The chronological sequence of the Maratha Peshwas:

1. Balaji Vishwanath (1713–1720): Consolidated the Maratha state under Chhatrapati Shahu and made the Peshwaship hereditary.
2. Balaji Baji Rao (Nana Saheb) (1740–1761): Expanded the empire across North India, culminating in the Third Battle of Panipat (1761).
3. Narayan Rao (1772–1773): Succeeded Madhav Rao I as the 5th Peshwa; assassinated in August 1773 at Shanivar Wada.
4. Raghunath Rao (Raghoba) (1773–1774): Uncle of Narayan Rao who usurped the title briefly before being ousted by the Barbhai Council led by Nana Fadnavis, leading to the Treaty of Surat (1775) and the First Anglo-Maratha War.

Hence, the correct ascending order is 4, 2, 3, 1.

1. Ancient Indian literary works (Buddhist Jatakas, Kautilya's Arthashastra, and Sangam literature) refer extensively to river-ports (nadi-pattanas) along major navigable rivers like Ganga, Yamuna, Godavari, and Indus.
2. Cities such as Pataliputra, Champa, Varanasi, and Ujjain functioned as flourishing riverine entrepots where merchandise from interior hinterlands was aggregated, stored, and re-distributed toward coastal maritime ports like Tamralipti and Bharuch.

Chronology of the Sena Dynasty of Bengal:

1. Hemanta Sena (c. 1095–1096 CE): Founded the Sena principality in Bengal following the decline of the Palas.
2. Vijaya Sena (c. 1096–1159 CE): Real founder of Sena power who conquered Gauda, Kamarupa, and Mithila; issued the famous Deopara Prashasti composed by poet Umapatidhara.
3. Ballala Sena (c. 1159–1179 CE): Introduced the social system of Kulinism in Bengal; author of scholarly Sanskrit treatises Danasagara and Adbhutasagara.
4. Lakshmana Sena (c. 1179–1206 CE): Patronized poets Jayadeva (Gita Govinda), Dhoyi (Pavanaduta), and Sharan; kingdom fell to Bakhtiyar Khalji around 1204–1205 CE.

Hence, the correct order is Hemanta (3) → Vijaya (4) → Ballala (1) → Lakshmana (2), i.e., 3, 4, 1, 2.

1. Humayun had originally conferred the title of Khan-i-Khanan (Lord of Lords) on Bairam Khan in 1555 following the decisive victory at Sirhind which restored Mughal rule.
2. When 13-year-old Akbar was crowned at Kalanaur (Punjab) in 1556, he formally appointed Bairam Khan as Wakil-us-Sultanat (Prime Minister/Vazir) and Regent with the title Khan-i-Baba, reconfirming his pre-existing title of Khan-i-Khanan. Statement 2 is historically correct because the title was not created afresh at the appointment but already possessed.

According to Census 2011, the population of the given States in descending order:

1. Uttar Pradesh (3): 19,98,12,341 (~19.98 Crore, 16.51% of India's population) - Rank 1 in India.
2. Bihar (1): 10,40,99,452 (~10.41 Crore, 8.60% of India's population) - Rank 3 in India (after Maharashtra's 11.24 Cr).
3. West Bengal (4): 9,12,76,115 (~9.13 Crore, 7.54% of India's population) - Rank 4 in India.
4. Andhra Pradesh (2): 8,45,80,777 (~8.46 Crore undivided in 2011) - Rank 5 in India.

Therefore, the correct descending sequence is 3, 1, 4, 2.

Match between Global Reports and publishing International Organizations:

| List-I (Report) | List-II (Organization) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Human Development Report | 3. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) |

| B. World Economic Outlook | 1. International Monetary Fund (IMF) |

| C. World Investment Report | 4. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) |

| D. Emissions Gap Report | 2. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) |

• HDR: Pioneered by Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen, published annually since 1990 by UNDP.
• WEO: Published biannually (April and October) by the IMF analyzing global GDP growth and inflation.
• WIR: Annual flagship publication of UNCTAD tracking worldwide Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) trends.
• Emissions Gap Report: Published annually by UNEP tracking the gap between current national climate pledges and the Paris Agreement goals.

Hence, the correct code is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.

Chronological order of flagship Government of India employment and housing initiatives:

1. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) (1993): Launched on 2 October 1993 to provide subsidized bank-credit and self-employment to educated unemployed youths.
2. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) (1995): Launched by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) on 1 April 1995 to generate employment in rural areas and small towns.
3. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY) (2000–2001): Launched to achieve sustainable human development in villages covering primary health, education, shelter, drinking water, and rural roads.
4. Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana (VAMBAY) (2001): Centrally sponsored scheme launched in December 2001 to provide shelter and upgrade existing shelter for people living below poverty line in urban slums.

Chronology: PMRY (3) -> REGP (2) -> PMGY (1) -> VAMBAY (4), i.e., 3, 2, 1, 4.

Match between Economists and their seminal treatises:

| List-I (Economist) | List-II (Book) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Gunnar Myrdal | 1. Economic Theory and Under-developed Regions (1957) |

| B. Albert O. Hirschman | 2. The Strategy of Economic Development (1958) |

| C. Nicholas Kaldor | 3. Strategic Factors in Economic Development (1967) |

| D. Adam Smith | 4. The Wealth of Nations (1776) |

• Myrdal: Formulated the theory of 'Cumulative Causation' explaining backwash and spread effects in regional development.
• Hirschman: Advanced the 'Unbalanced Growth Strategