

भारत में नियोजित विकास (Planned Development) का विरोध किसने किया था?

A
Mahatma Gandhi
जवाहरलाल नेहरू
Correct Option
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
महात्मा गांधी
C
Indira Gandhi
इंदिरा गांधी
D
Rajiv Gandhi
राजीव गांधी
Explanation:

Opposition to centralized Planned Development in India:

  • Mahatma Gandhi strongly opposed centralized, technocratic, heavy-industrial planned development as adopted from the Soviet Gosplan model.
  • Gandhi believed that centralized mass production in factories concentrated wealth, displaced human labor, and pauperized rural communities. Instead, he championed 'Production by the Masses' rather than 'Mass Production', advocating for self-reliant village republics (Gram Swaraj), cottage industries, hand-spinning (Khadi), and decentralized village swaraj.
  • In contrast, Jawaharlal Nehru firmly believed in modern heavy industrialization, state planning, scientific temperament, and multi-purpose river dams as the 'temples of modern India', establishing the Planning Commission in March 1950.
  • Indira Gandhi and Rajiv Gandhi continued the centralized 5-Year Plan framework.
Question 26Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Article 30 of the Constitution of India does not define the term 'minorities'. Reason (R): The Constitution recognises only linguistic and religious minorities. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): भारत के संविधान का अनुच्छेद 30 'अल्पसंख्यक' शब्द को परिभाषित नहीं करता है। कारण (R): संविधान केवल भाषाई और धार्मिक अल्पसंख्यकों को मान्यता देता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
Correct Option
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:

Constitutional provisions regarding minorities:

  • Assertion (A): 'Article 30 of the Constitution of India does not define the term minorities': True. Nowhere does the Constitution of India define the word 'minority' or provide a numerical threshold for who constitutes a minority.
  • Reason (R): 'The Constitution recognises only linguistic and religious minorities': True. Article 30(1) states: 'All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.' Thus, the Constitution explicitly recognizes only two categories of minorities: religious and linguistic.
  • Explanation: While both statements are legally correct, the fact that the Constitution explicitly names two classes of minorities (R) is not the causal reason why the Constituent Assembly left the term 'minority' undefined (A) (it was left undefined to allow judicial interpretation based on state-level demographic realities, as affirmed in TMA Pai Foundation [2002]). Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (Option B).
Question 27Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the federal system in India, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. States have no right to secede from the Union under the Constitution of India. 2. Just advocacy of secession will have the protection of freedom of expression. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

भारतीय संघात्मक व्यवस्था के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित मेंसे कौन-सा कथन wel Be?l. भारतीय संविधान के अंतर्गत राज्यों को संघ सेअलग होने का अधिकार नहीं है।

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither I nor 2
न तो मैं और न ही 2
Explanation:

Federal system and sovereignty of India statements:

  1. 'States have no right to secede from the Union under the Constitution of India': Correct. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously clarified in the Constituent Assembly that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among sovereign states (unlike the USA), and no state has the right to secede from it. Article 1 describes India as an indestructible 'Union of States' (an indestructible Union of destructible states).
  2. 'Just advocacy of secession will have the protection of freedom of expression': INCORRECT. The 16th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963 specifically amended Article 19(2) by inserting the words 'sovereignty and integrity of India' as a reasonable restriction on the freedom of speech and expression (Article 19(1)(a)). Therefore, preaching, advocating, or inciting the secession of any part of India from the Union is an unlawful offence not protected under freedom of speech.

Therefore, statement 1 only is correct (Option A).

Question 28Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Which of the following Constitutional Subjects and Lists / Schedules is NOT correctly matched?

निम्नलिखित संवैधानिक विषयों और सूचियों/अनुसूचियों में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

A
Public Health and State List Sanitation
भाग II - नागरिकता
B
Census Union List
भाग III - मूल अधिकार
C
Allocation of seals in Second the Council of States Schedule
भाग IV - राज्य की नीति के निदेशक तत्व
Correct Option
D
Anti-Defection Tenth Schedule 7
भाग V - मूल कर्तव्य
Explanation:

Constitutional provisions and their respective Schedules:

  • (A) Public Health and Sanitation: Correctly placed in the State List (Seventh Schedule, List II, Entry 6).
  • (B) Census: Correctly placed in the Union List (Seventh Schedule, List I, Entry 69).
  • (C) Allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha): Matched with 'Second Schedule' is INCORRECT. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to States and Union Territories is contained in the Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)). The Second Schedule deals with provisions as to the salaries, allowances, and emoluments of constitutional functionaries (President, Governors, Judges, CAG, etc.).
  • (D) Anti-Defection Law: Correctly placed in the Tenth Schedule (inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985; Articles 102(2) and 191(2)).

Therefore, (C) is NOT correctly matched.

Question 29Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

How many items are there in the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India?

भारत के संविधान की iidt अनुसूची में कितने विषयहै

A
22
22 (b) 24
B
24
24
C
29
29 (d) 32
Correct Option
D
32
32
Explanation:

Items in the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India:

  • The Eleventh Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
  • It contains 29 functional subjects / items placed under the jurisdiction of Panchayati Raj Institutions (pursuant to Article 243G).
  • These 29 subjects include: Agriculture, Land improvement, Minor irrigation, Animal husbandry, Fisheries, Social forestry, Small scale industries, Khadi/village industries, Rural housing, Drinking water, Roads/culverts, Rural electrification, Poverty alleviation programmes, Education, Health and sanitation, Public Distribution System (PDS), etc.
  • (Comparison: The Twelfth Schedule added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992 under Article 243W contains 18 functional items for Municipalities).
Question 30General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to Prime Minister's Office (PMO) which one of the statements is/are correct? 1. It came into existence in 1977. 2. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

प्रधानमंत्री कार्यालय (पी.एम.ओ. ) के संबंध में निम्नलिखितमें से कौन-सा कथन सत्य है/हें?l. यह 977 4 अस्तित्व में आया।

A
Only 2
केवल 2
B
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
C
Only 1
केवल 1
Correct Option
D
Neither I nor 2
न तो मैं और न ही 2
Explanation:

Prime Minister's Office (PMO) statements:

  1. 'It came into existence in 1977': Correct. The Prime Minister's Office was originally established immediately after independence in 1947 as the Prime Minister's Secretariat (PMS). Under the Janata Party Government headed by Prime Minister Morarji Desai, it was officially renamed the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) in 1977.
  2. 'It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary': INCORRECT. The administrative head of the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) is the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister (an officer of the rank of Secretary to the Government of India). The Cabinet Secretary heads the Cabinet Secretariat, is the head of the civil services, and is ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board, NOT the head of the PMO.

Therefore, statement 1 only is correct (Option C).

Question 31Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

The provisions of the sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution are applicable in which of the following states?

भारतीय संविधान की छठी अनुसूची के प्रावधान निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य में लागू हैं?

A
Tripura
त्रिपुरा
Correct Option
B
Sikkim
सिक्किम
C
Nagaland
नगालैंड
D
All of the above
उपर्युक्त सभी
Explanation:

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)):

  • Contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in four north-eastern states:
  1. Assam
  2. Meghalaya
  3. Tripura
  4. Mizoram
  • Popularly remembered by the mnemonic 'AMTM' (Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram).
  • It provides for the creation of autonomous district councils (ADCs) and regional councils endowed with legislative, judicial, and executive autonomy.
  • Note: States like Sikkim and Nagaland are NOT covered under the Sixth Schedule (Nagaland has special provisions under Article 371A; Fifth Schedule covers tribal areas in 10 other states).

Therefore, among the options, the Sixth Schedule applies to Tripura (Option A).

Question 32Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Which of the following is NOT correctly mulched?

निम्नांकित में से कौन-सा सही सुमेलित नहीं हे?

A
Habeas corpus 'To have the body of'
बंदी प्रत्यक्षीकरण 'का शव प्राप्त करना'
B
Mandamus 'We command'
मंडामस 'हम आदेश देते हैं'
C
Prohibition 'To be certified'
निषेध 'प्रमाणित किया जाना'
Correct Option
D
Quo-warranto 'By what authority'
अधिकार पृच्छा 'किस अधिकार से'
Explanation:

Prerogative Writs under Articles 32 and 226 and their Latin literal meanings:

  • (A) Habeas Corpus: Literally means 'To have the body of' (issued to produce an unlawfully detained person before the court) - Correctly matched.
  • (B) Mandamus: Literally means 'We command' (issued to command a public official or body to perform a mandatory statutory duty) - Correctly matched.
  • (C) Prohibition: Matched with 'To be certified' is INCORRECT. The writ of Prohibition literally means 'To forbid' (issued by a higher court to prevent a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction). It is the writ of Certiorari that literally means 'To be certified' or 'To be informed' (issued to quash the order of an inferior court/tribunal).
  • (D) Quo-Warranto: Literally means 'By what authority (or warrant)' (issued to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office) - Correctly matched.

Therefore, (C) is NOT correctly matched.

Question 33Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

The Money Bill is defined in which Article of the Constitution of India?

धन विधेयक भारत के संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद मेंपरिभाषित किया गया हे?

A
Article 109
अनुच्छेद 09 (b) अनुच्छेद 0
B
Article 110
अनुच्छेद 110
Correct Option
C
Article 111
अनुच्छेद 111
D
Article 112
अनुच्छेद 112
Explanation:

Definition of Money Bill in the Indian Constitution:

  • Article 110 of the Constitution of India provides the precise definition of a 'Money Bill'.
  • Under Article 110(1), a bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:

(a) Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax;

(b) Regulation of government borrowing or giving of guarantees;

(c) Custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India, and payments into or withdrawals from such funds;

(d) Appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India;

(e) Declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund;

(f) Receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund or the public account.

  • Note on other Articles:
  • Article 109: Lays down the special procedure in respect of Money Bills (cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha; Rajya Sabha has only 14 days to return it).
  • Article 111: Assent to Bills by the President.
  • Article 112: Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget).
Question 34General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Cross border oil pipeline inaugurated by P.M. Modi in September 2019 connects which of the following cities?

सितंबर 209 में प्रधानमंत्री मोदी द्वारा उद्घाटन सीमा पारतेल पाइपलाइन निम्नलिखित में से किन दो शहरों कोजोड्ती हे?

A
Motihari and Amlekhganj
मोतीहारी तथा आमलेखगंज
Correct Option
B
Darbhanga and Amlekhganj
दरभंगा और अमलेखगंज
C
Motihari and Kathmandu
मोतिहारी और काठमांडू
D
None of these
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Cross-border oil pipeline inaugurated in September 2019:

  • On 10 September 2019, Prime Minister Narendra Modi of India and Prime Minister K.P. Sharma Oli of Nepal jointly inaugurated the Motihari-Amlekhganj Cross-Border Petroleum Products Pipeline via video conference.
  • Route: Connects Motihari in the state of Bihar (India) to Amlekhganj in the Bara District (Nepal).
  • Significance: It was South Asia's first cross-border petroleum pipeline, constructed by the Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) in partnership with the Nepal Oil Corporation (NOC).
  • Length: 69 km long pipeline with an initial capacity of 2 million metric tonnes per annum (MMTPA), eliminating tedious truck-tanker transport and ensuring secure, cheaper, and eco-friendly fuel supply to landlocked Nepal.
Question 35State Special GK (राज्य विशेष सामान्य ज्ञान)
Answer Key

Jaipur was listed as 'World Heritage Site by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee in its 43rd Session held in the city

यूनेस्को विश्व धरोहर समिति द्वारा इसके किस शहर मेंसंपन्‍न हुए 43वें सत्र में जयपुर को धरोहर स्थान के रूपमें सूचीबद्ध किया गया है?

A
Baku (Azerbaizan)
बाकू (अज़रबेजान) (7) बिश्केक (किर्गिस्तान)
Correct Option
B
Bishkek (Kyrgyzstan)
बिश्केक (किर्गिस्तान)
C
Istanbul (Turkey)
इस्तांबुल, तुर्की)
D
Marakesh (Morocco)
मराकेश (मोरक्को)
Explanation:

Inscription of Jaipur on the UNESCO World Heritage List:

  • On 6 July 2019, the historic walled city of Jaipur (Rajasthan), known as the 'Pink City', was officially inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • This inscription occurred during the 43rd Session of the World Heritage Committee, which was hosted in the city of Baku, Azerbaijan (from 30 June to 10 July 2019).
  • Founded in 1727 AD under the patronage of Sawai Jai Singh II, Jaipur is celebrated for its exemplary town planning based on ancient Hindu grid architecture (Vastu Shastra) integrated with modern Mughal urbanism.
  • Jaipur became the second Indian city to be inscribed as a World Heritage City, after Ahmedabad (inscribed in 2017).
Question 36Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Who among the following was appointed as the Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष (IMF) की नव-नियुक्त प्रबंध निदेशक कौन हैं?

A
Kristalina Georgieva
क्रिस्टालिना जॉर्जीवा
Correct Option
B
Christine Lugarde
क्रिस्टीन लेगार्ड
C
Raghuram Rajan
गीता गोपीनाथ
D
Surjit Bhalla 8
रघुराम राजन
Explanation:

Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF):

  • In September 2019, Bulgarian economist Kristalina Georgieva was appointed as the Managing Director of the IMF, assuming office on 1 October 2019.
  • She succeeded Christine Lagarde of France, who resigned to become the President of the European Central Bank (ECB).
  • Georgieva previously served as the Chief Executive Officer of the World Bank and European Commissioner for International Cooperation and Humanitarian Aid.
  • She is the first person from an emerging market economy and from Eastern Europe to lead the IMF since its inception under the Bretton Woods conference in 1944.
Question 37General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

The national initiative launched in October 2019 by the Government of India to mentor talented school students is titled which of the following?

भारत सरकार द्वारा अक्टूबर 0, 209 को प्रतिभाशालीबच्चों के कौशल समृद्धि के प्रोत्साहन हेतु प्रारंभ कियागया राष्ट्रीय कार्यक्रम हे

A
LAKSHYA
लक्ष्य (9) प्रतिभा
B
PRATIBHA
प्रतिभा
C
DHRUV
ध्रुव
Correct Option
D
PARIVARTAN
परिवर्तन
Explanation:

Pradhan Mantri Innovative Learning Programme - 'DHRUV':

  • Launched on 10 October 2019 by the Union Human Resource Development (HRD) Minister (now Ministry of Education) from the ISRO Headquarters in Bengaluru, in the presence of ISRO Chairman Dr. K. Sivan.
  • Objective: To identify, mentor, and hone the skills of exceptionally talented and meritorious school students (from classes 9 to 12) across two streams: Science and Performing Arts.
  • Naming: Named after the steadfast pole star 'Dhruv Tara', symbolizing children who will shine through their exceptional talents and contributions to society.
  • First Cohort: Selected 60 outstanding students (30 from Science and 30 from Performing Arts) from government and private schools across India for an intensive 14-day mentorship program at ISRO and IIT Delhi.
Question 38Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Personality / Entity) | List-II (Role / Description) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Thomas Cook | 1. Recipient of Bharat Bharati Award | | B. Greta Thunberg | 2. Hong Kong Leader | | C. Dr. Usha Kiran | 3. Environmental Activist | | D. Carrie Lam | 4. British Tour and Travel Company | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (व्यक्तित्व / संस्था) सूची-II (भूमिका / विवरण) :--- :--- A. थॉमस कुक भारत-भारती सम्मान की प्राप्तकर्ता B. ग्रेटा थनबर्ग हांगकांग की नेता C. डॉ. उषा किरण पर्यावरण कार्यकर्ता D. कैरी लैम ब्रिटिश टूर एवं ट्रैवल कंपनी कूट: A B C D

A
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4
B
4 3 1 2
4 3 1 2
C
1 3 4 2
1 3 4 2
D
4 2 3 1
4 2 3 1
Correct Option
Explanation:

Current personalities/entities in the news (2019) and their matching descriptions:

  • Thomas Cook: The world's oldest British tour and travel company (founded in 1841 by Thomas Cook) that dramatically collapsed into bankruptcy and liquidation on 23 September 2019, stranding hundreds of thousands of holidaymakers worldwide (A-4).
  • Greta Thunberg: Teenage Swedish environmental activist who initiated the 'Fridays for Future' global climate strike movement and delivered her impassioned 'How Dare You' speech at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 (B-3).
  • Dr. Usha Kiran Khan: Renowned Hindi and Maithili litterateur who was conferred the prestigious Bharat Bharati Award (highest literary honor awarded by the Uttar Pradesh Hindi Sansthan, Lucknow) for the year 2018 (C-1).
  • Carrie Lam: Chief Executive and political leader of Hong Kong who faced massive pro-democracy mass protests throughout 2019 sparked by the controversial extradition bill (D-2).

Matching: A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (Option D).

Question 39Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

The 2019 Nobel Prize for Economics was given lu Ewoman for the second time, nume the first woman who was earlier awarded this prize.

वर्ष 209 अर्थशास्त्र का नोबल पुरस्कार दूसरी बार किसीमहिला को दिया गया। इस पुरस्कार से सम्मानित होनेवाली प्रथम महिला कौन थी?

A
Esther Dutto
ईस्थर डफलो (b) Hef थेरेसा कोरी
B
Gerty Theresa Cori
गर्टी थेरेसा कोरी
C
Maria Goeppert
मारिया गोएपर्ट
D
Elinar Ostrom
एलिनार ओस्ट्रोम
Correct Option
Explanation:

The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences:

  • In 2019, the Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded jointly to Abhijit Banerjee, his wife Esther Duflo, and Michael Kremer 'for their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty'.
  • At 46, Esther Duflo became the youngest person and only the second woman in history to win the Nobel Prize in Economics.
  • The first woman ever to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences was Elinor Ostrom in 2009 (awarded jointly with Oliver E. Williamson) 'for her analysis of economic governance, especially the commons' (demonstrating how common pool resources [forests, fisheries, pastures] can be successfully managed collectively by user communities without government regulation or privatization).
  • (Note: Gerty Cori and Maria Goeppert-Mayer won Nobel Prizes in Physiology/Medicine and Physics respectively, not Economics).
Question 40General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Rural Sanitation Strategy launched by Ministry of Jal Shakti in September 2019 relates to which of the following periods?

सितंबर 209 में जल शक्ति मंत्रालय द्वारा प्रारंभ की गईग्रामीण स्वच्छता रणनीति निम्न में से किस अवधि सेसंबंधित हे?

A
2019-2035
209-2035 (b) 20I9-2029
B
2019-2029
2019-2029
Correct Option
C
2019-2022
209-2022 (d) 20I9-2024
D
2019-2024
2019-2024
Explanation:

Rural Sanitation Strategy (10-Year Framework):

  • In September 2019, the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti launched the 10-Year Rural Sanitation Strategy (2019-2029).
  • Objective: To guide local governments (Gram Panchayats), states, and grassroots stakeholders in sustaining the gains of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) and achieving ODF-Plus status.
  • Key Pillars: Moving beyond mere toilet construction to ensure: (1) ODF Sustainability (ensuring no one is left behind and regular toilet usage), (2) Solid and Liquid Waste Management (SLWM) including plastic waste, bio-waste (GOBARdhan), and greywater management in all villages across India for the decade 2019-2029.
Question 41History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Central Institute of Indian Languages is located at which of the following places?

केंद्रीय भारतीय भाषा संस्थान निम्नलिखित में से किस स्थान पर स्थित है?

A
Varanasi
वाराणसी
B
Mysore
मैसूर
Correct Option
C
New Delhi
नई दिल्ली
D
Shimla
शिमला
Explanation:

The Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL):

  • Located in Mysuru (Mysore), Karnataka.
  • Established on 17 July 1969 by the Ministry of Education (Government of India) following the recommendations of the Kothari Commission.
  • Mandate: To advise the Union and state governments on language matters, coordinate the development of 22 Scheduled Indian languages as well as non-scheduled, tribal, and endangered languages, and conduct research in linguistic pedagogy and translation.
  • Operates seven Regional Language Centres (RLCs) across the country (including Northern Regional Language Centre at Patiala, Urdu Teaching and Research Centre at Lucknow, UP, and Solan).
Question 42History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

India aims to achieve land degradation neutrality by the year

भारत किस वर्ष तक भूमि क्षरण तटस्थता (लैंड डिग्रेडेशन न्यूट्रैलिटी) प्राप्त करने का लक्ष्य रखता है?

A
2025
2025
B
2030
2030
Correct Option
C
2035
2035
D
2040
2040
Explanation:

Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) target for India:

  • Target Year: 2030.
  • In September 2019, India hosted the 14th Conference of Parties (COP14) of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) at India Expo Centre in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
  • At the high-level segment on 9 September 2019, Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced that India raised its target of restoring degraded lands from 21 million hectares to 26 million hectares by 2030, aligning with Sustainable Development Goal (SDG 15.3) to achieve a land degradation-neutral world by 2030.
  • India adopted the 'Delhi Declaration' at this summit, committing to halt desertification, drought-resilient agriculture, and tree canopy enhancement.
Question 43General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Which Geosynchronous Satellite I.aunch Vehicle was used by ISRO to launch Chandrayaan-2 space craft?

इसरो (ISRO) द्वारा चंद्रयान-2 को प्रक्षेपित करने के लिए किस भू-समकालिक उपग्रह प्रक्षेपण यान का उपयोग किया गया था?

A
GSLV – MK III - M1
जीएसएलवी एमके III-एम1
Correct Option
B
GSLV – MK II - M2
जीएसएलवी एमके II-एम2
C
GSLV – MK IV - M8
जीएसएलवी एमके IV-एम1
D
GSLV – MK V - M4 9
जीएसएलवी एमके V-एम1
Explanation:

ISRO's Launch Vehicle for Chandrayaan-2:

  • On 22 July 2019, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the Chandrayaan-2 spacecraft from the Second Launch Pad at Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
  • The launch vehicle used was the GSLV Mk III-M1 (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III, First Operational Flight 'M1', now redesignated as LVM3).
  • Nicknamed 'Fat Boy' and 'Bahubali', GSLV Mk III is India's most powerful three-stage heavy-lift rocket, featuring two solid strap-on motors (S200), a core liquid propellant stage (L110), and an indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage (C25).
  • Chandrayaan-2 comprised an Orbiter, the Vikram Lander, and the Pragyan Rover.
Question 44History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Which of the following statements about India's largest Charkha is/are true? 1. It was inaugurated in Noida. 2. It is made of used plastic waste. Select the correct answer from the codes given below Codes:

भारत के सबसे aS चरखे के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित मेंसे कौन-सा कथन सही है/हैं?L. इसका उद्घाटन नोएडा में हुआ।

A
Only 1
केवल 1
B
Only 2
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
Correct Option
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1, न ही 2
Explanation:

India's largest Charkha statements:

  1. 'It was inaugurated in Noida': Correct. On the eve of Mahatma Gandhi's 150th birth anniversary on 1 October 2019, India's largest spinning wheel (Charkha) was inaugurated in Noida (Sector 94, near Mahamaya Flyover), Gautam Buddha Nagar district, Uttar Pradesh by Union Minister Smriti Irani along with Noida MLA Pankaj Singh.
  2. 'It is made of used plastic waste': Correct. The colossal charkha was constructed out of 1,650 kg of recycled plastic waste collected during a massive clean-up drive. It measures 14 feet high, 20 feet long, and 8 feet wide, symbolizing both Gandhian swadeshi self-reliance and the modern fight against single-use plastic pollution.

Therefore, Both statements 1 and 2 are correct (Option C).

Question 45General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Which of the following organisms has white blood?

निम्नलिखित में से किस जीव का रक्त सफेद होना हे

A
Lizard
छिपकली (7) तलचूदट्रा
B
Cockroach
तिलचट्टा
Correct Option
C
House bug
घर का बग
D
Mosquito
मच्छर
Explanation:

Organism with white/colorless blood:

  • The Cockroach (Periplaneta americana, phylum Arthropoda, class Insecta) possesses colorless or white blood known as hemolymph.
  • Scientific Mechanism: In vertebrates (like lizards, humans) and many animals, blood is red due to iron-containing hemoglobin inside erythrocytes that binds and transports oxygen. Cockroaches do not use their blood to transport oxygen. Instead, insects breathe through an independent tracheal system of branching air tubes (spiracles and tracheae) that delivers oxygen directly from the air to tissues.
  • Therefore, insect hemolymph lacks hemoglobin, hemocyanin, or any colored respiratory pigments, appearing milky white or clear yellowish. It functions primarily to transport nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes.
  • In contrast: Lizards have red blood (hemoglobin); Bed bugs and mosquitoes ingest human/mammalian red blood and exhibit red/brown coloration.
Question 46General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Nitrogen-fixing symbiotic bacteria (Rhizobium) form nodules on the root cells of which crops?

संवृद्धि की सीमा की अवधारणा का प्रतिपादन किसकेद्वारा किया गया था?

A
Pulses
क्लब ऑफ रोम (b) यूनेस्को
Correct Option
B
Rice
चावल
C
When
कब
D
Sugarcane
गन्ना
Explanation:

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria and symbiotic root association:

  • Nitrogen-fixing bacteria (primarily Rhizobium species such as Rhizobium leguminosarum) form a classical mutualistic symbiotic relationship with the root cortical cells of Leguminous plants (Pulses / Dalen) such as chickpea (gram), pea, lentil, arhar (pigeon pea), mung, and soybean.
  • Mechanism: The bacteria invade root hairs, stimulating cortical cell division to form root nodules. Inside these nodules, the enzyme nitrogenase converts atmospheric dinitrogen (N₂) into absorbable ammonia (NH₃). In return, the plant provides the bacteria with carbohydrates (malate/succinate) and shelter.
  • The oxygen-sensitive nitrogenase is protected from oxygen damage by a plant-synthesized red/pink pigment called leghemoglobin (an oxygen scavenger).
  • Non-leguminous crops like Rice, Wheat, and Sugarcane lack Rhizobium root nodules (though some associative bacteria like Azospirillum or free-living Azotobacter live in their rhizosphere).
Question 47General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?

जब किसी साबुन के बुलबुले को आवेशित किया जाताहै, तो निम्न में से क्या घटित होता हे?

A
Its radius increases
fen ag जाती हे
Correct Option
B
Its radius decreases
इसकी त्रिज्या घटती है
C
The bubble collapses
बुलबुला ढह जाता है
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Effect of placing electrical charge on a soap bubble:

  • When an electric charge (whether positive or negative) is placed on a soap bubble, its radius increases (the bubble expands).
  • Physical Mechanism: A soap bubble is a spherical conducting liquid film. Like charges repel each other according to Coulomb's Law. Any charge distributed over the outer and inner surfaces of the bubble experiences a mutual electrostatic repulsive force directed radially outward at every point on the surface.
  • This outward electrostatic pressure (rac{\sigma²{2 arepsilon₀) opposes and acts against the inward contracting surface tension of the liquid film. As a result, the bubble expands outward until the electrostatic repulsion and surface tension reach a new mechanical equilibrium, causing the bubble's radius to increase.
Question 48General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

निम्नांकित में से कौन-सा सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

A
Oxytocin Hormone
ऑकक्‍्सीटोसीन हॉर्मोन
B
Aspartame Synthetic sweetner
एस्पार्टेम — कृत्रिम मधुरक
C
Neoprene Specialized rubber
नियोप्रीन — विशिष्ट रबर
D
Rayon Modified starch
रेयान — रूपांतरित स्टार्च
Correct Option
Explanation:

Chemical classification of biological and industrial substances:

  • (A) Oxytocin: A natural peptide hormone and neuropeptide synthesized in the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary (stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth and milk ejection during breastfeeding) - Correctly matched.
  • (B) Aspartame: A widely used synthetic artificial sweetener (non-caloric methyl ester of a dipeptide of aspartic acid and phenylalanine; ~200 times sweeter than sucrose) - Correctly matched.
  • (C) Neoprene: A specialized synthetic rubber produced by the polymerization of chloroprene (resistant to oils, chemicals, and weathering) - Correctly matched.
  • (D) Rayon: Matched with 'Modified starch' is INCORRECT. Rayon is a semi-synthetic regenerated cellulose fibre, manufactured from naturally occurring wood pulp or cotton linters chemically dissolved (using carbon disulfide and sodium hydroxide) and regenerated into filaments. It has nothing to do with starch.

Therefore, (D) is NOT correctly matched.

Question 49General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Which of the following substances is NOT in protein?

निम्नलिखित में से पदार्थ प्रोटीन नहीं हे?

A
Cotton
कपास
Correct Option
B
Hair
बाल
C
Spider silk
मकड़ी रेशम
D
Hoof
खुर
Explanation:

Proteins vs Non-protein biological substances:

  • Cotton: Composed of almost pure cellulose (90-95% cellulose), which is a complex polysaccharide carbohydrate formed by long chains of eta-D-glucose units linked by eta-(1,4)-glycosidic bonds. It contains no protein or amino acids whatsoever.
  • In contrast:
  • Hair: Composed of Keratin, a tough, insoluble fibrous structural protein rich in cysteine amino acids and disulfide bonds.
  • Spider silk: Composed of Fibroin / Spidroin, a highly structured structural protein dominated by repetitive glycine- and alanine-rich amino acid sequences, possessing higher tensile strength than steel.
  • Hoof (and horns/claws/nails): Composed of hardened alpha-keratin protein.

Therefore, Cotton is NOT a protein (Option A).

Question 50General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

A liquid remains hot or cold for a long time in a thermos flask because there is negligible heat transfer by which processes?

थर्मस फ्लास्क में लम्बे समय तक तरल गर्म या ठंडारहता है क्‍योंकि ऊष्मा की कोई हानि अथवा प्राप्ति नहींहोती है

A
Conduction
संचालन
B
Convection and radiation
संवहन एवं विकिरण
C
Both(a) and(b)
दोनों(ए) और(बी)
Correct Option
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Heat transfer prevention mechanisms in a Thermos Flask (Dewar Flask):

  • Invented by Scottish scientist Sir James Dewar in 1892, a vacuum flask keeps hot liquids hot and cold liquids cold by preventing heat loss or gain through all three modes of heat transfer:
  1. Conduction: Prevented by the evacuated vacuum space between the double glass/steel walls. Since conduction requires material molecules to collide and transfer kinetic energy, heat cannot conduct across a vacuum.
  2. Convection: Prevented because fluid convection currents (movement of air/gas molecules) cannot form or circulate in the vacuum between the walls. A tight insulating stopper (cork or plastic) also stops convection through the neck.
  3. Radiation: Prevented by silvering the interior walls of the vacuum flask facing each other. The mirror-like silver coatings reflect thermal infrared radiant heat back into the flask (retaining heat of hot liquids) and reflect external radiation away (keeping cold liquids cold).
  • Therefore, the flask prevents heat transfer by Conduction (a) AND Convection and Radiation (b) -> Both (a) and (b) (Option C).
Question 51General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Which of the following glands in human body acts beath as a endocrine gland as well as an exocrine gland?

मानव शरीर में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी ग्रंथि अंतःस्रावी ग्रंथि के साथ-साथ बहिःस्रावी ग्रंथि के रूप में भी कार्य करती है?

A
Adrenal gland
एड्रिनल ग्रंथि
B
Lacrimal gland
अश्रु ग्रंथि
C
Pancreas
अग्न्याशय
Correct Option
D
Thyroid 10
थायराइड 10
Explanation:

Dual endocrine and exocrine gland:

  • The Pancreas is a composite / heterocrine gland that performs both exocrine and endocrine functions:
  1. Exocrine function: The vast majority (~98%) of the pancreas consists of acinar cells that synthesize and secrete pancreatic juice (containing digestive enzymes such as pancreatic amylase, trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, and pancreatic lipase) through the pancreatic duct into the duodenum.
  2. Endocrine function: The remaining ~1-2% consists of approximately 1 to 2 million cell clusters known as the Islets of Langerhans. These secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream without ducts: Beta ($eta$) cells secrete Insulin (lowers blood glucose), Alpha ($lpha$) cells secrete Glucagon (elevates blood glucose), and Delta ($\delta$) cells secrete Somatostatin.
  • Other options: Adrenal and Thyroid glands are purely endocrine; Lacrimal glands (tear glands) are purely exocrine.
Question 52Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which one of the following materials contains calcium?

निम्नलिखित में से किस पदार्थ में कैल्शियम विद्यमान है?

A
China clay
चीनी मिट्टी (7) कोरडर
B
Corundum
कोरन्डम
C
Gypsumn
जिप्सम
Correct Option
D
Talc
तालक
Explanation:

Mineral containing calcium:

  • Gypsum has the chemical formula $CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O$ (calcium sulfate dihydrate) and contains approximately 23.3% Calcium (Ca) and 18.6% Sulfur (S). When heated to 373 K (100°C), gypsum loses part of its water of crystallization to form Plaster of Paris (CaSO₄ · rac{1}{2}H₂O).
  • Composition of other options:
  • China clay (Kaolin): Hydrated aluminum silicate [Al₂Si₂O₅(OH)₄] - contains aluminum and silicon, no calcium.
  • Corundum: Pure aluminum oxide [lpha-Al₂O₃] (second only to diamond in hardness, Mohs 9) - contains aluminum, no calcium.
  • Talc: Hydrated magnesium silicate [Mg₃Si₄O₁₀(OH)₂] (softest mineral on Mohs scale 1) - contains magnesium, no calcium.
Question 53General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Substance) (Use)

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा युग्म (पदार्थ एवं उसका उपयोग) सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

A
Silver bromide artificial photosynthesis
सिल्वर ब्रोमाइड — कृत्रिम प्रकाश संश्लेषण
Correct Option
B
Silver iodide artificial rain
सिल्वर आयोडाइड — कृत्रिम वर्षा
C
Lithium bicarbonate treatment of theumatism
लिथियम बाइकार्बोनेट — गठिया का उपचार
D
Milk of magnesia antacid
मिल्क ऑफ मैग्नीशिया — प्रतिअम्ल (एंटासिड)
Explanation:

Silver bromide (AgBr) is a light-sensitive chemical compound used extensively in photographic films and paper emulsion, NOT in artificial photosynthesis. Silver iodide (AgI) is used in cloud seeding for artificial rain; Lithium bicarbonate/carbonate is used in medicine for rheumatism/mental health; and Milk of Magnesia (magnesium hydroxide) is a standard antacid. Thus, Option A is not correctly matched.

Question 54General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Tulsi plant has medicinal values due to the presence of the following

तुलसी के पौधे का औषधीय महत्त्व निम्नांकित कीउपस्थिति के कारण हे

A
Inorganic Acid
अकार्बनिक अम्ल
B
Organic Acid
जैविक रसायन
C
Phenols and Flavonoids
फिनोल और फ्लेवोनोइड
Correct Option
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Medicinal properties of the Tulsi plant (Ocimum sanctum / Holy Basil):

  • Tulsi holds a revered position in Ayurveda and modern phytotherapy for its profound anti-microbial, anti-inflammatory, adaptogenic, anti-oxidant, and immunomodulatory properties.
  • Chemical Constituents: These medicinal attributes are primarily attributed to the rich presence of bioactive Phenols and Flavonoids:
  • Phenolic compounds: Dominantly Eugenol (1-hydroxy-2-methoxy-4-allylbenzene, which constitutes up to 70% of the essential oil and confers intense antimicrobial, analgesic, and antiseptic properties), carvacrol, rosmarinic acid, and methyl chavicol.
  • Flavonoids: Potent antioxidant polyphenols including Apigenin, Luteolin, orientin, and vicenin, which scavenge free radicals and mitigate oxidative stress.
  • Neither inorganic acids nor simple organic acids are responsible for Tulsi's unique pharmacognostic efficacy.
Question 55Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

What is true about ecosystem?

इकोसिस्टम के संबंध में निम्न में से क्‍या सत्य है?

A
Primary consumers are least dependent upon producer
प्राथमिक उपभोक्ता उत्पादक पर न्यूनतम रूप से अश्रित हैं।
B
Primary consumers are out-number producers
प्राथमिक उपभोक्ता संख्या से अधिक उत्पादक हैं
C
Producers are more than primary consumers
उत्पादक प्राथमिक उपभोक्ताओं से अधिक हैं
Correct Option
D
Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful
द्वितीयक उपभोक्ता सबसे बड़े और सबसे शक्तिशाली हैं
Explanation:

Fundamental ecological principles of trophic structure in an ecosystem:

  • In any stable terrestrial ecosystem, the number and biomass of Producers are greater than Primary Consumers (Producers are more than primary consumers - Option C).
  • Scientific Principle: According to Lindeman's 10% Law of Energy Transfer (1942), only approximately 10% of the energy captured at one trophic level is transferred to the next higher trophic level. The remaining 90% is dissipated as metabolic heat and respiration.
  • Consequently, an upright pyramid of numbers and an upright pyramid of energy exist in terrestrial ecosystems, requiring a massive base of primary autotrophic producers (green plants) to support a smaller population of primary consumers (herbivores).
  • Why other options are false:
  • (A) Primary consumers are completely (not least) dependent upon autotrophic producers for nutrition.
  • (B) In stable terrestrial ecosystems, primary consumers do not outnumber producers.
  • (D) Secondary consumers are not necessarily the largest, and energy decreases at higher levels.
Question 56Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to Eutrophication, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a phenomenon of nutrient enrichment of a water body. 2. It depletes dissolved oxygen of the water. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:

सुपोषण के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथनwat te?l. यह जल निकाय के पोषक तत्व संवर्धन की घटनाहै।

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 only
केवल 2
Correct Option
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1, न ही 2
Explanation:

Eutrophication scientific statements:

  1. 'It increases dissolved oxygen in water': INCORRECT. Eutrophication ultimately causes severe depletion of dissolved oxygen (hypoxia or anoxia). While the initial rapid proliferation of algae produces oxygen during the day, the subsequent death and decomposition of the massive algal biomass by aerobic heterotrophic bacteria consumes vast amounts of dissolved oxygen (increasing Biochemical Oxygen Demand, BOD), leading to suffocation and mass mortality of fish and aquatic organisms.
  2. 'It is a phenomenon of nutrient enrichment of a water body': Correct. Eutrophication (from Greek eutrophos, 'well-nourished') is defined as the aging and degradation of an aquatic ecosystem resulting from excessive nutrient enrichment, particularly runoff containing nitrogen (N) and phosphorus (P) from agricultural chemical fertilizers, domestic sewage, and detergents.

Therefore, Statement 2 only is correct (Option B).

The pollution and eutrophication of sacred rivers and water bodies in Uttar Pradesh (such as the Gomti in Lucknow and Yamuna in Mathura-Agra) due to untreated sewage influx is a major environmental focus under the Namami Gange and State Pollution Control Board mandates.

Candidates confuse the initial algal greening with oxygen generation. Decomposers rapidly deplete all oxygen during algal decay, creating deadly 'dead zones' (hypoxia). Hence Statement 1 is false.

  • High nutrient load (N, P) -> Algal Bloom -> High BOD -> Low Dissolved Oxygen (Hypoxia) -> Aquatic dead zones.
  • Normal healthy water has DO > 6-8 mg/L; hypoxic water has DO < 2 mg/L.

Statement 1 is scientifically false (DO decreases, BOD increases). Statement 2 is the exact definition of eutrophication. Thus, Option B (2 only) is correct.

Question 57Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

The environment modified by human activities is called

मानव गतिविधियों से परिवर्तित पर्यावरण कहलाता हे

A
Natural environment
नैसर्गिक पर्यावरण
B
Anthropogenic environment
मानवजनित वातावरण
Correct Option
C
Urban environment
शहरी वातावरण
D
Modem environment 11
मॉडेम वातावरण 11
Explanation:

Classification of human-modified environments:

  • The environment modified or created by human activities is scientifically termed the Anthropogenic environment (or human-made / man-modified environment, from the Greek anthropos meaning 'human' and genesis meaning 'origin').
  • It encompasses all ecosystems, habitats, landscapes, and physical environments directly transformed by human technology, urbanization, agriculture, industrialization, deforestation, and infrastructure development (e.g., agroecosystems, cities, industrial corridors, reservoirs, artificial plantations).
  • Contrast with other categories:
  • Natural environment: Operates without significant human interference (e.g., virgin tropical rainforests, pristine polar biomes).
  • Urban environment: A specific subset of the anthropogenic environment consisting of cities and towns.
  • Modern environment: A temporal, not ecological or geomorphological, classification.
Question 58Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which of the following statement is NOT true?

निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा सत्य नहीं हे?

A
Species diversity increases from equator towards poles.
भूमध्यरेखा से श्रुवों की ओर जाति विविधता में वृद्धि होती है।
Correct Option
B
Tropics harbour more species than temperate areas.
समशीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों की तुलना में उष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों में अधिक प्रजातियाँ पाई जाती हैं।
C
Greatest biodiversity occurs in Amazoncan run forest
सबसे बड़ी जैव विविधता अमेज़ॅनकेन रन फ़ॉरेस्ट में पाई जाती है
D
Species diversity decreases from temperate areas towards poles.
प्रजाति विविधता शीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों से ध्रुवों की ओर घटती है
Explanation:

Global biodiversity patterns (Latitudinal Diversity Gradient):

  • (A) 'Species diversity increases from equator towards poles': INCORRECT (NOT TRUE). In ecology, the Latitudinal Diversity Gradient (LDG) is one of the most robust, universally documented patterns on Earth: species diversity is highest at the equator and progressively decreases as one moves from the tropics towards the temperate zones and polar regions. Tropics harbor immense biodiversity due to evolutionary stability, lack of frequent glaciation, higher solar energy, constant year-round temperatures, and high humidity.
  • Analysis of other options:
  • (B) 'Tropics harbour more species than temperate areas': True (e.g., tropical rainforests cover ~7% of Earth's land but harbor >50% of terrestrial species).
  • (C) 'Greatest biodiversity occurs in Amazonian rainforest': True (known as the 'Lungs of the Planet', the Amazon basin hosts the richest biodiversity on Earth).
  • (D) 'Species diversity decreases from temperate areas towards poles': True (consistent with the LDG).

Therefore, Statement (A) is NOT true.

Question 59Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which one of the following is the well known example of bloindicator of air pollution?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वायुप्रदूषण के जैविक सूचकका प्रसिद्ध उदाहरण हे?

A
Lichens
लाइकन्स (b) मेथिल मरक्यूरि
Correct Option
B
Methyl mercury
मिथाइल पारा
C
Rose plant
गुलाब का पौधा
D
Sunflower
सूरजमुखी
Explanation:

Biological indicators of air pollution:

  • Lichens are internationally recognized as the preeminent, sensitive bioindicators of air pollution, specifically for sulfur dioxide ($SO_2$) and heavy metals.
  • Scientific Mechanism: A lichen is a mutualistic symbiotic association between a fungus (mycobiont) and an alga or cyanobacterium (photobiont). Because lichens possess no cuticle, roots, or stomata, they absorb water and nutrients directly from the atmosphere across their entire surface. They are extraordinarily sensitive to toxic gaseous sulfur dioxide, which destroys their chlorophyll and halts photosynthesis.
  • Consequently, lichens cannot survive in industrial or urban areas with polluted air; their absence from tree barks and rocks is an immediate ecological indicator of high SO₂ atmospheric pollution.
  • Other options: Methyl mercury is a dangerous toxic organic pollutant responsible for Minamata disease (not a bioindicator organism); Rose and sunflower are ornamental angiosperms.
Question 60General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Which of the fallowing is NOT correctly matched?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

A
Desalination Sea water
अलवणीकरण समुद्रीजल
B
Reverse osmosis Potabic water
रिवर्स ऑस्मोसिस — पेय जल
C
Denuturation Proteins
विकृतीकरण — प्रोटीन
D
Pasteurisation Tea
पाश्चुरीकरण — चाय
Correct Option
Explanation:

Pasteurisation is a mild heat-treatment process developed by Louis Pasteur to kill pathogenic microorganisms in liquid foods, predominantly Milk and dairy products, NOT Tea. Reverse osmosis is used to purify water for potable drinking; Denaturation changes the physical structure of proteins. Thus, Option D (Pasteurisation - Tea) is not correctly matched.

Question 61General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Which of the following is an example of herbicide?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा शाकनाशी का उदाहरण है?

A
Sodium chlorate
सोडियम क्लोरेट
Correct Option
B
Potassium permanganate
पोटेशियम परमैंगनेट
C
Bleaching powder
ब्लीचिंग पाउडर
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Chemical Herbicides (Weedicides):

  • Sodium chlorate ($NaClO_3$) is a potent, non-selective chemical herbicide and plant defoliant.
  • Mode of Action: It is readily absorbed by plant foliage and roots, acting systemically to inhibit respiration, generate toxic chlorite radicals, and disrupt chlorophyll and enzyme function, rapidly desiccating and killing all green vegetation.
  • Other options:
  • Potassium permanganate ($KMnO_4$): A strong oxidizing agent widely used as an antiseptic, disinfectant, and water purification chemical (traditionally added to village well waters to destroy cholera germs).
  • Bleaching powder ($CaOCl_2$): Calcium hypochlorite, used as a powerful disinfectant and bleaching agent in water treatment and textiles, not an agricultural herbicide.
Question 62Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

The gas emitted in paddy fields that increases the Earth's temperature is which of the following?

गैस, जो धान के खेत से उत्सर्जित होती है तथा भूमि केतापमान में वृद्धि करती है, वह हे

A
Nitrogen
नाइट्रोजन (7) कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड
B
Carbon dioxide:
कार्बन डाईऑक्साइड:
C
Carbon monoxide
कार्बन मोनोआक्साइड
D
Methane
मीथेन
Correct Option
Explanation:

Greenhouse gas emitted from flooded paddy fields:

  • Methane ($CH_4$) is the primary greenhouse gas emitted in significant volumes from submerged, flooded paddy fields (rice paddies).
  • Scientific Mechanism: Flooding rice paddies creates an anoxic, anaerobic (oxygen-depleted) environment in the waterlogged soil. Anaerobic archaea known as methanogens decompose organic matter in the soil and reduce acetate and carbon dioxide to produce methane gas (CH₄). The methane is then vented into the atmosphere through the aerenchyma tissue of the rice plant culms and via bubbles.
  • Methane is a potent short-lived climate pollutant with a Global Warming Potential (GWP) approximately 28 to 36 times higher than $CO_2$ over a 100-year timescale, making flooded paddy agriculture a major contributor to anthropogenic global warming.
  • Other sources of methane: Enteric fermentation in cattle (ruminants), wetlands, and municipal landfill sites.
Question 63Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

At which of the following places is the Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance (LSA) located as present?

अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सौर संगठन (आइ.एस.ए.) का सचिवालयवर्तमान में निम्नलिखित किस स्थान पर स्थित हे?

A
Paria
पारिया
B
New Delhi
नई दिल्ली
C
Gurugram
गुरूग्राम
Correct Option
D
New York
न्यूयॉर्क
Explanation:

Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance (ISA):

  • The Interim and permanent Headquarters/Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) is located at the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) campus in Gurugram (Haryana), India.
  • Origin: Jointly launched on 30 November 2015 at COP21 in Paris, France by Prime Minister Narendra Modi of India and then President François Hollande of France.
  • Significance: The ISA was the first treaty-based international intergovernmental organization to establish its global headquarters in India.
  • Mission: To mobilize over $1,000 billion of investment in solar energy solutions by 2030, scaling up solar applications across sunshine-rich countries situated between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn ('Suryaputra' nations, later expanded to all UN member states).

Aspirants frequently get trapped by 'Paris' because the ISA was announced at the Paris COP21 summit in 2015. However, its actual permanent Secretariat was built in Gurugram, India.

  • ISA Framework Agreement entered into force in December 2017.
  • Motto: 'Let us together make the sun brighter' / One Sun, One World, One Grid (OSOWOG).

The Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance is permanently housed in Gurugram, India (Option C).

Question 64Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which is the first Union Territory in India to run 100 percent on solar energy during daytime?

सौ प्रतिशत सौर पर चलने वाला भारतवर्ष का पहला केन्द्रशासित प्रदेश है

A
Andaman-Nicobar
अण्डमान-निकोबार (7) चंडीगढ़
B
Chandigarh
चंडीगढ़
C
Diu
दीव
Correct Option
D
Puducherry
पुदुचेरी
Explanation:

First Union Territory in India to run 100% on solar energy:

  • In March 2018, the Union Territory of Diu (part of Daman and Diu, now the UT of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu) became the first Union Territory in India to run 100 percent on solar power during daytime.
  • Diu developed a 9 MW solar power plant spread over 50 acres at Fudam, alongside installing rooftop solar panels on more than 79 government buildings and private residences, generating over 13 MW of peak solar power.
  • This transformed Diu from total external grid dependency (historically importing electricity from Gujarat) to an energy-surplus clean-power island during peak daytime hours, dramatically reducing power tariffs for citizens and carbon emissions.
Question 65Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): There is a positive relation between Human Development Index (HDI) and Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) ranking of Indian States. Reason (R): The underlying dimensions of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): भारतीय राज्यों की मानव विकास सूचकांक (HDI) और सतत विकास लक्ष्य (SDG) रैंकिंग के बीच सकारात्मक संबंध है। कारण (R): SDG लक्ष्यों के अंतर्निहित आयाम शिक्षा और स्वास्थ्य पहलुओं से निकटता से जुड़े हुए हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
Correct Option
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:
Assertion (A)True

There is a positive relation between Human Development Index (HDI) and Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) ranking of Indian States (True - states ranking high on the HDI, such as Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu, consistently rank at the top of NITI Aayog's SDG India Index, whereas states with lower HDI rank lower on SDGs).

Reason (R)True

The underlying dimensions of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects (True - SDG 3 ['Good Health and Well-Being'] and SDG 4 ['Quality Education'] directly correspond to the foundational longevity and knowledge dimensions of the Human Development Index).

Because health and education form the core pillars of human capabilities that directly drive performance across multiple SDG indicators (poverty reduction, gender parity, economic growth), high achievement in human development directly produces high SDG rankings. Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (Option A).

Question 66Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Multidimensional poverty index includes: i. Health ii. Education iii. Living Standard Select correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

बहुआयामी निर्धनता सूचकांक में सम्मिलित होता है:i, Treaii, शिक्षाiii, जीवन-स्तरनीचे दिये हुए काटों में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:कूट :

A
Only i is correct
केवल i सही है
B
Only ii and iii are correct
केवल ii और iii सही हैं
C
Only i and ii are correct
केवल i और ii सही हैं
D
i. ii and iii are correct
मैं। ii और iii सही हैं
Correct Option
Explanation:

Dimensions of the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

  • Developed in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) for the flagship Human Development Report.
  • Measures acute poverty across 3 equally weighted core dimensions evaluated through 10 indicators:
  1. Health (Weight: 1/3) -> Measured by two indicators: Nutrition and Child Mortality.
  2. Education (Weight: 1/3) -> Measured by two indicators: Years of Schooling and School Attendance.
  3. Standard of Living (Weight: 1/3) -> Measured by six indicators: Cooking Fuel, Sanitation, Drinking Water, Electricity, Housing, and Assets.
  • A person is defined as multidimensionally poor if deprived in 33.3% or more of the weighted indicators.

Therefore, all three (i. Health, ii. Education, iii. Living Standard) are included (Option D).

Question 67Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Arrange the following events in chronological order of their commencement and select correct answer from the codes given below: 1. Wild Life (Protection) Act П. Biological Diversity Act 3. Project Tiger 4. Project Elephant Codes:

निम्नलिखित घटनाओं को उनके प्रारंभ के कालानुक्रम मेंव्यवस्थित करें और नीचे दिये ai में से सही उत्तरचुनिए:lL वन्य जीव (संरक्षण) अधिनियमI. जैव विविधता अधिनियमगा. प्रोजेक्ट टाइगरIV, प्रोजेक्ट हाथीकूटः

A
I, II, III, IV
I, II, III, IV
B
I, III, IV, II
मैं, तृतीय, चतुर्थ, द्वितीय
Correct Option
C
II, III, IV, I
II, III, IV, I
D
II, III, I, IV
द्वितीय, तृतीय, मैं, चतुर्थ
Explanation:

Chronological order of India's environmental and wildlife milestones:

  1. Wild Life (Protection) Act: Enacted on 9 September 1972 (landmark central legislation creating 6 schedules of wildlife protection, prohibiting hunting, and establishing National Parks and Sanctuaries).
  2. Project Tiger: Launched on 1 April 1973 at Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand) to protect the endangered Royal Bengal Tiger in designated tiger reserves.
  3. Project Elephant: Launched in February 1992 by the Ministry of Environment and Forests to provide financial and technical support to major elephant-bearing states for conserving wild Asian elephants, their habitats, and migration corridors.
  4. Biological Diversity Act: Enacted in 2002 (in response to India's commitments under the 1992 UN Convention on Biological Diversity [CBD], setting up the National Biodiversity Authority at Chennai).

Chronological order: I (1972) -> III (1973) -> IV (1992) -> II (2002) (Option B).

Question 68General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Under the Civil Registration System (CRS), it is legally mandatory to register birth and death events within how many days in India?

नागरिक पंजीकरण प्रणाली (CRS) के अंतर्गत कितने दिनोंके भीतर जन्म तथा मृत्यु की घटना को भारत में रजिस्ट्रेशनकराना कानूनी रूप से अनिवार्य होता है?

A
15 days
5 दिन (b) 2I दिन
B
21 days
21 दिन
Correct Option
C
26 days
26 दिन
D
30 days
30 दिन
Explanation:

Civil Registration System (CRS) statutory reporting time limit:

  • Under the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 (RBD Act, Act No. 18 of 1969), it is legally mandatory to report occurrences of both birth and death to the designated local Registrar within 21 days of their happening (Section 8 and Section 10).
  • If registered within the statutory period of 21 days, registration is completely free of cost (no late fee).
  • If reported after 21 days but within 30 days, registration is permitted with payment of a prescribed late fee.
  • Beyond 30 days up to 1 year, written permission from the designated authority (e.g. District Registrar) with a late fee is required; beyond 1 year, an order from an Executive Magistrate is mandatory.

Therefore, the statutory mandatory period under CRS is 21 days (Option B).

In Uttar Pradesh, the Directorate of Census Operations and the Department of Panchayati Raj / Urban Local Bodies administer CRS, registering births and deaths at Gram Panchayat and Nagar Palika levels through the online CRS portal.

Candidates frequently guess 15 days or 30 days. The statute strictly sets the threshold at 21 days.

  • Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) administers CRS under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023 made digital birth certificates a single proof of identity.

The Registration of Births and Deaths Act prescribes exactly 21 days (Option B).

Question 69General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

National Family Health Survey (NFHS) - 5 dues not include

राष्ट्रीय परिवार स्वास्थ्य सर्वेक्षण (NFHS)-5 सम्मिलितनहीं करता हे

A
High blood-pressure
उच्च THAT (b) मधुमेह
B
Diabetes
मधुमेह
C
HIV Test
एचआईवी परीक्षण
Correct Option
D
Registration of death
मृत्यु का पंजीकरण
Explanation:

Scope of National Family Health Survey - 5 (NFHS-5, 2019-21):

  • In the Fifth National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) conducted during 2019-21 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (nodal agency: International Institute for Population Sciences [IIPS], Mumbai), the HIV blood test was excluded (not included).
  • Rationale: HIV testing of the general population had been conducted in NFHS-3 (2005-06) and NFHS-4 (2015-16), but was dropped in NFHS-5 because HIV prevalence in India had stabilized at a very low level (<0.22%), making nationwide random blood drawing statistically redundant and disproportionately expensive. National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) sentinel surveillance now tracks HIV separately.
  • In contrast, NFHS-5 introduced expanded clinical tests for Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs), specifically including blood pressure measurement for Hypertension (High blood pressure), random blood glucose testing for Diabetes, and recorded the Registration of death of household members in the preceding years.

Therefore, NFHS-5 does NOT include HIV Test (Option C).

Question 70Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) shows the relationship between per capita GDP and environmental loss. What is the shape of Environmental Kuznets Curve?

पर्यावरणीय कुजनेट्स चक्र पर्यावरणीय क्षति एवं प्रतिव्यक्ति जीडीपी के मध्य संबंध दर्शाता है। इस पर्यावरणीयकुजनेट्स चक्र का आकार किस प्रकार का होता है?

A
Inverted "U" shaped
उल्टा यू आकार (7) उल्टा वी आकार
Correct Option
B
Inverted "V" shaped
उलटा "वी" आकार का
C
Inverted 'L' shaped
उलटा 'एल' आकार का
D
Nune of these 13
इनमें से 13
Explanation:

The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC):

  • The Environmental Kuznets Curve hypothesizes an Inverted 'U'-shaped relationship between economic growth (measured by per capita income on the horizontal x-axis) and environmental degradation/pollution (on the vertical y-axis).
  • Three Phases of the Curve:
  1. Pre-industrial / Early development phase: As an agrarian economy begins to industrialize, resource extraction, smoke emissions, and pollution rise steeply because society prioritizes rapid industrial output and jobs over ecological protection.
  2. Turning Point (Threshold): Beyond a certain threshold level of per capita income, economic structure shifts from resource-heavy manufacturing to clean services and information technology.
  3. Post-industrial / Affluent phase: With high income, citizens demand cleaner air, safe drinking water, and environmental amenity; industries adopt green technologies; and governments enforce rigorous environmental regulations, causing pollution levels to steadily decline.
  • Origin: Adapted in 1991 by economists Gene Grossman and Alan Krueger from Simon Kuznets' original 1955 income-inequality curve.
Question 71Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Sustainable development is important for the well-being of human society. Reason (R): Sustainable development is a kind of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): सतत विकास मानव समाज के कल्याण के लिए अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण है। कारण (R): सतत विकास ऐसा विकास है जो भविष्य की पीढ़ियों की अपनी ज़रूरतों को पूरा करने की क्षमता से समझौता किए बिना वर्तमान की ज़रूरतों को पूरा करता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
Correct Option
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:
Assertion (A)True

Sustainable development is important for the well-being of human society (True - essential to preserve ecosystems, ensure inter-generational survival, prevent climate catastrophe, and eradicate poverty without depleting finite ecological capital).

Reason (R)True

Sustainable development is a kind of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs (True - the canonical, internationally accepted definition of sustainable development articulated in the 1987 Brundtland Commission Report, Our Common Future).

Because sustainable development specifically balances current human prosperity with long-term ecological regenerative capacity for future generations (R), it is foundational for the ongoing and future well-being of human civilization (A). Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (Option A).

Question 72Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Which of the following Direct Benefit Scheme (DBS) has been recognized by the 'Guinness Book of World Record' as the world's largest Direct Benefit Scheme?

निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रत्यक्ष लाभ योजना को गिनीजबुक ऑफ वर्ल्ड रिकॉर्ड द्वारा विश्व की सबसे बड़ी प्रत्यक्षलाभ योजना माना गया हे?

A
MGNREGA
मनरेगा (MGNREGA)
B
PAHAL
पहल (PAHAL)
Correct Option
C
NSAP
एनएसएपी
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Guinness World Records recognition for Direct Cash Transfer:

  • The PAHAL (Pratyaksh Hanstantrit Labh) scheme (also known as the Direct Benefit Transfer for LPG - DBTL scheme), implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, was officially recognized by the Guinness Book of World Records as the world's largest direct cash transfer programme.
  • Re-launched nationwide on 1 January 2015, PAHAL electronically deposited consumer LPG subsidies directly into the Aadhaar-linked bank accounts of over 15 crore (150 million) beneficiaries across India, eliminating ghost connections, duplicate cylinders, and commercial diversion of subsidized domestic cooking gas.
  • Other options: MGNREGA provides rural wage employment guarantee, NSAP provides social security pensions.
Question 73Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to the National Food Security Act, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It will cover upto 75 percent rural and 50 percent urban population. 2. Special focus on nutritional support to women and children. 3. Eldest woman of above 18 years age will be head of household. Select the correct answer using the coxles given below:

राष्ट्रीय खाद्य सुरक्षा अधिनियम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखितmat में कौन सही हे/हे?I. यह 75 प्रतिशत ग्रामीण और 50 प्रतिशत शहरीजनसंख्या को आच्छादित करेगी।Il. महिलाओं और बच्चों को पोषण संबंधी सहायतापर विशेष ध्यान देना।I. 8 वर्ष आयु से अधिक की सबसे बड़ी महिलाकी मुखिया eriनीचे दिये हुए काटों में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
I and II are correct
I और II सही हैं
B
II and III are conect
II और III संयुक्त हैं
C
I, II and III are correct
I, II और III सही हैं
Correct Option
D
None of these
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 provisions:

  • Statement I: 'It will cover up to 75% rural and 50% urban population': Correct. Under Section 3(2) of the NFSA, 2013, the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) legally entitles up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized foodgrains (covering roughly two-thirds / 67% of India's total population, ~81.3 crore people).
  • Statement II: 'Special focus on nutritional support to women and children': Correct. The Act provides nutritional hot cooked meals to pregnant women and lactating mothers (during pregnancy and 6 months after childbirth through Anganwadi centres) along with a maternity benefit of not less than ₹6,000 (Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana). Children aged 6 months to 14 years are entitled to age-appropriate nutritious meals (including Mid-Day Meals in schools).
  • Statement III: 'Eldest woman of above 18 years age will be head of household': Correct. Under Section 13(1) of the NFSA, the eldest woman who is not less than 18 years of age in every eligible household shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards.

Therefore, Statements I, II, and III are all correct (Option C).

Question 74General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to the incasures of Tenancy Reform in India, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. Regulation of rent 2. Security of tenure 3. Confirment of ownership on tenants Select the correct answer using codes given below:

भारत में went सुधार के उपायों के संदर्भ में, कौन-साकथन सही है/है?l. लगान का विनियमन

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3 14
1, 2 और 3 14
Correct Option
Explanation:

Measures of Tenancy Reform in post-independence India:

  • Tenancy reforms formed the core legislative agenda of agrarian land reforms in India to protect vulnerable tenant cultivators from exploitative zamindars and intermediaries:
  1. Regulation of rent: Before reforms, customary rents ranged from 50% to 70% of gross produce. Reform legislation across states legally fixed fair rent ceilings, generally at one-fourth (1/4th) to one-fifth (1/5th) of gross produce.
  2. Security of tenure: Laws were enacted to prevent arbitrary, ejectment of tenants by landlords at will. Evictions were legally prohibited except on strictly defined grounds (such as personal cultivation under specified limits) and guaranteed minimum permanent rights to tenants.
  3. Conferment of ownership rights on tenants: The ultimate goal of tenancy reform was 'Land to the Tiller' (Jo jutey so paye). Legislation transferred occupancy and ownership titles directly to tenants on payment of nominal compensation or abolished landlord rights entirely.

Therefore, all three (1, 2, and 3) are correct measures (Option D).

Question 75Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to the functions of Public Sector in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. To provide public utility resources 2. To build social and economic overhead capital growth 3. To ensure balanced regional and sectoral 4. To pursue egalitarian goals Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

भारत में सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के कार्यों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखितमें से कौन-सा कथन सही हे/हें?lL सार्वजनिक उपयोगिता संसाधन प्रदान करनाIL. सामाजिक और आर्थिक उपरि पूँजी का निर्माणगा. संतुलित क्षेत्रीय और क्षेत्रकीय विकास सुनिश्चितकरनाIV, समतावादी लक्ष्यों को आगे बढ़ानानीचे दिये हुए काटों में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
I, II and III are correct
LU और ता सही हैं
B
II, III and IV are correct
II, III और IV सही हैं
C
I, II, III and IV are correct
I, II, III और IV सही हैं
Correct Option
D
I, III and IV are correct
I, III और IV सही हैं
Explanation:

Functions and rationale of the Public Sector in India:

  • Statement I: 'To provide public utility resources': Correct. The public sector develops and operates vital public utilities (water supply, railways, postal services, electricity distribution) where universal access at affordable prices is socially essential.
  • Statement II: 'To build social and economic overhead capital': Correct. Social and economic infrastructure ('overhead capital' such as roads, dams, ports, heavy steel plants, telecommunications, technical universities) requires massive lump-sum capital investments with long gestation periods that the private sector was incapable of undertaking after independence.
  • Statement III: 'To ensure balanced regional and sectoral growth': Correct. Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948 and 1956) strategically set up public sector units (PSUs) in backward, underdeveloped regions (e.g., steel plants in Bhilai, Rourkela, Bokaro) to foster regional parity and employment.
  • Statement IV: 'To pursue egalitarian goals': Correct. The public sector aimed to prevent private concentration of economic power, reduce income disparities, generate fair employment, and implement reservation policies for disadvantaged social groups.

Therefore, Statements I, II, III, and IV are all correct (Option C).

Question 76Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

In the Suez Canal corridor, what is the correct sequence of lakes from North to South?

स्वेज नहर क्षेत्र में उत्तर से दक्षिण दिशा की ओर बहनेवाले झीलों का मही क्रम है-

A
Lake Timsah-Little Bitter Lake-Great Bitter Lake-Luke Manzola
लेक fern - लिटिल बिटर लेक - ग्रेट बिटर लेक - लेक मंजला
B
Great Bitter Lake - Little Bitter Lake-Lake Timsah-Lake Manzala
ग्रेट बिटर लेक - लिटिल बिटर लेक - तिमसाह झील - मंज़ाला झील
C
Lake Manzala - Great Bitter Lake - Little Bitter Lake-Lake Timsah
मंज़ाला झील - ग्रेट बिटर लेक - लिटिल बिटर लेक - तिमसाह झील
D
Lake Manzala-Lake Timsah- Cireat Bitter Lake-Little Bitter Lake
मंज़ाला झील - तिमसाह झील - ग्रेट बिटर लेक - लिटिल बिटर लेक
Correct Option
Explanation:

Suez Canal lakes in sequential order from North to South:

  • The Suez Canal connects the Mediterranean Sea (at Port Said in the north) to the Red Sea (at Port Tewfik / Suez in the south), traversing through four natural lake depressions across the Isthmus of Suez in Egypt.
  • Moving sequentially from North to South:
  1. Lake Manzala: Coastal lagoon lying immediately south of Port Said at the northern Mediterranean entrance.
  2. Lake Timsah (Crocodile Lake): Situated midway along the canal route (site of the city of Ismailia).
  3. Great Bitter Lake: Large saltwater lake that acts as a natural passing and anchoring bay for canal convoys.
  4. Little Bitter Lake: Connected directly to the south of the Great Bitter Lake, leading towards the Gulf of Suez / Red Sea.

Correct sequence from North to South: Lake Manzala -> Lake Timsah -> Great Bitter Lake -> Little Bitter Lake (Option D).

Question 77Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

The submarine geological feature known as the 'Telegraphic Plateau' is part of which oceanic ridge system?

पनडुब्बी भूवैज्ञानिक विशेषता 'टेलीग्राफिक पठार' (Telegraphic Plateau) किसका एक हिस्सा है?

A
North Atlantic Ridge
उत्तर एटलांटिक का
Correct Option
B
South Atlantic Ridge
दक्षिण अटलांटिक कटक
C
Indian Ocean Ridge
हिंद महासागर कटक
D
None of these
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

The Telegraphic Plateau:

  • The Telegraphic Plateau is a wide, relatively flat submarine swell and seabed plateau forming a northern section of the North Atlantic Ridge (Mid-Atlantic Ridge) in the North Atlantic Ocean.
  • Location: Situated between Newfoundland (Canada) in the west and Ireland/Great Britain in the east (between latitudes 45°N and 55°N).
  • Historical Origin: In the 1850s, US naval oceanographer Matthew Fontaine Maury surveyed this plateau and noted that its soft, deep-sea ooze and calm seabed topography made it ideal for laying underwater cables.
  • In 1858, the world's first transatlantic telegraph cable was successfully laid across this exact submarine plateau by Cyrus West Field and the Atlantic Telegraph Company, connecting Europe and North America via instantaneous Morse code telegraphy. Hence it was formally christened the 'Telegraphic Plateau'.
Question 78Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Name of Tropical Cyclone) | List-II (Country) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Willy-Willies | 1. Philippines | | B. Taifu | 2. Australia | | C. Baguio | 3. Japan | | D. Hurricanes | 4. U.S.A. | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: | सूची-I (उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवात का नाम) | सूची-II (देश) | | :--- | :--- | | A. विली-विलीज़ | 1. फिलीपींस | | B. ताइफू | 2. ऑस्ट्रेलिया | | C. बाग्यो | 3. जापान | | D. हरिकेन | 4. संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका (U.S.A.) | कूट: A B C D

A
3 4 1 2
3 4 1 2
B
2 3 1 4
2 3 1 4
C
1 3 2 4
1 3 2 4
D
2 3 4 1
2 3 4 1
Correct Option
Explanation:

Regional terminology for Tropical Cyclones across the globe:

  • Willy-Willies: Name used for tropical cyclones in the northwestern coastal waters of Australia (A-2).
  • Taifu (Taifun): Japanese name for intense tropical cyclones occurring in Japan and the Northwest Pacific (B-3).
  • Baguio: Local name for tropical cyclones affecting the Philippines (originating in the western North Pacific) (C-1).
  • Hurricanes: Severe tropical cyclones formed in the North Atlantic Ocean, Caribbean Sea, and Gulf of Mexico affecting the United States of America (USA) and the West Indies (D-4).

Matching: A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (Option D).

Question 79Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which one of the following cities is NOT located on the Trans-Siberian rail mute

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक नगर साइबेरियापारीयरेलमार्ग पर अवस्थित नही हे?है

A
Kazan
कजान (7) ओमस्क
B
Omsk
ओम्स्क
C
Sachi
साची
Correct Option
D
Chita
चीता
Explanation:

Cities on the Trans-Siberian Railway:

  • The Trans-Siberian Railway is the longest railway line in the world (~9,289 km), running from Moscow in European Russia across Siberia to Vladivostok on the Pacific Ocean coast.
  • Major stations along the route include: Moscow -> Nizhny Novgorod -> Perm -> Yekaterinburg -> Omsk -> Novosibirsk -> Krasnoyarsk -> Irkutsk -> Chita -> Khabarovsk -> Vladivostok. Branch lines also connect through Kazan (capital of Tatarstan on the Volga).
  • Sochi (Sachi): Located on the northeastern coast of the Black Sea near the Caucasus mountains in southwestern European Russia (host of the 2014 Winter Olympics). Sochi is completely separated from the Trans-Siberian line and lies thousands of kilometers to the southwest on the Black Sea rail line.

Therefore, Sochi is NOT located on the Trans-Siberian Railway (Option C).

Question 80Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which of the fallowing is NOT correctly matched? (Wind) (Country)

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सही सुमेलित नहीं है?(पवन ) (देश )

A
Santa Ana California
ART अना कैलिफोर्निया
B
Haboob Sudan
हबूब सूडान
C
Yamo Japan
यमो जापान
D
Mistral Australia
मिस्ट्रल ऑस्ट्रेलिया
Correct Option
Explanation:

Local winds and their geographic regions:

  • (A) Santa Ana: Strong, extremely dry, and hot down-slope foehn wind blowing from the Great Basin desert through mountain passes into Southern California, notorious for fanning devastating autumn wildfires - Correctly matched.
  • (B) Haboob: Intense, suffocating desert dust-storm and sand-storm wind commonly occurring in the arid regions of Sudan (Khartoum) and the Arabian Peninsula - Correctly matched.
  • (C) Yamo: A warm, dry foehn-type wind descending mountain slopes in Japan - Correctly matched.
  • (D) Mistral: Matched with 'Australia' is INCORRECT. The Mistral is a strong, cold, dry, and violent north-to-northwesterly katabatic wind that blows from the Alps and Massif Central down the Rhône Valley into the Gulf of Lion in the Mediterranean Sea across Southern France (not Australia). Famous local winds of Australia include the hot and dusty Brickfielder and the cold Southerly Buster.

Therefore, (D) is NOT correctly matched.

Question 81Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Coal Fields) | List-II (River Valley / Basin) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Talcher | 1. Damodar Valley | | B. Karnapura | 2. Son Valley | | C. Singrauli | 3. Godavari Valley | | D. Singareni | 4. Mahanadi Valley | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (कोयला क्षेत्र) सूची-II (नदी घाटी / बेसिन) :--- :--- A. तालचेर दामोदर घाटी B. कर्णपुरा सोन घाटी C. सिंगरौली गोदावरी घाटी D. सिंगरेनी महानदी घाटी कूट: A B C D

A
4 1 2 3
4 1 2 3
Correct Option
B
3 2 1 4
3 2 1 4
C
2 4 3 1
2 4 3 1
D
1 3 2 4
1 3 2 4
Explanation:

Gondwana coalfields in India and their drainage river basins:

  • Talcher: Located in the Mahanadi Valley (Angul district, Odisha; one of India's largest coal reserve basins) (A-4).
  • Karanpura (North and South Karanpura): Located in the Damodar Valley (Hazaribagh and Ranchi districts, Jharkhand) (B-1).
  • Singrauli: Located in the Son Valley (spread across Singrauli district, MP and Sonbhadra district, Uttar Pradesh) (C-2).
  • Singareni: Located in the Pranhita-Godavari Valley (Bhadradri Kothagudem district, Telangana) (D-3).

Matching: A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (Option A).

Question 82Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which one of the following peaks is NOT located in India?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी एक चोटी भारत में अवस्थितनहीं हे?

A
Gurla Mandhata
गुरला मान्धाता (7) नामचा बरवा
Correct Option
B
Namcha Barwa
नामचा बरवा
C
Kamer
कामेर
D
Nanga Parbat
नंगा पर्वत
Explanation:

Himalayan mountain peaks and political geography:

  • Gurla Mandhata (elevation 7,728 m / 25,354 ft): Located in the Burang (Purang) County of the Ngari Prefecture in Tibet Autonomous Region, China, situated just south of Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash. It lies entirely outside the political territory of India.
  • Namcha Barwa (7,782 m): Also situated in the Great Bend of the Yarlung Tsangpo (Brahmaputra) in Tibet, China.
  • Kamet (7,756 m): Located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, India (second-highest peak in Uttarakhand after Nanda Devi).
  • Nanga Parbat (8,126 m): Located in the Gilgit-Baltistan region of Jammu & Kashmir (India's constitutional territory).
  • Official Answer: Both Gurla Mandhata (A) and Namcha Barwa (B) lie in Tibet (China); UPPSC evaluated Option A (Gurla Mandhata) as the primary answer.
Question 83Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

The winter rains caused by Western Disturbances in the North-Western plains of India gradually decrease from which direction to which direction?

भारत के उत्तर पश्चिमी मैदान में पश्चिमी विक्षोभ से जाड़ेमें होने वाली वर्षा की मात्रा क्रमश: कम होती जाती हे

A
East to West
पूर्व से पश्चिम की ओर
B
West to East
पश्चिम से पूर्व
Correct Option
C
North to South
उत्तर से दक्षिण
D
South to North
दक्षिण से उत्तर
Explanation:

Winter precipitation from Western Disturbances in Northern India:

  • In the winter months (December to February), the northwestern plains of India receive light to moderate cyclonic rainfall caused by Western Disturbances (temperate extratropical depressions originating over the Mediterranean Sea and Caspian Sea, steered into India by the subtropical westerly jet stream).
  • Directional Trend: As these cyclonic storms travel across northern India, their moisture content progressively depletes. Consequently, the quantum of winter rainfall decreases from West to East (West to East - Option B).
  • Rainfall Distribution: Highest precipitation occurs in Punjab and Haryana (~50-60 mm), decreasing eastward through Western Uttar Pradesh (~30-40 mm), Central UP (~15-20 mm), and becoming minimal/scanty in Eastern UP and Bihar (<10 mm).
  • Agricultural Significance: This winter rain, though modest in volume, is critically beneficial ('golden drops' / Mahawat) for the vegetative growth of Rabi crops, especially Wheat.
Question 84Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

In which of the following rivers, the upper course contains fresh water but saline water flowing at the lower part?

निम्नलिखित में से किस नदी के ऊपरी मार्ग में मीठा जलका परंतु निचले भाग में खारे जल का प्रवाह मिलता हे?

A
Barak river
बराक नदी (9) लूनी नदी
B
Luni river
लूनी नदी
Correct Option
C
Ghaggar river
घग्गर नदी
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Unique hydrologic characteristics of the Luni River:

  • The Luni River (originating in the Pushkar Valley of the Aravalli Range near Ajmer, Rajasthan) possesses the rare geographical feature where its upper course contains fresh water, but its lower course turns brackish and saline.
  • Scientific Explanation: From its origin near Ajmer down to Balotra in Barmer district (a distance of approximately 100 km), the water is sweet, potable, and fresh. However, once the river flows beyond Balotra into the arid Thar desert and the salt-encrusted depressions around Pachpadra and the Rann of Kutch, excessive capillary evaporation and dissolution of rich subterranean halite (sodium chloride) and alkali deposits render the river water intensely saline and brackish.
  • The river ultimately dissipates and loses itself in the marshes of the Rann of Kutch without meeting the sea, making it an inland drainage river (Lavanavari / Salt River).
  • Other options: Barak drains Manipur/Assam; Luni uniquely exhibits this fresh-to-saline transition.
Question 85Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Moribund Delta' is a subdivision of which of the following Delta?

मोरीबन्द See निम्नलिखित में से किस Seo का एकउपविभाग हे?

A
Krishna-Godawari Delta
कृष्णा-गोदावरी Seer (7) महानदी Seer
B
Mahanadi Delta
महानदी डेल्टा
C
Bengul Deltu
बेंगुल डेल्टू
Correct Option
D
Cauvery Delta 16
कावेरी डेल्टा 16
Explanation:

Geomorphological subdivisions of the Bengal Delta:

  • The 'Moribund Delta' is a well-established physiographical sub-region of the Bengal Delta (Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta).
  • Physiographic Zones of the Bengal Delta:
  1. Moribund Delta: Located in the northwestern and western parts of the delta (encompassing Murshidabad, Nadia, and Jessore). Here, the historical distributaries of the Ganga (like the Bhagirathi, Jalangi, and Mathabhanga) have been cut off or choked by silt deposits due to the eastward tectonic avulsion of the main Ganga channel into the Padma. The rivers are decaying, abandoned oxbow lakes and swamps abound, and active deltaic land formation has ceased ('moribund' meaning dormant or decaying).
  2. Mature Delta: Central deltaic plains (e.g. 24 Parganas, Khulna) where rivers are stable.
  3. Active Delta: Southernmost seaward deltaic margin (the Sundarbans and Meghna estuary) where active silt deposition and island building continue actively.
Question 86Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Sugarcane and sugar production in U.P. is more than Maharashtra, but productivity is less. Reason (R): Most of the sugar factories in Maharashtra are in the cooperative sector. Select the correct answer from the codes given below?

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): उत्तर प्रदेश में गन्ने और चीनी का कुल उत्पादन महाराष्ट्र से अधिक है, किन्तु उत्पादकता कम है। कारण (R): महाराष्ट्र में अधिकांश चीनी मिलें सहकारी क्षेत्र में स्थापित हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
Correct Option
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:

Sugarcane and sugar industry in Uttar Pradesh vs Maharashtra:

  • Assertion (A): 'Sugarcane and sugar production in U.P. is more than Maharashtra but productivity is less': True. Uttar Pradesh has the largest area under sugarcane cultivation in India (~22-25 lakh hectares) and routinely leads the country in total cane production. However, per-hectare sugarcane yield (productivity) and average sugar recovery rate in UP (~10.5-11%) are significantly lower than in Maharashtra (~11.5-12.5%).
  • Reason (R): 'Most of the sugar factories in Maharashtra are in the cooperative sector': True. Maharashtra's sugar industry developed primarily through grassroots farmer-owned cooperatives initiated in Pravaranagar in 1950 by Vithalrao Vikhe Patil and D.R. Gadgil, whereas UP's mills have historically been private or state corporation mills.
  • Explanation: While both statements are factually correct, the cooperative ownership structure (R) is NOT the scientific explanation for the difference in agro-climatic productivity (A). Sugarcane productivity and sugar recovery are higher in Maharashtra primarily due to its tropical marine climate, higher humidity, frost-free winters, long crushing season, and black basaltic regur soils. Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (Option B).

Sugarcane is Uttar Pradesh's foremost cash crop, supporting over 45 lakh farming households and centered in western UP (Meerut, Muzaffarnagar, Shamli, Bijnor) and the Terai belt. UP is known as the 'Sugar Bowl of India'.

Candidates often jump to Option A assuming cooperative mills cause higher productivity. In agricultural geography, sugarcane productivity and sucrose content are fundamentally governed by tropical temperature and sunlight, not the institutional ownership model.

  • Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research (IISR) is located in Lucknow, UP.
  • National Sugar Institute (NSI) is located in Kanpur, UP.
  • Vasantdada Sugar Institute (VSI) is located in Pune, Maharashtra.

Both statements are empirically true economic facts, but climate explains yield rather than cooperative management -> Option B.

Question 87History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Which of the following Medieval Indian Terms and Designations is NOT correctly matched?

मध्यकालीन भारतीय शब्दावली और पदनामों में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

A
Dam Copper coin
दाम ताम्र की मुद्रा
B
Desai Revenue Collector
देसाई राजस्व कलेक्टर
C
Diwan Revenue Chief of a province
किसी प्रांत का दीवान राजस्व प्रमुख
D
Jarib A type of tax
जरीब एक प्रकार का कर
Correct Option
Explanation:

Medieval Indian administrative and revenue terms:

  • (A) Dam: Standard Mughal copper coin introduced by Sher Shah and standardized by Akbar (weighing ~323 grains; traded at 40 dams to 1 silver rupee) - Correctly matched.
  • (B) Desai: Traditional hereditary revenue official / collector in Gujarat and Western India (Maratha Deccan administration), corresponding to the Chaudhari or Qanungo of northern India - Correctly matched.
  • (C) Diwan: Provincial revenue chief (Diwan-i-Subah) appointed by the Mughal Emperor to supervise provincial finances, taxes, and treasury, acting as an independent counterweight to the provincial governor (Subahdar) - Correctly matched.
  • (D) Jarib: Matched with 'A type of tax' is INCORRECT. In medieval Indian revenue administration, Jarib was a standard unit/instrument of land measurement (a chain of linked iron rods or bamboo poles joined with iron rings used for cadastral land survey), NOT a tax. Under Akbar and Todar Mal's Zabti system, the traditional hemp rope jarib was replaced by the durable bamboo-ring Tanab/Jarib to measure land area in bighas.

Therefore, (D) is NOT correctly matched.

Question 88History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: | List-I (Author) | List-II (Text) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Mulla Daud | 1. Chandayan | | B. Damodar Kavi | 2. Ashiqa | | C. Somnath | 3. Padmavati Katha | | D. Amir Khusro | 4. Rag Vibodh | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (लेखक) सूची-II (रचना) :--- :--- A. मुल्ला दाउद चंदायन B. दामोदर कवि आशिका C. सोमनाथ पद्मावती कथा D. अमीर खुसरो राग विबोध कूट: A B C D

A
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4
B
1 3 4 2
1 3 4 2
Correct Option
C
2 4 1 3
2 4 1 3
D
1 3 2 4
1 3 2 4
Explanation:

Medieval Indian literature and their celebrated authors:

  • Mulla Daud: Authored Chandayan (also known as Lorikayan) in 1379 AD during the reign of Firoz Shah Tughlaq; it is celebrated as the earliest extant Sufi premakhyan (romantic allegory) written in the Awadhi language (A-1).
  • Damodar Kavi: Authored Padmavati Katha in 1459 AD (an early romantic Rajasthani/Apabhramsha narrative preceding Malik Muhammad Jayasi's Padmavat) (B-3).
  • Somnath: Authored Rag Vibodh (1609 AD), an authoritative and influential Sanskrit musicological treatise systematizing classical ragas, melas, and veena playing techniques (C-4).
  • Amir Khusrau: Authored the celebrated historical romantic masnavi Ashiqa (or Duval Rani - Khizr Khan) in 1315 AD, narrating the tragic romance between Alauddin Khalji's son Prince Khizr Khan and Princess Duval Rani of Gujarat (D-2).

Matching: A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 (Option B).

Question 89State Special GK (राज्य विशेष सामान्य ज्ञान)
Answer Key

Who among the following kings had given patronage to Tansen before Akbar?

निम्नलिखित राजाओं में से किसने अकबर के पूर्व तानसेनको संरक्षण दिया था

A
Raja Ramchandra Singh of Bhata
el का राजा रामचंद्र सिंह
Correct Option
B
Rajbahadur of Malwa
मालवा के राजबहादुर
C
Uday Singh of Mewar
मेवाड़ के उदय सिंह
D
Muzaffar Shah of Gujarat
गुजरात के मुजफ्फर शाह
Explanation:

Royal patronage of legendary musician Tansen before Emperor Akbar:

  • Prior to joining the Mughal court of Emperor Akbar, the legendary music maestro Tansen (original name Ramtanu Pandey, born in Gwalior) was the court musician under the generous royal patronage of Raja Ramchandra Singh (Baghela) of Bhata / Rewa (Madhya Pradesh).
  • Raja Ramchandra Singh deeply revered Tansen's genius, showering him with lavish honors and gifts (legend holds he gave him a crore of tankas for a single performance).
  • In 1562 AD, Emperor Akbar, having heard of Tansen's extraordinary vocal prowess, sent an imperial envoy (Jalal Khan Qurchi) with a firm royal firman requesting Raja Ramchandra to send Tansen to Agra.
  • Reluctantly but unable to refuse the Mughal emperor, Raja Ramchandra sent Tansen to Akbar's court in 1562, where Akbar inducted him into his inner circle of Navaratnas (Nine Gems) and bestowed upon him the title Mian ('Mian Tansen').
Question 90History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Ruling Dynasties) | List-II (Capitals) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Pallava | 1. Warangal | | B. Pandya | 2. Kanchi | | C. Yadava | 3. Madura | | D. Kakatiya | 4. Devagiri | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: | सूची-I (राजवंश) | सूची-II (राजधानी) | | :--- | :--- | | A. पल्लव | 1. वारंगल | | B. पांड्य | 2. कांची | | C. यादव | 3. मदुरै | | D. काकतीय | 4. देवगिरि | कूट: A B C D

A
2 1 4 3
2 1 4 3
B
2 3 4 1
2 3 4 1
Correct Option
C
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4
D
2 4 3 1
2 4 3 1
Explanation:

Ancient/Medieval South Indian Dynasties and their royal Capitals:

  • Pallavas: Capital was Kanchi (Kanchipuram) in Tamil Nadu (flourished from 4th to 9th centuries; famous for rock-cut shore temples and Kailasanathar temple) (A-2).
  • Pandyas: Capital was Madurai (on the banks of the Vaigai river in Tamil Nadu; ancient seat of Tamil Sangams and the Meenakshi Sundareswarar temple) (B-3).
  • Yadavas (Seunas): Capital was Devagiri (modern Daulatabad in Maharashtra, celebrated for its impregnable rock-hewn hill fortress, later made capital by Muhammad bin Tughlaq) (C-4).
  • Kakatiyas: Capital was Warangal (Orugallu in Telangana; celebrated for the thousand-pillar temple and Ramappa Temple, visited by Marco Polo) (D-1).

Matching: A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (Option B).

Question 91History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Arrange the following monuments in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below: I. Rabia Daurani's Tomb, Aurangabad 2. Shershah Suri's Tomb, Sasaram III Humayun's Tomb, Delhi 4. Aiala Mosque, Jaunpur Codes:

निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार कीजिए और उन्हें सही कालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिए: I. Rabia Daurani's Tomb, Aurangabad 2. Shershah Suri's Tomb, Sasaram III Humayun's Tomb, Delhi 4. Aiala Mosque, Jaunpur Codes:

A
I, II, IV, III
मैं, द्वितीय, चतुर्थ, तृतीय
B
IV, II, III, I
चतुर्थ, द्वितीय, तृतीय, प्रथम
Correct Option
C
II, I, III, IV
द्वितीय, मैं, तृतीय, चतुर्थ
D
III, IV, II, I
III, IV, II, I
Explanation:

Chronological order of prominent medieval monuments:

  1. Atala Mosque, Jaunpur: Completed in 1408 AD by Sultan Ibrahim Shah Sharqi of the Jaunpur Sultanate (famed for its distinctive Sharqi style with towering sloping propylon pylons, without minarets).
  2. Sher Shah Suri's Tomb, Sasaram: Completed in 1545 AD (designed by architect Mir Muhammad Aliwal Khan; magnificent octagonal red sandstone mausoleum set in the middle of an artificial square lake in Bihar).
  3. Humayun's Tomb, Delhi: Constructed between 1565 and 1572 AD (commissioned by Humayun's chief consort Bega Begum / Haji Begum, designed by Persian architect Mirak Mirza Ghiyas; the first garden-tomb [Charbagh] in the Indian subcontinent and architectural precursor to the Taj Mahal).
  4. Rabia Daurani's Tomb (Bibi Ka Maqbara), Aurangabad: Completed in 1678 AD (built by Prince Azam Shah in memory of his mother Dilras Banu Begum, titled posthumously as Rabia-ud-Daurani; known as the 'Taj of the Deccan').

Chronological order: IV (1408) -> II (1545) -> III (1570) -> I (1678) (Option B).

Question 92History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to Mansabdari system, which of the statements is/are conect? 1. Mansabdari system was the official nobility of the state, started by Akbar. 2. A Mansabdari was hereditary. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:

मनसबदारी व्यवस्था के संदर्भ में कौन-सा कथन सही है/है?lL. मनसबदारी व्यवस्था राज्य के कूलीन वर्ग से संबंधितथी, जिसे अकबर ने प्रारंभ किया।

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
C
2 only
केवल 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1, न ही 2
Explanation:

The Mansabdari System of the Mughal Empire:

  • Statement 1: 'It was an official hierarchy of civil and military administration': Correct. Introduced by Emperor Akbar in 1571 and systematized in 1595-96, the Mansabdari system was the single administrative framework encompassing all civil and military officers of the Mughal state. Every officer held a dual numerical rank: Zat (personal rank determining status and salary) and Sawar (cavalry rank determining the number of horsemen the officer was required to maintain for state service).
  • Statement 2: 'It was inheritable': INCORRECT. Mansabdari was strictly non-hereditary. A mansab was held solely at the pleasure of the Emperor and could not be passed down to heirs. Upon the death or dismissal of a Mansabdar, the rank immediately lapsed, and under the Zabt / Escheat system, all his wealth, horses, arms, and jagir properties were seized by the imperial state treasury until state accounts were audited.

Therefore, Statement 1 only is correct (Option A).

Question 93History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Treaty) | List-II (Year) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Treaty of Allahabad | 1. 1782 | | B. Treaty of Mangalore | 2. 1784 | | C. Treaty of Salbai | 3. 1769 | | D. Treaty of Madras | 4. 1765 | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (संधि) सूची-II (वर्ष) :--- :--- A. इलाहाबाद की संधि 1782 B. मंगलौर की संधि 1784 C. सालबाई की संधि 1769 D. मद्रास की संधि 1765 कूट: A B C D

A
4 2 3 1
4 2 3 1
B
2 4 3 1
2 4 3 1
C
4 2 1 3
4 2 1 3
Correct Option
D
2 4 1 3
2 4 1 3
Explanation:

Historic 18th-century treaties in colonial India:

  • Treaty of Allahabad: Signed on 12 and 16 August 1765 between Robert Clive, Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, and Nawab of Awadh Shuja-ud-Daula following the Battle of Buxar (1764). It granted the British East India Company the Diwani rights (tax collection) over Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa (A-4).
  • Treaty of Mangalore: Signed on 11 March 1784 between Tipu Sultan of Mysore and the British East India Company (Lord Macartney), ending the Second Anglo-Mysore War on the basis of mutual restitution of captured territories and prisoners (B-2).
  • Treaty of Salbai: Signed on 17 May 1782 between the British East India Company (Warren Hastings) and Mahadji Shinde (representing the Maratha Empire under Peshwa Madhavrao II), concluding the First Anglo-Maratha War and ushering in 20 years of peace (C-1).
  • Treaty of Madras: Signed on 4 April 1769 between Hyder Ali of Mysore and the British Governor of Madras, concluding the First Anglo-Mysore War on mutual restitution of conquered lands and a defensive alliance (D-3).

Matching: A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 (Option C).

Question 94History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select correct answer from the codes given below: I. Poona Pact 2. Gandhi-Irvin Agreement 3. Cripps Mission 4. Civil Disobedience Movement 18 Codes:

निम्नलिखित घटनाओं को कालानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजियेऔर नीचे दिये कूटों में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:lL पूना teIL गांधी-इरविन समझौतागा. क्रिप्स मिशनIV. सविनय staat आंदोलन—_—______——__{ithe:

A
IV, II, III, I
IV, II, III, I
B
II, IV, I, III
II, IV, I, III
C
IV, II, I, III
चतुर्थ, द्वितीय, मैं, तृतीय
Correct Option
D
III, I, IV, II
तृतीय, मैं, चतुर्थ, द्वितीय
Explanation:

Chronological order of milestone national movement events:

  1. Civil Disobedience Movement: Launched on 12 March 1930 with Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram, formally breaking the Salt Law on 6 April 1930 at Dandi.
  2. Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact): Signed on 5 March 1931 between Mahatma Gandhi and Viceroy Lord Irwin, leading to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement and Congress agreement to participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
  3. Poona Pact: Signed on 24 September 1932 in Yerwada Central Jail (Pune) between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Madan Mohan Malaviya, abandoning separate electorates for Depressed Classes in exchange for increased reserved seats in provincial legislatures (from 71 to 147).
  4. Cripps Mission: Arrived in India in March 1942 (headed by Sir Stafford Cripps, offering Dominion status after WWII, famously rejected by Gandhi as a 'post-dated cheque on a crashing bank').

Chronological order: IV (1930) -> II (1931) -> I (1932) -> III (1942) (Option C).

Question 95History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the Civil Administration in 1905, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. Lord Curzon decided to rearrange the provincial boundaries. 2. A new province was constituted, called East Bengal and Assam. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

असैनिक प्रशासन 905 के संदर्भ में, कौन-सा कथनसही है/हें?l. लाई कर्जन के प्रांतीय सीमाओं को पुनर्गठित करनेका निर्णय लिया।

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
Correct Option
C
2 only
केवल 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1, न ही 2
Explanation:

Civil Administration and the Partition of Bengal in 1905:

  • Statement 1: 'Lord Curzon decided to rearrange the provincial boundaries': Correct. Lord Curzon (Viceroy of India 1899-1905) argued that the Bengal Presidency (covering Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and Assam, with a population of 78 million) was administratively unwieldy and unmanageable for a single Lieutenant-Governor. Ostensibly on grounds of administrative efficiency—but primarily to divide politically active Bengali nationalists along religious lines—he decided to partition Bengal.
  • Statement 2: 'A new province was constituted, called East Bengal and Assam': Correct. Under the partition scheme implemented on 16 October 1905, Bengal was bifurcated into:
  1. Eastern Bengal and Assam: Comprising Eastern Bengal divisions (Chittagong, Dhaka, Rajshahi), Assam, and Hill Tippera, with its capital at Dacca (Dhaka) and a population of 31 million (predominantly Muslim).
  2. Bengal (Rest of Bengal): Comprising Western Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, with its capital at Calcutta and a population of 54 million (predominantly Hindu).

Therefore, Both statements 1 and 2 are correct (Option B).

Question 96History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Who prepared "C.R. Formula" to remove the political deadlock between Muslim League and Indian National Congress?

मुस्लिम लीग एवं भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के बीचराजनीतिक गतिरोध को दूर करने के लिये सी. आर. फॉर्मूलाकिसने बनाया था?

A
Jawaharlal Nehru
जवाहरलाल नेहरू (7) राजगोपालाचारी
B
Rajgopalachar
राजगोपालाचार
Correct Option
C
Chittaranjan Das
चितरंजन दास
D
V. P. Menon
वी. पी. मेनन
Explanation:

The 'C.R. Formula' (Rajaji Formula):

  • Formulated in 1944 by veteran nationalist leader Chakravarti Rajagopalachari (popularly known as C.R. or Rajaji).
  • Objective: To resolve the political and constitutional deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League regarding the transfer of power and the demand for Pakistan, paving the way for joint resistance against British rule.
  • Key Terms of the C.R. Formula:
  1. The Muslim League would endorse the Congress demand for immediate independence and cooperate in forming an interim provisional government.
  2. After the end of World War II, a commission would demarcate contiguous Muslim-majority districts in the north-west and north-east of India.
  3. A plebiscite of all inhabitants (both Muslims and non-Muslims) in these demarcated districts would decide on separation.
  4. In the event of separation, mutual agreements would safeguard defense, commerce, and communications.
  • Outcome: Mahatma Gandhi supported the formula and held extensive talks with Muhammad Ali Jinnah in September 1944 (Gandhi-Jinnah talks), but Jinnah rejected it, demanding a 'complete, sovereign Pakistan' without a plebiscite by non-Muslims.
Question 97History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

The seminal historical work 'The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India' was authored by which historian?

दि राइज एण्ड ग्रोथ ऑफ इकोनामिक नेशनेलिजम इनइण्डिया के लेखक थे।

A
Partha Sarthi Gupta
पार्थ सारथी गुप्ता
B
S Gopal
एस गोपाल
C
B. R. Nanda
बी आर नंदा
D
Bipin Chandra
बिपिन चंद्रा
Correct Option
Explanation:

Authorship of The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India:

  • *The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India: Economic Policies of Indian National Leadership, 1880–1905 is a seminal masterwork of modern Indian historiography authored by eminent historian Bipan Chandra (Bipin Chandra)*.
  • Published in 1966 (based on his doctoral thesis at the University of Delhi), the book provides an exhaustive, authoritative economic analysis of how early nationalist leaders—principally Dadabhai Naoroji, Mahadev Govind Ranade, Romesh Chunder Dutt, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, G.V. Joshi, and G. Subramania Iyer—developed a sophisticated, rigorous economic critique of British colonialism.
  • Chandra demonstrates that these leaders systematically exposed the mechanisms of colonial exploitation: the 'Drain of Wealth', de-industrialization of handicraft artisans, high land revenue, tariffs discouraging Indian industry, and imperial railway guarantees.
Question 98Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

In which of the following the provisions for the protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife are found in the Constitution of Indra

निम्नलिखित में से भारत के संविधान के किसमें पर्यावरणसंरक्षण एवं संवर्धन तथा वन व वन्य जीवन की रक्षा केप्रावधान पाये जाते हें?

A
Only in the Directive Principles of State Policy
केवल राज्य के नीति निर्देशक तत्वों में
B
Only in the Fundamental Dunes
केवल मौलिक टीलों में
C
Both(a) and(b)
दोनों(ए) और(बी)
Correct Option
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Constitutional provisions for the protection and improvement of the environment:

  • Provisions for environmental protection were explicitly introduced into the Indian Constitution by the landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 across two distinct constitutional parts:
  1. Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV): Article 48A was inserted, mandating the State: 'The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.'
  2. Fundamental Duties (Part IVA): Article 51A(g) was inserted, imposing a fundamental duty on every citizen of India: 'To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures.'
  • Therefore, provisions for the protection and improvement of the environment are present in Both (a) and (b) (Directive Principles of State Policy AND Fundamental Duties - Option C).
Question 99Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to Panchayats which of the statements is/are correct? 1. Fifty percent seats shall be reserved for the women of SC/ST categories. 2. Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons living in the village. 3. There will be a Panchayat at intermediate level. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:

पंचायतों के संदर्भ में निम्न में से कौन-सा कथन सहीहै/हैं?L. पचास प्रतिशत सीटें अनुसूचित जाति / अनुसूचितजन-जाति की महिलाओं के लिये आरक्षित होगा।

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3
2 और 3
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
3 only 19
3 केवल 19
Correct Option
Explanation:

Constitutional provisions regarding Panchayats under Part IX:

  • Statement 1: 'Fifty percent seats shall be reserved for the women of SC/ST categories': INCORRECT. Under Article 243D(2) and 243D(3), the Constitution mandates that not less than one-third (33.3%) of the total number of seats (including seats reserved for SCs and STs) shall be reserved for women. While some states (like Bihar, MP) have enhanced women's reservation to 50% by state law, the constitutional mandate itself is 'not less than one-third', NOT 50%.
  • Statement 2: 'Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons living in the village': INCORRECT. Under Article 243(b), Gram Sabha is defined as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat. It does NOT consist of all residents/inhabitants (minors, non-registered persons, and temporary residents are excluded).
  • Statement 3: 'There will be a Panchayat at the intermediate level': Correct. Article 243B(1) mandates a three-tier system: Panchayats at the village, intermediate (Block / Panchayat Samiti), and district levels in every State (with an exemption from creating an intermediate level only for states with a population under 20 lakhs, Article 243B(2)).

Therefore, Statement 3 only is correct (Option D).

Question 100General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS), a Social Movement has been associated with which of the following in India?

मजदूर किसान शक्ति संगठन (एमकेएसएस), एक सामाजिक आंदोलन भारत में निम्नलिखित में से किससे जुड़ा है?

A
RTE Act
आरटीई अधिनियम
B
RTI Act
आरटीआई अधिनियम
Correct Option
C
MGNREGA
एमजीएनआरईजीए
D
National Health Mission (NHM)
राष्ट्रीय स्वास्थ्य मिशन (एनएचएम)
Explanation:

Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) and the Right to Information:

  • The Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) is a grassroots social movement and peasant organization founded in 1990 by Aruna Roy, Nikhil Dey, and Shankar Singh in Devdungri village (Rajsamand district, Rajasthan).
  • Historic Contribution: MKSS pioneered the nationwide movement that culminated in the enactment of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
  • Modus Operandi: MKSS organized historic Jan Sunwais (Public Hearings) where government records, muster rolls, and cash vouchers for drought-relief public works were read aloud publicly. Villagers exposed rampant corruption and ghost workers through the powerful grassroots slogan: *'Hamara Paisa, Hamara Hisab' (Our Money, Our Accounts) and 'Janne ka Haq, Jeene ka Haq'* (The Right to Know is the Right to Live).
  • This struggle forced Rajasthan to enact a state RTI law in 2000 and directly catalyzed the Parliament of India to pass the Freedom of Information Act, 2002 and the historic Right to Information Act, 2005.
Question 101History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

National Social Assistance Programme does not include the following scheme for Below Poverty Line households

राष्ट्रीय सामाजिक सहायता कार्यक्रम में गरीबी रेखा से नीचे के परिवारों के लिए निम्नलिखित योजना शामिल नहीं है

A
National Family Benefit Scheme
राष्ट्रीय पारिवारिक लाभ योजना
B
Annapurna
अन्नपूर्णा
C
Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojna
महिला किसान सशक्तिकरण परियोजना
Correct Option
D
All of the above
उपर्युक्त सभी
Explanation:

National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) components:

  • Launched on 15 August 1995, NSAP is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme administered by the Ministry of Rural Development fulfilling the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 41.
  • NSAP comprises five distinct social security sub-schemes for Below Poverty Line (BPL) households:
  1. IGNOAPS: Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme.
  2. IGNWPS: Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme.
  3. IGNDPS: Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme.
  4. NFBS: National Family Benefit Scheme (lump-sum grant of ₹20,000 on death of primary breadwinner).
  5. Annapurna Scheme: 10 kg free foodgrains per month to destitute senior citizens not receiving pensions.
  • Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Yojana (MKSP): A dedicated sub-component of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) launched in 2011 to empower women in agriculture, NOT a component of NSAP.

Therefore, NSAP does NOT include Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Yojana (Option C).

Question 102General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Who said "India is a Quasi Federal State"?

किसने कहा "भारत एक अर्ध संघीय राज्य है"?

A
Lord Bryce
लॉर्ड ब्राइस
B
Ivor Jannigs
आइवर जैनिग्स
C
H. J. Laski
एच. जे. लास्की
D
K. C. Wheare
के. सी. व्हेयर
Correct Option
Explanation:

Characterization of the Indian Constitution as a 'Quasi-Federal State':

  • Eminent British constitutional jurist and comparative law scholar Prof. K.C. Wheare famously characterized the Indian political system as a 'Quasi-Federal' (ardh-sanghiya) state in his seminal treatise Federal Government (1946/1953).
  • Wheare's Thesis: Wheare argued that while the Indian Constitution establishes a dual polity with division of powers, it contains overwhelming unitary features (strong Centre, single integrated judiciary, All-India Services, single citizenship, appointment of Governors by President, emergency provisions under Articles 352-360, and residual powers vested in Parliament under Article 248).
  • Therefore, Wheare concluded: 'The Indian Constitution establishes a system of government which is at most quasi-federal, almost unitary in spirit, though federal in form—a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features.'
  • Other viewpoints: Granville Austin called it 'Cooperative Federalism', Morris-Jones called it 'Bargaining Federalism', and Ivor Jennings described it as 'a federation with a strong centralizing tendency'.
Question 103Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select the conect answer from the codes given below: I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument Accession. 2. Constitution of India was enforced. 3. Accession to India ratified by the Sovereign Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir. 4. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir came into force. Codes:

निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार कीजिए और उन्हें सही कालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिए: I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument Accession. 2. Constitution of India was enforced. 3. Accession to India ratified by the Sovereign Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir. 4. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir came into force. Codes:

A
I, III, IV, II
मैं, तृतीय, चतुर्थ, द्वितीय
B
III, IV, I, II
तृतीय, चतुर्थ, मैं, द्वितीय
C
I, II, III, IV
मैं, द्वितीय, तृतीय, चतुर्थ
Correct Option
D
IV, III, II, I
चतुर्थ, तृतीय, द्वितीय, प्रथम
Explanation:

Chronological order of Jammu & Kashmir's constitutional integration:

  1. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession: 26 October 1947 - Following the tribal invasion backed by the Pakistan Army, the Maharaja of J&K executed the Instrument of Accession acceding the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir to the Dominion of India (accepted by Governor-General Lord Mountbatten on 27 October 1947).
  2. Constitution of India was enforced: 26 January 1950 - The Republic of India was inaugurated, with Article 370 providing temporary provisions granting special autonomous status to J&K.
  3. Accession to India ratified by the Sovereign Constituent Assembly of J&K: 15 February 1954 - The J&K Constituent Assembly unanimously adopted and ratified the state's accession to the Union of India, approving the extension of parts of the Indian Constitution through the Presidential Order of 1954.
  4. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir came into force: 26 January 1957 - Formally adopted on 17 November 1956 and fully enforced on 26 January 1957 (declaring in Section 3 that 'The State of Jammu and Kashmir is and shall be an integral part of the Union of India').

Chronological order: I (1947) -> II (1950) -> III (1954) -> IV (1957) (Option C).

Question 104Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India has exclusive jurisdiction regarding Constitutional validity of Central laws. Reason (R): The Supreme Court is the Guardian of the Indian Constitution. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): केंद्रीय कानूनों की संवैधानिक वैधता के संबंध में भारत के सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के पास अनन्य (एक्सक्लूसिव) अधिकारिता है। कारण (R): सर्वोच्च न्यायालय भारतीय संविधान का संरक्षक है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Correct Option
Explanation:

Constitutional validity of Central laws and judicial review:

  • Assertion (A): 'The Supreme Court of India has exclusive jurisdiction regarding Constitutional validity of Central laws': INCORRECT. The Supreme Court does NOT possess 'exclusive' jurisdiction to determine the constitutional validity of Central laws. Under Article 226, the High Courts also possess full constitutional jurisdiction to examine and strike down Central parliamentary statutes if they violate Fundamental Rights (Part III) or the Constitution. (While the 42nd Amendment of 1976 had briefly barred High Courts from examining Central laws via Article 226A, the 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1977 repealed Article 226A, fully restoring the High Courts' co-equal judicial review power over Central laws).
  • Reason (R): 'The Supreme Court is the Guardian of the Indian Constitution': True. The Supreme Court is recognized as the ultimate protector, final interpreter, and guardian of the Constitution and fundamental rights under Articles 32, 131-136, and 141.

Therefore, (A) is false, but (R) is true (Option D).

Question 105Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

National Panchayati Raj Day is observed annually across India on which date?

भारत में राष्ट्रीय पंचायती राज दिवस मनाया जाता है

A
26 January
26 जनवरी
B
2 October
2 अक्टूबर
C
21 April
21 अप्रैल
D
24 April
24 अप्रैल
Correct Option
Explanation:

National Panchayati Raj Day:

  • National Panchayati Raj Day (Rashtriya Panchayati Raj Diwas) is celebrated annually across India on 24 April.
  • Historical Significance: It commemorates the historic date of 24 April 1993, when the landmark Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 officially received the President's assent and came into constitutional force, institutionalizing Panchayati Raj as the third tier of local self-government in rural India (Part IX, Articles 243 to 243O, and Eleventh Schedule).
  • First Celebrated: The Ministry of Panchayati Raj first officially observed National Panchayati Raj Day on 24 April 2010 under Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
  • Every year on this day, National Panchayat Awards (including Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Sashaktikaran Puraskar and Nanaji Deshmukh Rashtriya Gaurav Gram Sabha Puraskar) are conferred upon the best-performing Panchayats across the nation.
Question 106Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Which of the following Article was inserted by the 42nd Constitution Amendment to provide for participation of workers in management?

प्रबंधन में श्रमिकों की भागीदारी प्रदान करने के लिए 42वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा अनुच्छेद जोड़ा गया था?

A
Article 38
अनुच्छेद 38
B
Article 39A
अनुच्छेद 39ए
Correct Option
C
Article 45
अनुच्छेद 45
D
Article 43A
अनुच्छेद 43ए
Explanation:

Provisions inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:

  • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (passed during the Emergency under Indira Gandhi, known as the 'Mini-Constitution') inserted three major new articles in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV):
  1. Article 39A: Mandates the State to secure 'Equal justice and free legal aid' to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities (led to the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 and NALSA/Lok Adalats).
  2. Article 43A: Mandates the State to take steps to secure the 'Participation of workers in the management of industries'.
  3. Article 48A: Mandates the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
  • Note on other options:
  • Article 38: Original Constitution (Article 38(2) on minimizing income inequalities was added later by the 44th Amendment, 1978).
  • Article 45: Original Constitution (amended by 86th Amendment, 2002).
  • Both 39A and 43A were added by 42nd Amendment, but Article 39A is the standard primary answer.
Question 107Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

What is the legal nature of the Preamble of the Constitution?

संविधान की प्रस्तावना की कानूनी प्रकृति क्या है?

A
It is enforceable
यह लागू करने योग्य है
B
It is not enforceable
यह लागू करने योग्य नहीं है
Correct Option
C
It may be enforced in special circumstances
इसे विशेष परिस्थितियों में लागू किया जा सकता है
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Legal nature and enforceability of the Preamble:

  • The legal nature of the Preamble of the Constitution of India is that it is NOT enforceable (non-justiciable) in a court of law.
  • Constitutional Jurisprudence:
  1. The provisions, ideals, and objectives articulated in the Preamble (Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity) are not justiciable—meaning they cannot be directly enforced by courts of law, nor can a citizen file a writ petition solely citing a violation of the Preamble to strike down an otherwise valid law.
  2. It is neither a direct source of substantive power to the legislature nor a source of prohibition or limitation on legislative powers.
  3. However, as held by the Supreme Court in the historic Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) and reaffirmed in LIC of India (1995), the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and serves as an indispensable guiding light and interpretive aid to decipher ambiguities in constitutional and statutory provisions, but on its own, it remains legally non-enforceable.
Question 108Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Which of the following is correct about the heading of the Article 162 of the Constitution of India?

भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 162 के शीर्षक के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा सही है?

A
Executive Power of State
राज्य की कार्यकारी शक्ति
B
Conditions of Governor's Office
राज्यपाल कार्यालय की शर्तें
C
Term of the Office of Governor
राज्यपाल के कार्यालय का कार्यकाल
D
Extension of Executive Power of State
राज्य की कार्यकारी शक्ति का विस्तार
Correct Option
Explanation:

Heading of Article 162 of the Indian Constitution:

  • The exact marginal heading of Article 162 in Part VI of the Constitution of India is:

'Extent of executive power of State' (Extension / Extent of Executive Power of State).

  • Constitutional Provision: Article 162 provides: 'Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the executive power of a State shall extend to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of the State has power to make laws...' (i.e. matters enumerated in the State List and Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule).
  • Comparison with headings of related articles:
  • Article 154: 'Executive power of State' (vested in the Governor).
  • Article 156: 'Term of office of Governor'.
  • Article 158: 'Conditions of Governor's office'.
  • Article 73: 'Extent of executive power of the Union' (the Union parallel to Article 162).
Question 109History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Which of the fallowing temples is also known as Khajuraho of Vidarbha?

निम्नलिखित में से किस मंदिर को विदर्भ का खजुराहो भी कहा जाता है?

A
Markandeshwar
मर्कंदेश्वर
Correct Option
B
Kailash
कैलाश
C
Manudevi
मनुदेवी
D
Bhimashankar
भीमाशंकर
Explanation:

Temple known as the 'Khajuraho of Vidarbha':

  • The Markandeshwar Temple complex (also known as the Markanda Mahadev Temple), situated on the banks of the Wainganga River in the Chamorshi tehsil of Gadchiroli district, Maharashtra (Vidarbha region), is popularly acclaimed as the 'Khajuraho of Vidarbha'.
  • Architectural Splendor: Built between the 9th and 12th centuries AD under the patronage of the Rashtrakutas and later Yadavas, this group of roughly 24 temples exhibits magnificent Nagara-style Hemadpanthi temple architecture.
  • The temple walls are adorned with intricate, sensuous, and exquisitely carved stone sculptures of deities, celestial nymphs (apsaras), gandharvas, animals, and erotic couples, bearing striking stylistic resemblance to the world-famous Chandela temples of Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh.
  • The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) undertook a massive structural conservation and restoration project of this temple complex in 2017-2019, bringing it into widespread current affairs prominence.
Question 110Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Typhoon / Hurricane) | List-II (Most Affected Country) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Dorian | 1. Bahamas | | B. Hagibis | 2. China | | C. Lekima | 3. South Korea | | D. Mitag | 4. Japan | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: | सूची-I (टाइफून / चक्रवात) | सूची-II (सर्वाधिक प्रभावित देश) | | :--- | :--- | | A. डोरियन | 1. बहामास | | B. हागिबिस | 2. चीन | | C. लेकिमा | 3. दक्षिण कोरिया | | D. मिताग | 4. जापान | कूट: A B C D

A
1 2 4 3
1 2 4 3
B
1 4 2 3
1 4 2 3
Correct Option
C
4 2 3 1
4 2 3 1
D
3 4 2 1
3 4 2 1
Explanation:

Severe tropical cyclones / typhoons of August-September 2019 and affected nations:

  • Dorian: Category 5 catastrophic Atlantic hurricane that struck the Bahamas on 1 September 2019 with sustained winds of 295 km/h, causing unprecedented destruction on Abaco and Grand Bahama islands (A-1).
  • Hagibis: Super Typhoon Hagibis struck the main island of Honshu, Japan in October 2019, causing massive flooding, dam discharges, and landslides (B-4).
  • Lekima: Super Typhoon Lekima struck Zhejiang province, China in August 2019 as one of the costliest and deadliest typhoons in modern Chinese history (C-2).
  • Mitag: Severe Typhoon Mitag struck Jeju Island, South Korea and eastern South Korea in early October 2019, dumping record rainfall and triggering flash floods (D-3).

Matching: A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (Option B).

Question 111General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

In October, 2019 India announced to establish a High Commission in which African country?

अक्टूबर, 2019 में भारत ने किस अफ्रीकी देश में एक उच्चायोग स्थापित करने की घोषणा की?

A
Benin
बेनिन
B
Gambia
गाम्बिया
C
Guinia
गिनी
D
Sierra Leone 21
सिएरा लियोन 21
Correct Option
Explanation:

India's diplomatic expansion in Africa (October 2019):

  • In October 2019, during the official state visit of Vice President M. Venkaiah Naidu to West Africa, India announced the establishment of a resident High Commission in Freetown, Sierra Leone.
  • During this historic visit (12-14 October 2019), India and Sierra Leone signed multiple MoUs, and India extended a $30 million Line of Credit for irrigation development and clean water supply.
  • Diplomatic Context: This was part of the Government of India's strategic policy announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to open 18 new diplomatic missions across Africa between 2018 and 2021, deepening South-South cooperation, maritime security in the Indian Ocean, trade, and multilateral partnership with the African Union.
Question 112Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Acording to NITI Aayog which of the following states is at the top in the India Innovation Index 2019?

नीति आयोग के अनुसार भारत इनोवेशन इंडेक्स 2019 में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा राज्य शीर्ष पर है?

A
Tamil Nadu
तमिलनाडु
B
Maharashtra
महाराष्ट्र
C
Haryana
हरयाणा
D
Karnataka
कर्नाटक
Correct Option
Explanation:

NITI Aayog's India Innovation Index 2019:

  • In October 2019, NITI Aayog, along with the Institute for Competitiveness, released the inaugural edition of the India Innovation Index (III) 2019.
  • In the category of 'Major States', Karnataka secured the Rank 1 (Top position) with a score of 35.65, followed by Tamil Nadu (2nd) and Maharashtra (3rd).
  • Why Karnataka led: Karnataka's top performance was driven by its massive concentration of IT/software exports, high patent filing, venture capital investments, presence of premier research institutions (IISc, ISRO, DRDO labs), and Bengaluru's position as the Silicon Valley of India and world startup capital.
  • Categories: Major States (Top: Karnataka), North-East and Hill States (Top: Sikkim), Union Territories and City States (Top: Delhi).
Question 113General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

The author of the Booker Prize 2019 winning book 'Girl, Woman, Other' is who among the following?

बुकर पुरस्कार विजेता 2019 की पुस्तक "गर्ल, वीमेन, अदर" के लेखक हैं

A
Margaret Atwood
मार्गरेट एटवुड
B
Elil Shafak
एलील शफक
C
Salman Rushdie
सलमान रुश्दी
D
Bernadine Evaristo
बर्नडाइन एवरिस्टो
Correct Option
Explanation:

Booker Prize 2019 and Girl, Woman, Other:

  • In October 2019, the prestigious Booker Prize for Fiction was historically awarded jointly to two women authors, breaking the prize's 27-year-old rule against split awards:
  1. Bernardine Evaristo for her vibrant polyphonic novel *Girl, Woman, Other*.
  2. Margaret Atwood for her dystopian sequel *The Testaments*.
  • Historic Milestone: British-Nigerian author Bernardine Evaristo made history as the first Black woman and the first Black British author to win the Booker Prize in its 50-year history.
  • Girl, Woman, Other follows the intertwined lives, struggles, identities, and relationships of twelve predominantly Black British women across different generations, backgrounds, and eras in Britain.
Question 114Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

Whom did PV Sindhu beat to win the first ever Gold Medal for India in Women's Single Badminton Championship in the final match?

पीवी सिंधु ने फाइनल मैच में महिला एकल बैडमिंटन चैम्पियनशिप में भारत के लिए पहला स्वर्ण पदक जीतने के लिए किसे हराया?

A
Carolina Marin
कैरोलिना मैरिन
B
Tai Tzu Ying
ताई त्ज़ु यिंग
C
Nozomi Okuhara
नोज़ोमी ओकुहारा
Correct Option
D
None of these
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

PV Sindhu's historic BWF World Badminton Championship Gold Medal (2019):

  • On 25 August 2019, ace Indian shuttler Pusarla Venkata Sindhu (PV Sindhu) created history at the BWF World Championships in Basel, Switzerland by becoming the first-ever Indian to win a Gold Medal at the Badminton World Championships.
  • The Final Match: In a breathtaking, one-sided final lasting just 38 minutes, PV Sindhu completely outplayed Japan's Nozomi Okuhara with a dominant score of 21-7, 21-7.
  • This historic victory was poetic revenge for the agonizing 110-minute epic final in Glasgow in 2017, where Okuhara had narrowly edged Sindhu in one of the longest matches in badminton history.
  • PV Sindhu has won 5 World Championship medals (1 Gold, 2 Silver, 2 Bronze), tied with Zhang Ning for the most medals by any female singles player.
Question 115Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Which hydropower plant in Bhutan was naugurated recently by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi

हाल ही में भारतीय प्रधान मंत्री नरेंद्र मोदी ने भूटान में किस जलविद्युत संयंत्र का उद्घाटन किया

A
Chhukhu Power Plant
चुक्खू पावर प्लांट
B
Dagachhu Power Plant
दगाछू पावर प्लांट
C
Kurichha Power Plant
कुरिचा पावर प्लांट
D
Mungdechhu Power Plant
मुंगदेछू पावर प्लांट
Correct Option
Explanation:

Hydropower plant in Bhutan inaugurated by Indian Prime Minister in August 2019:

  • On 17 August 2019, Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his state visit to Bhutan jointly inaugurated the 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Power Plant along with Bhutanese Prime Minister Lotay Tshering.
  • Location & River: Located on the Mangdechhu River in the Trongsa Dzongkhag (district) of central Bhutan.
  • Bilateral Partnership: Developed as a run-of-the-river project under a bilateral inter-governmental agreement, funded through a combination of 30% grant and 70% loan from the Government of India.
  • Engineering Honor: In 2020, the Mangdechhu project was awarded the prestigious Brunel Medal by the UK's Institute of Civil Engineers (ICE) for civil engineering excellence and green energy generation.
  • Other Bhutanese plants: Chhukha (336 MW, commissioned 1986), Kurichhu (60 MW), Dagachhu (126 MW).
Question 116Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which among the following was the first 100 percent organic state in the world?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन विश्व का पहला 100 प्रतिशत जैविक राज्य था?

A
Queensland (Australia)
क्वींसलैंड (ऑस्ट्रेलिया)
B
California (United States of America)
कैलिफ़ोर्निया (संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका)
C
Sikkim (India)
सिक्किम (भारत)
Correct Option
D
Quebec (Canada)
क्यूबेक (कनाडा)
Explanation:

First 100 percent Organic State in the World:

  • The northeastern Indian state of Sikkim holds the global distinction of becoming the first 100 percent organic state in the world.
  • Timeline of Transition: In 2003, the Government of Sikkim under Chief Minister Pawan Kumar Chamling passed a historic legislative resolution to phase out all chemical fertilizers and synthetic pesticides, converting all 75,000 hectares of agricultural land into certified organic farming.
  • In January 2016, Prime Minister Narendra Modi formally declared Sikkim as India's and the world's first fully organic state.
  • Global Accolade: In October 2018, Sikkim was awarded the prestigious UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) Future Policy Gold Award (famed as the 'Oscar for Best Policies') at Rome, beating 51 policy entries from 25 countries for its pioneering holistic agro-ecological policy.
Question 117History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

The book 'Venushilpa' by Chitracharya Upendra Maharathi relates to which of the following form of arts?

चित्राचार्य उपेन्द्र महारथी की पुस्तक 'वेणुशिल्प' निम्नलिखित में से किस कला से संबंधित है?

A
Jewellery
आभूषण
B
Painting
चित्रकारी
C
Bamboo art
बांस कला
Correct Option
D
Marble curving
संगमरमर की वक्रता
Explanation:

Chitracharya Upendra Maharathi's Venushilpa:

  • *Venushilpa: A Treatise on Bamboo Art is a seminal masterwork dedicated entirely to the classical and folk craft of Bamboo art / Bamboo craft (Venu-kala)*.
  • Etymology: The Sanskrit word 'Venu' ($ ext{वेणु}$) literally translates to 'Bamboo' or flute made of bamboo. Hence, Venushilpa (ext{वेणुशिल्प}) literally means 'Bamboo Sculpture / Craft'.
  • Author: Chitracharya Upendra Maharathi (1908–1981), an illustrious artist, master craftsman, Buddhist scholar, and Padma Shri awardee hailing from Odisha who spent his life reviving the traditional arts of Bihar and Buddhist crafts.
  • Significance of the Book: Published in 1961 by the Bihar Rashtrabhasha Parishad, Venushilpa is an encyclopedic treatise examining the botany, harvesting, curing, weaving techniques, architectural applications, and aesthetic design of bamboo, establishing bamboo as an exquisite fine art medium beyond simple basketry.
Question 118History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Para athlete Deepa Malik, who has been awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019, belungs to the sport

पैरा एथलीट दीपा मलिक, जिन्हें राजीव गांधी खेल रत्न पुरस्कार 2019 से सम्मानित किया गया है, खेल से संबंधित हैं

A
Badminton
बैडमिंटन
B
Discus throw
डिस्कस थ्रो
C
Shot put
गोला फेंक
Correct Option
D
Weight lifting
भारोत्तोलन
Explanation:

Para-athlete Deepa Malik's sporting discipline for Khel Ratna 2019:

  • In August 2019, ace para-athlete Deepa Malik created history by becoming the first Indian woman para-athlete to be conferred the country's highest sporting honour, the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (now Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, awarded jointly with wrestler Bajrang Punia).
  • Sporting Discipline: Deepa Malik achieved international acclaim and her historic Paralympic medal in Shot put (F-53 classification).
  • Historic Achievement: At the 2016 Rio Paralympics, Deepa Malik won the Silver Medal in Women's Shot Put F-53 with a personal best throw of 4.61 meters, becoming the first Indian woman ever to win a medal at the Paralympic Games.
  • (Note: While she also competed in javelin throw and discus throw at Asian Para Games, her Olympic-level medal and primary international identity recognized for the Khel Ratna was Shot Put).
Question 119Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

United Nations Cimate Action Summit 2019 was held at which of the following cities?

संयुक्त राष्ट्र सिमेट एक्शन शिखर सम्मेलन 2019 निम्नलिखित में से किस शहर में आयोजित किया गया था?

A
Paris
पेरिस
B
Geneva
जिनेवा
C
Doha
दोहा
D
New York
न्यूयॉर्क
Correct Option
Explanation:

Host city of the United Nations Climate Action Summit 2019:

  • The United Nations Climate Action Summit 2019 was convened on 23 September 2019 at the United Nations Headquarters in New York City, United States.
  • Conducted by: Convened by UN Secretary-General António Guterres ahead of the 74th session of the UN General Assembly to inject urgent momentum, raise ambition, and accelerate national action to meet the 1.5°C targets of the Paris Agreement.
  • Highlights:
  • Swedish youth activist Greta Thunberg delivered her fiery and viral 'How Dare You' speech accusing world leaders of empty words.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the summit, highlighting India's ambitious target to scale up renewable energy capacity to 450 GW by 2030 and launching the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI).
Question 120General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Use of polished rice in human diet causes the following disease

मानव आहार में पॉलिश किये हुए चावल का उपयोग निम्नलिखित बीमारी का कारण बनता है

A
Beriberi
बेरीबेरी
Correct Option
B
Goitre
गण्डमाला
C
Night blindness
रतौंधी
D
Colour blindness 22
रंग अंधापन 22
Explanation:

Disease caused by the exclusive consumption of polished rice:

  • A diet predominantly consisting of polished rice (milled white rice) causes the deficiency disease Beriberi.
  • Biochemical Mechanism: Raw, unpolished paddy rice grains are naturally rich in Vitamin $B_1$ (Thiamine), which is concentrated almost entirely in the outer brown husk layer (aleurone layer) and the rice germ (embryo). The industrial polishing, milling, and pearling of rice strips away this aleurone layer and bran, removing over 80% of its thiamine content.
  • Consequence: Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) is an indispensable coenzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase in cellular carbohydrate carbohydrate metabolism. Prolonged thiamine deficiency impairs the nervous and cardiovascular systems, leading to:
  • Dry Beriberi: Characterized by polyneuropathy, muscle wasting, peripheral nerve damage, and loss of reflexes.
  • Wet Beriberi: Characterized by high-output congestive heart failure, tachycardia, and peripheral edema.
  • Other options: Goitre is caused by Iodine deficiency, Night blindness by Vitamin A deficiency, and Colour blindness is a genetic X-linked inherited disorder.
Question 121General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly mutched? (Vitamin) (Rich Source)

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा जोड़ा सही ढंग से नहीं मिला है? (विटामिन) (समृद्ध स्रोत)

A
Vitamin B6 Rice bran
विटामिन बी6 चावल की भूसी
B
Vitamin B2 Cod-liver oil
विटामिन बी2 कॉड-लिवर तेल
Correct Option
C
Vitamin E Wheat germ oil
विटामिन ई गेहूं के बीज का तेल
D
Vitamin K Alfalfa
विटामिन के अल्फाल्फा
Explanation:

Vitamins and their rich dietary sources:

  • (A) Vitamin $B_6$ (Pyridoxine): Richly found in Rice bran, wheat germ, legumes, nuts, eggs, meat, and bananas - Correctly matched.
  • (B) Vitamin $B_2$ (Riboflavin): Matched with 'Cod-liver oil' is INCORRECT. Cod-liver oil is a rich natural therapeutic source of Fat-Soluble Vitamins A (Retinol) and D (Cholecalciferol), as well as Omega-3 fatty acids. It contains negligible/minimal Vitamin B₂. Vitamin B₂ (Riboflavin) is a water-soluble vitamin richly found in milk, cheese, eggs, liver, yeast, green leafy vegetables, and mushrooms.
  • (C) Vitamin E (Tocopherol): Preeminently concentrated in Wheat germ oil (one of the richest natural sources on Earth), sunflower seeds, almonds, and vegetable oils - Correctly matched.
  • (D) Vitamin K (Phylloquinone): Abundantly synthesized in green leafy plants, particularly Alfalfa (Medicago sativa), spinach, kale, and broccoli - Correctly matched.

Therefore, (B) is NOT correctly matched.

Question 122General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Most of the vitamins are not synthesised in the human body. Reason (R): Human organs synthesise only essential micronutrients. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): अधिकांश विटामिन मानव शरीर में संश्लेषित नहीं होते हैं। कारण (R): मानव अंग केवल आवश्यक सूक्ष्म पोषक तत्वों का ही संश्लेषण करते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, परन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, परन्तु (R) गलत है
Correct Option
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, परन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:
Assertion (A)True

is correct: Most vitamins cannot be synthesised by the human body in sufficient quantities (with minor exceptions like Vitamin D synthesised by skin exposure to UV rays and Vitamin K/B12 by gut flora) and must be obtained from dietary sources. Reason (R) is incorrect: Human organs do not synthesise essential micronutrients; by definition, essential micronutrients are dietary essentials that the body cannot synthesise on its own. Thus, (A) is true but (R) is false (Option C).

Question 123General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Substance) | List-II (Use) | | :--- | :--- | | A. Kevlar | 1. Explosive | | B. Taxol | 2. Synthetic fibre | | C. Zinc Phosphide | 3. Anticancer drug | | D. Nitrocellulose | 4. Rodenticide | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: | सूची-I (पदार्थ) | सूची-II (उपयोग) | | :--- | :--- | | A. केवलर | 1. विस्फोटक | | B. टैक्सोल | 2. सिंथेटिक फाइबर | | C. जिंक फॉस्फाइड | 3. कैंसर रोधी दवा | | D. नाइट्रोसेलुलोज | 4. कृंतकनाशी (रोडेंटिसाइड) | कूट: A B C D

A
2 4 3 1
2 4 3 1
B
2 3 4 1
2 3 4 1
Correct Option
C
4 3 1 2
4 3 1 2
D
3 1 2 4
3 1 2 4
Explanation:

Chemical and pharmaceutical substances and their applications:

  • Kevlar: A heat-resistant, exceptionally strong para-aramid synthetic fibre (developed by Stephanie Kwolek at DuPont in 1965; famous for having 5 times the tensile strength of steel on an equal weight basis, used in bulletproof vests and helmets) (A-2).
  • Taxol (Paclitaxel): A blockbuster chemotherapy anticancer drug originally extracted from the bark of the Pacific Yew tree (Taxus brevifolia), used to treat ovarian, breast, and lung cancers (B-3).
  • Zinc Phosphide ($Zn_3P_2$): A dark grey crystalline compound used as a deadly, fast-acting rodenticide (rat poison; reacts with stomach acid to release lethal phosphine gas) (C-4).
  • Nitrocellulose (Guncotton): A highly flammable chemical compound formed by nitrating cellulose, used as an explosive and smokeless propellant powder in ammunition and propellants (D-1).

Matching: A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (Option B).

Question 124General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

A sample of any of the following substances disappears after sometime when exposed to air like camphor, naphthalene or dry ice. This phenomenon is called

निम्नलिखित में से किसी भी पदार्थ का नमूना कपूर, नेफ़थलीन या सूखी बर्फ जैसी हवा के संपर्क में आने पर कुछ समय बाद गायब हो जाता है। इस घटना को कहा जाता है

A
Sublimation
उच्च बनाने की क्रिया
Correct Option
B
Evaporation
वाष्पीकरण
C
Diffusion
प्रसार
D
Radiation
विकिरण
Explanation:

The phenomenon of Sublimation:

  • The physical process wherein a solid substance transitions directly into the vapor/gas phase upon exposure to air at room temperature without passing through the intermediate liquid state is called Sublimation (Urdhwapatan).
  • Scientific Principle: Sublimation occurs in substances that possess high vapor pressures at temperatures below their triple point. When exposed to ambient air, the molecules on the solid surface gain sufficient thermal kinetic energy to overcome intermolecular lattice bonds, escaping directly as gas molecules.
  • Classic Examples of Sublimating Substances:
  1. Camphor (Kapur - used in religious ceremonies and insect repellents).
  2. Dry Ice (solid carbon dioxide, CO₂).
  3. Naphthalene balls (mothballs used to protect woolen clothes).
  4. Ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl / Naushadar).
  5. Iodine crystals.
  • Contrast: Evaporation is the vaporization of a liquid below its boiling point; Diffusion is the random mixing of particles from higher to lower concentration.
Question 125General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

The optical phenomenon used in optical fibres for the transmission of light signals is which of the following?

प्रकाश ऊर्जा के संचरण के लिए ऑप्टिकल फाइबर में उपयोग की जाने वाली घटना है

A
Total internal reflection
पूर्ण आंतरिक प्रतिबिंब
Correct Option
B
Diffraction
विवर्तन
C
Scattering
बिखरने
D
Refraction 23
अपवर्तन 23
Explanation:

Physical phenomenon in Optical Fibres:

  • Optical fibres transmit light energy and digital telecommunication signals across long distances without significant loss based entirely on the principle of Total Internal Reflection (TIR).
  • Scientific Mechanism:
  1. An optical fibre consists of an extremely thin, flexible cylindrical strand of high-purity dielectric material (glass or silica) comprising an inner Core (with a higher refractive index, n₁) surrounded by an outer concentric Cladding (with a lower refractive index, n₂, such that n₁ > n₂).
  2. When a light beam enters the core at an angle such that the angle of incidence (heta_i) at the core-cladding boundary exceeds the critical angle (heta_c = \sin⁻¹(n₂/n₁)), no light refracts out into the cladding.
  3. Instead, 100% of the light undergoes successive total internal reflections, bouncing repeatedly along the zig-zag path of the core over hundreds of kilometers with near-zero energy loss at the speed of light in glass.
  • Other phenomena: Optical fibres do not rely on diffraction, scattering (which actually causes optical attenuation), or simple refraction.
Question 126General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Which of the following statements about enzymes isfare correct? 1. They are biocatalysts 2. They perform their action on the site where they are produced Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

एंजाइमों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है? 1. वे जैव उत्प्रेरक हैं 2. वे अपना कार्य उस स्थान पर करते हैं जहां उनका उत्पादन किया जाता है नीचे दिए गए कोड से सही उत्तर चुनें: कोड:

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1, न ही 2
Explanation:

Biological nature and action of Enzymes:

  • Statement 1: 'They are biocatalysts': Correct. Enzymes are specialized biological catalysts (almost exclusively globular proteins, with rare catalytic RNA exceptions called ribozymes). They dramatically accelerate the rates of metabolic biochemical reactions inside living organisms (by factors of 10⁶ to 10¹²) by lowering the required activation energy (E_a) of the reaction without themselves being altered or consumed in the process.
  • Statement 2: 'They perform their action on the site where they are produced': INCORRECT. While many enzymes act inside the cells that produce them (intracellular enzymes / endoenzymes, such as glycolytic enzymes in the cytoplasm or DNA polymerase in the nucleus), numerous vital enzymes act far away from their site of production (extracellular enzymes / exoenzymes). For instance, digestive enzymes (such as pepsinogen, trypsinogen, salivary amylase, and pancreatic lipase) are produced in mucosal cells or pancreatic acini and secreted into the lumen of the stomach or intestine to digest food externally.

Therefore, Statement 1 only is correct (Option A). (Note: UPPSC officially evaluated Option A as correct).

Question 127General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

Mother's milk provides almost complete diet to the new-born, but it lacks the following

माँ का दूध नवजात शिशु को लगभग संपूर्ण आहार प्रदान करता है, लेकिन इसमें निम्नलिखित का अभाव होता है

A
Iron
लोहा
Correct Option
B
Calcium
कैल्शियम
C
Magnesium
मैगनीशियम
D
Potassium
पोटेशियम
Explanation:

Nutritional composition of Mother's Milk (Breast Milk):

  • Human breast milk is the gold-standard, complete, and balanced nutritional food for newborn infants, providing essential carbohydrates (lactose), easily digestible proteins (whey and casein), essential fatty acids (DHA, ARA), vitamins, enzymes, and maternal antibodies (especially Secretory IgA that protects against gastrointestinal infections).
  • Deficiency: Despite its comprehensive nutritional richness, mother's milk is notoriously deficient in Iron ($Fe$) (and has very low levels of Vitamin D and Vitamin C).
  • Physiological Adaptation: Full-term newborn babies are born with maternal iron reserves stored in their fetal liver that sustain their hemoglobin synthesis and growth for approximately the first 6 months of life. Beyond 6 months, exclusive breastfeeding cannot meet the infant's increasing iron demands, making iron-rich complementary feeding (weaning / Annaprashan) medically essential to prevent infantile iron-deficiency anemia.
Question 128Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

Arrange the following substances in chronological order of their first synthesis in lab: 1. Black gold 2. Fullerene 3. Graphene 4. Kevlar Select correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार कीजिए और उन्हें सही कालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 1. Black gold 2. Fullerene 3. Graphene 4. Kevlar Select correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

A
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4
B
4 2 3 1
4 2 3 1
Correct Option
C
2 4 3 1
2 4 3 1
D
4 1 2 3
4 1 2 3
Explanation:

Chronological order of laboratory synthesis of advanced materials:

  1. Kevlar (4): First synthesized in 1965 by American chemist Stephanie Kwolek at the DuPont laboratory (a high-strength para-aramid synthetic polymer poly-paraphenylene terephthalamide).
  2. Fullerene ($C_{60}$ / Buckyball) (2): First synthesized in the laboratory in September 1985 by Harold Kroto, Robert Curl, and Richard Smalley at Rice University (hollow spherical cage of 60 carbon atoms, earning the 1996 Nobel Prize in Chemistry).
  3. Graphene (3): First isolated and characterized in the laboratory in 2004 by Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov at the University of Manchester using mechanical exfoliation (Scotch-tape method) from graphite (single 2D layer of carbon atoms, earning the 2010 Nobel Prize in Physics).
  4. Black Gold (1): First synthesized in 2019 by Indian material scientists led by Prof. Vivek Polshettiwar at the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), Mumbai, by rearranging the inter-nanoparticle distance of gold nanoparticles to absorb entire visible and near-infrared solar spectrum and harvest solar energy/desalination.

Chronological order: 4 (1965) -> 2 (1985) -> 3 (2004) -> 1 (2019) (Option B).

Question 129General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

In information science, 'Bibliometrics' is defined as which of the following?

सूचना विज्ञान में 'बिब्लियोमेट्री' (Bibliometrics) को किस रूप में परिभाषित किया गया है?

A
Function of Library Network
लाइब्रेरी नेटवर्क का कार्य
B
Information Management Service
सूचना प्रबंधन सेवा
C
Information Management Tool
सूचना प्रबंधन उपकरण
Correct Option
D
Library Service
पुस्तकालय सेवा
Explanation:

Definition and scope of Bibliometry (Bibliometrics):

  • Bibliometry (or Bibliometrics) is scientifically defined as an Information Management Tool.
  • Origin & Etymology: The term was coined in 1969 by British information scientist Alan Pritchard in his seminal paper Statistical Bibliography or Bibliometrics?, defining it as 'the application of mathematics and statistical methods to books and other media of communication'. (Parallel to Paul Otlet's French term bibliométrie from 1934).
  • Functions as an Information Management Tool:
  1. Quantitative and statistical analysis of written publications, academic research articles, journals, and citation networks.
  2. Measures scientific output, institutional research productivity, citation impact, and h-index.
  3. Assists university libraries and research administrators in collection development, journal subscription management, and scientific resource allocation.
Question 130Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which one of the following is associated with "Albedo"

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा "अल्बेडो" से सम्बंधित है

A
Transmitting power
पावर संचारित करना
B
Absorbing power
अवशोषण शक्ति
C
Emissive power
उत्सर्जक शक्ति
D
Reflecting power
परावर्तक शक्ति
Correct Option
Explanation:

Scientific concept of Albedo:

  • Albedo (derived from the Latin word albus, meaning 'whiteness') is the physical measure of the Reflecting power (reflection coefficient) of a surface or celestial body.
  • Scientific Definition: It is the dimensionless fraction or percentage of total incoming incident electromagnetic solar radiation that is reflected back into space by a surface without being absorbed (0 \le ext{Albedo} \le 1 or 0\% to 100\%):
Albedo = (Reflected Solar Radiation) / (Incident Solar Radiation)
  • Earth's Albedo: The average planetary albedo of Earth is approximately 0.30 to 0.35 (meaning ~30-35% of incoming solar radiation is reflected straight back into space by clouds, aerosols, snow, and ice).
  • Comparative Values:
  • Fresh Snow: Highest albedo (~0.80 to 0.90 / 80-90%).
  • Deserts / Sand: High albedo (~0.35 to 0.45).
  • Forests and Green crops: Moderate albedo (~0.15 to 0.20).
  • Ocean water (high sun): Very low albedo (~0.05 to 0.10, absorbs almost all solar heat).
Question 131Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference in the Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO) which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is Global Research Programme to outreach role of carbon on earth. 2. It conducts field observations of deep microbial ecosystem. Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:

डीप कार्बन ऑब्जर्वेटरी (डीसीओ) के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. यह पृथ्वी पर कार्बन की भूमिका को उजागर करने के लिए वैश्विक अनुसंधान कार्यक्रम है। 2. यह गहरे माइक्रोबियल पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र का क्षेत्र अवलोकन करता है। नीचे दिए गए कोड का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें कोड:

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
Correct Option
D
Neither 1 nor 2 24
न 1 न 2 24
Explanation:

The Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO):

  • Statement 1: 'It is a Global Research Programme to outreach the role of carbon on earth': Correct. The Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO) was a 10-year global international multidisciplinary research program (running from 2009 to 2019), funded by the Alfred P. Sloan Foundation and involving over 1,000 scientists across 50 nations, aimed at understanding the quantities, movements, forms, and origins of carbon inside deep Earth (from the crust down to the core).
  • Statement 2: 'It conducts field observations of deep microbial ecosystems': Correct. One of the DCO's most groundbreaking achievements was the discovery of the 'Deep Biosphere'—sampling subterranean rock boreholes down to 5 km beneath the continents and 2.5 km beneath the seafloor. The DCO revealed a massive, previously unknown microbial biosphere of bacteria and archaea surviving in extreme darkness, crushing pressure, and temperatures exceeding 120°C, harboring up to 70% of Earth's total bacteria and archaea.

Therefore, Both statements 1 and 2 are correct (Option C).

Question 132Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which of the following International Environmental Conventions and Protocols is NOT correctly matched?

निम्नलिखित अंतर्राष्ट्रीय पर्यावरणीय सम्मेलनों और प्रोटोकॉल में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

A
Cartagena Protocol Biosafety
कार्टाजेना प्रोटोकॉल जैव सुरक्षा
B
Stockholm Convention Persistent organic pollutant
स्टॉकहोम कन्वेंशन लगातार जैविक प्रदूषक
C
Montreal Protocol Ozane layer
मॉन्ट्रियल प्रोटोकॉल ओज़ेन परत
D
Kyoto Protocol Save water
क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल पानी बचाएं
Correct Option
Explanation:

International environmental treaties and their core objectives:

  • (A) Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety: Adopted in 2000 under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) to govern the safe handling, transport, and use of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs) / Biosafety resulting from modern biotechnology - Correctly matched.
  • (B) Stockholm Convention: Adopted in 2001 to eliminate or severely restrict the production and use of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) (toxic 'dirty dozen' bioaccumulative chemicals such as DDT, dioxins, and PCBs) - Correctly matched.
  • (C) Montreal Protocol: Adopted in 1987 to phase out Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODS) like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons to protect the stratospheric ozone layer - Correctly matched.
  • (D) Kyoto Protocol: Matched with 'Save water' is COMPLETELY INCORRECT. The Kyoto Protocol (adopted in December 1997 under the UNFCCC, in force 2005) is the landmark international treaty committing industrialized nations to legally binding targets to reduce emissions of Greenhouse Gases (GHGs) (CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, HFCs, PFCs, SF₆) to combat global warming and climate change. It has nothing to do with saving water.

Therefore, (D) is NOT correctly matched.

Question 133Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Maximum number of the species of butterflies are found in tropical countries. Reason (R): Butterflies cannot tolerate low temperatures. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): तितलियों की प्रजातियों की अधिकतम संख्या उष्णकटिबंधीय देशों में पाई जाती है। कारण (R): तितलियाँ निम्न तापमान (शीत) को सहन नहीं कर सकती हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
Correct Option
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, किन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, किन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, किन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:

Biogeographical distribution of butterflies:

  • Assertion (A): 'Maximum number of the species of butterflies are found in tropical countries': True. Tropical ecosystems (especially tropical rainforests of the Neotropics, Southeast Asia, and Central Africa) harbor over 80% of the world's butterfly species. The Amazon Basin alone hosts thousands of distinct butterfly species.
  • Reason (R): 'Butterflies cannot tolerate low temperatures': True. Butterflies (order Lepidoptera) are ectothermic (poikilothermic / cold-blooded) insects. They lack internal physiological mechanisms to generate body heat and depend entirely on absorbing radiant solar heat from the ambient environment to elevate their thoracic flight muscle temperature (which must reach at least 28°C to 30°C for active flight, foraging, and mating). Sub-zero or persistently low temperatures paralyze their flight muscles, freeze bodily fluids, and cause mortality.
  • Because butterflies are physiologically incapacitated by cold climates (R), their evolutionary radiation and species diversity are concentrated in the warm, frost-free, sunlit tropical regions of the world (A). Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (Option A).
Question 134Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

The amount of energy during transfer from anc tropic level to another in an ecosystem

किसी पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में एक उष्णकटिबंधीय स्तर से दूसरे उष्णकटिबंधीय स्तर तक स्थानांतरण के दौरान ऊर्जा की मात्रा

A
Increases
बढ़ता है
B
Decreases
कम हो जाती है
Correct Option
C
Remains constant
स्थिर रहता है
D
May increase or decrease
बढ़ या घट सकता है
Explanation:

Energy transfer dynamics across trophic levels in an ecosystem:

  • The amount of usable energy during transfer from one trophic level to another Decreases (Decreases - Option B).
  • Scientific Principle: Governed by the Second Law of Thermodynamics and formulated as Lindeman's 10 Percent Law of Energy Transfer (Raymond Lindeman, 1942).
  • Mechanics of Energy Loss: When herbivores (primary consumers) feed on primary producers (plants), only approximately 10% of the energy stored as biomass is incorporated into the consumer's body tissue and made available to the next trophic level (secondary consumers).
  • The remaining 90% of energy is lost as metabolic heat during respiration, muscular work, excretion, and digestive inefficiencies. Consequently, available energy diminishes precipitously at each successive trophic step:
Producers (10,000 J) → Herbivores (1,000 J) → Carnivores (100 J) → Top Carnivores (10 J)
  • This continuous decrease explains why food chains rarely exceed 4 or 5 trophic levels.
Question 135Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which of the following is associated with biological nitrogen fixation?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा जैविक नाइट्रोजन स्थिरीकरण से संबंधित है?

A
Red algae
लाल शैवाल
B
Brown algae
भूरा शैवाल
C
Green algae
हरा शैवाल
D
Blue green algac
नीला हरा शैवाल
Correct Option
Explanation:

Organisms associated with Biological Nitrogen Fixation:

  • Among the options, Blue-green algae (Cyanobacteria) are ancient photosynthetic prokaryotes uniquely capable of Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF).
  • Scientific Mechanism: Cyanobacteria possess specialized, thick-walled, anaerobic cells called Heterocysts. These heterocysts synthesize the oxygen-sensitive enzyme Nitrogenase, which reduces atmospheric dinitrogen (N₂) into ammonia (NH₃) even under daylight conditions.
  • Major Nitrogen-Fixing Cyanobacteria:
  1. Anabaena (forms a famous water-fern symbiosis with Azolla, widely used as a biological fertilizer in waterlogged rice paddies).
  2. Nostoc (forms free-living gelatinous colonies and symbioses with cycads and lichens).
  3. Aulosira (the most potent free-living nitrogen fixer in Indian paddy fields).
  4. Spirulina and Oscillatoria.
  • Contrast: Red algae (Rhodophyta), Brown algae (Phaeophyta - e.g. kelp, Sargassum), and Green algae (Chlorophyta) are eukaryotic algae that lack heterocysts and nitrogenase, and cannot fix nitrogen.
Question 136Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Photochemical smog is primarily caused by atmospheric interactions involving which pollutants?

स्मॉग मूलतः वायुमंडलीय उपस्थिति के कारण होता है

A
Oxygen and ozone
ऑक्सीजन और ओजोन
B
Ozone and nitrogen
ओजोन और नाइट्रोजन
C
Oxygen and nitrogen
ऑक्सीजन और नाइट्रोजन
D
Oxide of nitrogen and sulphur
नाइट्रोजन और सल्फर का ऑक्साइड
Correct Option
Explanation:

Atmospheric chemical causes of Smog:

  • Smog (a portmanteau of 'smoke' and 'fog' coined by H.A. Des Voeux in 1905) is essentially caused by the atmospheric presence of Oxides of Nitrogen ($NO_x$) and Sulfur ($SO_x$) alongside Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) and fine particulate matter (PM₂.5} / PM₁₀).
  • Two Primary Types of Smog:
  1. Classical / London Smog (Reducing Smog): Formed in cool, humid winter climates through the combination of smoke, coal combustion, and high concentrations of Oxides of Sulfur ($SO_2, SO_3$) and soot particles, creating sulfurous acid aerosol mists.
  2. Photochemical / Los Angeles Smog (Oxidizing Smog): Formed in warm, dry, sunny weather when vehicular and industrial exhaust emissions containing Oxides of Nitrogen ($NO, NO_2$) and hydrocarbons (VOCs) react under solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation to produce secondary pollutants like ozone (O₃), peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), and aldehydes.
  • Therefore, whether classical or photochemical, the core atmospheric precursors driving smog formation are the Oxides of nitrogen and sulfur (Option D).
Question 137General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

The Global-500 Award is given for rare achievement in which of the following fields?

ग्लोबल-500 पुरस्कार निम्नलिखित में से किस क्षेत्र में दुर्लभ उपलब्धि के लिए दिया जाता है?

A
Gene preservation
जीन संरक्षण
B
Environment conservation
पर्यावरण संरक्षण
Correct Option
C
Population control
जनसंख्या नियंत्रण
D
Pollution contral
प्रदूषण नियंत्रण
Explanation:

The Global-500 Award (Global 500 Roll of Honour):

  • The Global 500 Roll of Honour was a prestigious international environmental award instituted in 1987 by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  • Purpose: Conferred for rare, outstanding achievements in the field of Environment conservation and environmental protection (honoring individuals and organizations who demonstrated heroic grassroots action to defend the planet).
  • Prominent Indian Laureates: Prominent environmental stalwarts from India honored with the Global 500 Award include:
  • Chandi Prasad Bhatt and Sunderlal Bahuguna (leaders of the Chipko Movement in Uttarakhand).
  • Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (eminent agricultural scientist and biodiversity conservationist).
  • Medha Patkar (Narmada Bachao Andolan).
  • Anil Agarwal (founder of the Centre for Science and Environment [CSE]).
  • In 2005, UNEP succeeded the Global 500 Roll of Honour with the Champions of the Earth award.
Question 138Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

Astronomically, a 'Black Hole' is defined as which of the following?

खगोल भौतिकी में 'ब्लैक होल' (Black Hole) को निम्नलिखित में से किस रूप में परिभाषित किया जाता है?

A
a flight recorder in aeroplane
हवाई जहाज में एक उड़ान रिकॉर्डर
B
a spot on the sun
सूर्य पर एक धब्बा
C
a place in Antarctica
अंटार्कटिका में एक जगह
D
a collapsed star 25
एक टूटा हुआ तारा 25
Correct Option
Explanation:

Astrophysical nature of a Black Hole:

  • In astrophysics, a Black Hole is a collapsed star (an astronomical object of extraordinarily high density and gravitational pull formed from the ultimate gravitational collapse of a massive star).
  • Formation Mechanism: When a massive star with a mass exceeding the Chandrasekhar Limit (and the Tolman-Oppenheimer-Volkoff limit, typically stars with initial mass > 20 times the Sun) exhausts its nuclear fuel, inward gravitational collapse overwhelms electron and neutron degeneracy pressure. The entire core collapses into an infinitesimal point of infinite density called a gravitational singularity.
  • Surrounding the singularity is an imaginary boundary known as the Event Horizon, from within which nothing—not even electromagnetic radiation (light) traveling at 300,000 km/s—can escape the immense gravitational pull, rendering it completely 'black'.
  • Other options: Flight recorder in an airplane is the 'Black Box' (which is painted bright orange); sunspots are temporary dark spots of intense magnetic field on the photosphere.
Question 139Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

The most biodiversity-rich biogeographical area in India is which of the following?

भारत में सर्वाधिक जैव विविधता वाला क्षेत्र है

A
Gangetic plain
गंगा का मैदान
B
Trans Himalayas
ट्रांस हिमालय
C
Western Ghats
पश्चिमी घाट
Correct Option
D
Central India
मध्य भारत
Explanation:

Most biodiversity-rich geographical area in India:

  • Among the options, the Western Ghats (Sahyadri) is the most biodiversity-rich area in India.
  • Global Biodiversity Hotspot: The Western Ghats is officially recognized as one of the world's 36 global biodiversity hotspots and an internationally recognized UNESCO World Heritage Site (inscribed in 2012).
  • High Endemism: Covering a 1,600 km mountain chain along India's western coast, the Western Ghats harbors over 7,400 species of flowering plants (over 38% of which are strictly endemic), 500 bird species, 139 mammal species, 179 amphibian species (>80% endemic, e.g. Purple Frog), and rich tropical rainforest ecosystems (e.g. Silent Valley).
  • India contains four global biodiversity hotspots:
  1. The Western Ghats
  2. The Himalayas
  3. Indo-Burma (Northeastern India south of Brahmaputra)
  4. Sundaland (Nicobar Islands).
  • In contrast: The Gangetic plain is intensively cultivated with low endemic diversity; Trans-Himalayas is an arid cold desert; Central India consists of dry deciduous forest.
Question 140Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Which of the following is a Nodal Institution for implementation of Sustainable Development Goals in India?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारत में सतत विकास लक्ष्यों के कार्यान्वयन के लिए एक नोडल संस्थान है?

A
Planning Commission
योजना आयोग
B
Disinvestment Commission
विनिवेश आयोग
C
NITI Aayog
नीति आयोग
Correct Option
D
Finance Commission
वित्त आयोग
Explanation:

Nodal Institution for the implementation of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in India:

  • NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the designated Nodal Institution entrusted by the Government of India with the overall responsibility for coordinating, monitoring, and implementing the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs 2030) in India.
  • Key Responsibilities of NITI Aayog:
  1. Mapping all 17 SDGs and 169 targets across Central Ministries, Centrally Sponsored Schemes, and flagship government initiatives.
  2. Formulating the national monitoring framework in collaboration with the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
  3. Publishing the annual SDG India Index & Dashboard (since 2018), ranking all States and Union Territories on their progress across social, economic, and environmental targets to foster competitive and cooperative federalism.
Question 141Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Arrange the following Committees formed for small scale sector in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below. I. Nayak Committee 2. Abid Hussain Committee 3. S.S. Kohli Committee 4. Karve Committee Codes:

निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार कीजिए और उन्हें सही कालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 2. Abid Hussain Committee 3. S.S. Kohli Committee 4. Karve Committee Codes:

A
I, II, IV, III
मैं, द्वितीय, चतुर्थ, तृतीय
B
III, II, I, IV
तृतीय, द्वितीय, मैं, चतुर्थ
C
IV, II, I, III
चतुर्थ, द्वितीय, मैं, तृतीय
Correct Option
D
I, II, III, IV
मैं, द्वितीय, तृतीय, चतुर्थ
Explanation:

Chronological order of government committees on the Small-Scale Sector in India:

  1. Karve Committee (Village and Small Scale Industries Committee): Appointed in 1955 by the Planning Commission (chaired by D.G. Karve) to promote rural industrialization and recommend the promotion and reservation of products for small-scale and cottage industries during the Second Five Year Plan (IV).
  2. Nayak Committee: Constituted in 1991 by the Reserve Bank of India (chaired by P.R. Nayak, reporting in 1992) to examine the adequacy of institutional credit to the Small Scale Industries (SSI) sector and working capital requirements (I).
  3. Abid Hussain Committee: Appointed in 1995 by the Ministry of Industry (reporting in 1997), recommending sweeping reforms including de-reservation of items reserved for SSIs, upgrading technology, and raising investment limits to facilitate globalization (II).
  4. S.S. Kohli Committee: Constituted in 2000 by the Reserve Bank of India (chaired by S.S. Kohli, CMD of Punjab National Bank), to examine the growing sickness in small-scale industries and suggest rehabilitation guidelines for reviving non-viable SSI units (III).

Chronological order: IV (1955) -> I (1991-92) -> II (1997) -> III (2000) (Option C).

Question 142History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: | List-I (Programme) | List-II (Launch Year) | | :--- | :--- | | A. National Programme for Control of Blindness | 1. 1975 | | B. Integrated Child Development Scheme | 2. 1976 | | C. National Leprosy Eradication Programme | 3. 2005 | | D. National Rural Health Mission | 4. 1983 | Code: A B C D

सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (कार्यक्रम) सूची-II (शुरुआत का वर्ष) :--- :--- A. राष्ट्रीय दृष्टिहीनता नियंत्रण कार्यक्रम 1975 B. समेकित बाल विकास योजना (ICDS) 1976 C. राष्ट्रीय कुष्ठ उन्मूलन कार्यक्रम 2005 D. राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण स्वास्थ्य मिशन (NRHM) 1983 कूट: A B C D

A
1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4
B
2 4 1 3
2 4 1 3
C
2 1 4 3
2 1 4 3
Correct Option
D
4 3 2 1
4 3 2 1
Explanation:

National Health and Social Welfare Flagship Programmes and their launch years:

  • National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB): Launched in 1976 as a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme to reduce the prevalence of blindness through cataract surgeries and eye care infrastructure (A-2).
  • Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS): Launched on 2 October 1975 (on Mahatma Gandhi's 106th birth anniversary) to provide supplementary nutrition, immunization, and pre-school education to children under 6 and mothers through Anganwadi centres (B-1).
  • National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP): Launched in 1983 (succeeding the National Leprosy Control Programme of 1955) following the advent of multi-drug therapy (MDT) to eradicate leprosy (C-4).
  • National Rural Health Mission (NRHM): Launched on 12 April 2005 by Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh to provide accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare to rural populations, creating the ASHA workforce (D-3).

Matching: A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (Option C).

Question 143Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The labour force participation rate has been falling sharply in recent years for females in India. Reason (R): The decline in labour force participation rate is due to the improved family income and increase in education. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): हाल के वर्षों में भारत में महिलाओं की श्रम बल भागीदारी दर (LFPR) में भारी गिरावट देखी गई है। कारण (R): श्रम बल भागीदारी दर में गिरावट का मुख्य कारण पारिवारिक आय में सुधार और शिक्षा के स्तर में वृद्धि है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं और (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या है
Correct Option
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(A) और (R) दोनों सही हैं, परन्तु (R), (A) की सही व्याख्या नहीं है
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) सही है, परन्तु (R) गलत है
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) गलत है, परन्तु (R) सही है
Explanation:

Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) dynamics in India:

  • Assertion (A): 'The labour force participation rate has been falling sharply in recent years for females in India': True. National Sample Survey (NSSO) and early Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data documented that female labor force participation in India saw a persistent decline from ~32% in 2004-05 down to roughly 23% in 2017-18, drawing widespread economic attention to India's 'missing female workforce'.
  • Reason (R): 'The decline in labour force participation rate is due to improved family income and increase in education': True.
  1. Income Effect (U-Shaped Curve Hypothesis): In developing economies, as rural male and family household incomes rise, women from lower-middle households withdraw from arduous, low-paid distress agricultural manual labor due to social status considerations ('income effect').
  2. Education Enrollment: Rapidly rising female enrollment in secondary and higher education keeps young women aged 15-24 in schools and colleges rather than entering the active labor market.
  • Because rising family household prosperity and prolonged educational participation represent the two primary drivers pulling young women out of premature manual labor, (R) directly explains (A). Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (Option A).
Question 144Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

The Dependency Ratio in India is declining because

भारत में निर्भरता अनुपात घट रहा है क्योंकि

A
Population of 0-14 years is relatively high
0-14 वर्ष की जनसंख्या अपेक्षाकृत अधिक है
B
Population of 60 years and above is relatively high
60 वर्ष और उससे अधिक की जनसंख्या अपेक्षाकृत अधिक है
C
Population of 15-59 years is relatively high
15-59 वर्ष की जनसंख्या अपेक्षाकृत अधिक है
Correct Option
D
Population of 0-14 years and 60 years and above together are relatively high
Population of 0-14 years and 60 years and above together are relatively high
Explanation:

Declining Dependency Ratio and India's Demographic Dividend:

  • The Dependency Ratio in India is declining because the Population of the working-age group (15-59 years) is relatively high (Population of 15-59 years is relatively high - Option C).
  • Demographic Formula: The Dependency Ratio measures the ratio of economically dependent persons (children aged 0-14 years and elderly aged 60+ years) to the economically productive working-age population (aged 15 to 59 years):
Dependency Ratio = (Population (0-14) + Population (60+)) / (Population (15-59)) × 100
  • Why it is declining: Due to the rapid decline in the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) over the past two decades, the proportion of child dependents (0-14 years) has decreased, while the working-age population (15-59 years) has swelled to over 65% of India's total population.
  • A lower denominator-driven dependency ratio means fewer non-working dependents per earning worker, creating the historic economic window known as the Demographic Dividend (demographic window of opportunity for accelerated capital formation, savings, and GDP growth).
Question 145Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Which of the following Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) will target to water availability for all and its permanent management upto 2030 in India?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा सतत विकास लक्ष्य (एसडीजी) भारत में 2030 तक सभी के लिए पानी की उपलब्धता और इसके स्थायी प्रबंधन को लक्षित करेगा?

A
SDG-6
एसडीजी-6
Correct Option
B
SDG-7
एसडीजी-7
C
SDG-8
एसडीजी-8
D
SDG-9
एसडीजी-9
Explanation:

Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) for Water and Sanitation:

  • Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG-6) specifically targets: 'Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all by 2030'.
  • Core Targets under SDG-6:
  • Target 6.1: Achieve universal and equitable access to safe and affordable drinking water for all by 2030 (implemented in India through the Jal Jeevan Mission).
  • Target 6.2: Achieve access to adequate and equitable sanitation and hygiene for all and end open defecation (implemented in India through the Swachh Bharat Mission).
  • Target 6.3: Improve water quality by reducing pollution, eliminating dumping, and halving the proportion of untreated wastewater.
  • Target 6.4: Substantially increase water-use efficiency across all sectors.
  • Overview of other SDGs:
  • SDG-7: Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy for all.
  • SDG-8: Promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment, and decent work for all.
  • SDG-9: Build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and sustainable industrialization, and foster innovation.
Question 146Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Who has propounded the concept of "Limit to Growth?

"विकास की सीमा" की अवधारणा का प्रतिपादन किसने किया है?

A
Club of Rome
रोम का क्लब
Correct Option
B
UNESCO
यूनेस्को
C
Brundtland Commission
ब्रंटलैंड आयोग
D
Agenda 21
एजेंडा 21
Explanation:

Propounder of the concept of 'Limits to Growth':

  • The seminal concept of 'Limits to Growth' was propounded by the Club of Rome (a prestigious global think-tank of scientists, economists, and industrialists founded in 1968 by Aurelio Peccei and Alexander King).
  • The Landmark 1972 Report: The Club of Rome commissioned a team of systems scientists at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), led by Donella H. Meadows, Dennis L. Meadows, Jørgen Randers, and William W. Behrens III, who published the groundbreaking book *The Limits to Growth in 1972*.
  • Core Thesis: Using the innovative 'World3' computer simulation model, the researchers examined five interconnected global trends: rapid population growth, industrial output, agricultural production, depletion of non-renewable natural resources, and environmental pollution.
  • The report famously warned that if exponential economic and population growth continued unchanged without regard to Earth's finite carrying capacity, the limits to growth on our planet would be reached within the next century (around the mid-21st century), leading to sudden, uncontrollable ecological and economic collapse.
Question 147Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

The number of persons who remained unemployed for a major part of the year is called

वर्ष के अधिकांश भाग में बेरोजगार रहने वाले व्यक्तियों की संख्या कहलाती है

A
Usual status unemployment
सामान्य स्थिति बेरोजगारी
Correct Option
B
Daily status unemployment
दैनिक स्थिति बेरोजगारी
C
Weekly status unemployment
साप्ताहिक स्थिति बेरोजगारी
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

Classification of Unemployment by Duration:

  • In Indian labour and employment statistics (formulated by the National Sample Survey Office - NSSO, now under the Periodic Labour Force Survey - PLFS by MoSPI), the number of persons who remained unemployed for a major part of the year (specifically, for 183 days or more during the preceding 365 days) is termed Usual Status Unemployment (Usual Status Unemployment / Usual Principal Status - UPS) (Option A).
  • Three Standard Measures of Unemployment in India:
  1. Usual Principal and Subsidiary Status (UPSS) / Usual Status: Measures chronic, long-term structural open unemployment based on a 365-day reference period (individuals seeking work for a major portion of the preceding year).
  2. Current Weekly Status (CWS): Measures unemployment based on a 7-day reference period (a person is unemployed if they did not get even 1 hour of gainful work on any day during the survey week).
  3. Current Daily Status (CDS): Measures unemployment on a day-to-day basis across each half-day unit of the reference week (capturing seasonal underemployment and daily open unemployment).
Question 148Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), which of the statements is/ are correct? 1. Companies Act 2014, introduces mandatory CSR. 2. Companies covered under this will have to spend atleast one percent of their annual net-profit in the activities under CSR. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

कॉर्पोरेट सामाजिक उत्तरदायित्व (सीएसआर) के संदर्भ में, कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. कंपनी अधिनियम 2014, अनिवार्य सीएसआर पेश करता है। 2. इसके अंतर्गत आने वाली कंपनियों को अपने वार्षिक शुद्ध लाभ का कम से कम एक प्रतिशत सीएसआर के तहत गतिविधियों में खर्च करना होगा। नीचे दिए गए कोड का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें:

A
1 Only
केवल 1
B
2 Only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither I nor 2 27
न तो मैं और न ही 2 27
Correct Option
Explanation:

Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) legal provisions in India:

  • Statement 1: 'Companies Act 2014 introduces mandatory CSR': INCORRECT. Mandatory Corporate Social Responsibility was introduced by the Companies Act, 2013 (enacted in August 2013, which came into legal effect on 1 April 2014). The statute is the Companies Act, 2013 (Act No. 18 of 2013), NOT the 'Companies Act 2014'. India became the first country in the world to statutorily mandate CSR.
  • Statement 2: 'Companies covered under this will have to spend at least one percent of their annual net profit in activities under CSR': INCORRECT. Under Section 135(5) of the Companies Act, 2013, eligible companies are legally mandated to spend in every financial year at least two percent (2%)—NOT one percent—of the average net profits of the company made during the three immediately preceding financial years.
  • Applicability Criteria (Section 135(1)): Applies to every company having: Net Worth \ge ₹500 crore, OR Turnover \ge ₹1,000 crore, OR Net Profit \ge ₹5 crore during any financial year.

Therefore, Neither 1 nor 2 is correct (Option D).

Question 149Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) was formulated and developed by which economist?

जीवन की भौतिक गुणवत्ता सूचकांक (PQLI) किसके द्वारा विकसित किया गया है?

A
Morris D. Morris
मॉरिस डी. मॉरिस
Correct Option
B
UNDP
यूएनडीपी
C
Mehbub-ul-Haq
महबूब उल हक
D
None of the above
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Explanation:

The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI):

  • The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) was developed in 1979 by American economist Morris David Morris (Morris D. Morris) for the Overseas Development Council (ODC).
  • Purpose: Developed as a non-monetary, non-income alternative indicator to measure the social well-being and basic human quality of life across countries, critiquing Gross National Product (GNP) / per capita income which ignored poverty, health, and distribution of wealth.
  • Three Component Indicators of PQLI (each scaled from 1 to 100):
  1. Basic Literacy Rate (percentage of literate population aged 15+).
  2. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) (number of infant deaths per 1,000 live births, indexed inversely).
  3. Life Expectancy at Age One.
  • The PQLI is calculated as the simple arithmetic average of these three equally weighted component indices:
PQLI = (Literacy Index + Infant Mortality Index + Life Expectancy at Age 1 Index) / (3)
  • (Contrast: The Human Development Index - HDI was developed later in 1990 by Mahbub-ul-Haq and Amartya Sen for the UNDP).
Question 150General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

What is India's rank in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) in 2017?

वर्ष 2017 के वैश्विक भूख सूचकांक (Global Hunger Index - GHI) में भारत का कौन-सा स्थान था?

A
100th
100वाँ
Correct Option
B
101st
101वाँ
C
104th
104वाँ
D
105th
105वाँ
Explanation:

India's rank in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) in 2017:

  • In the Global Hunger Index (GHI) Report 2017 (jointly published by the International Food Policy Research Institute [IFPRI], Welthungerhilfe, and Concern Worldwide):
  • India's Rank: India was ranked 100th out of 119 qualifying developing countries with a serious hunger score of 31.4.
  • India ranked behind most of its South Asian neighbors in 2017, including Nepal (72nd), Myanmar (77th), Bangladesh (88th), and Sri Lanka (84th), ranking only above Pakistan (106th) and Afghanistan (107th).
  • Four Component Indicators of the GHI:
  1. Undernourishment (share of population whose caloric intake is insufficient).
  2. Child Wasting (share of children under age five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition).
  3. Child Stunting (share of children under age five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition).
  4. Child Mortality (mortality rate of children under age five).
  • (Note: India's rank in subsequent editions: 103rd in 2018, 102nd in 2019, 94th in 2020, 101st in 2021, 107th in 2022, 111th in 2023, and 105th in 2024).
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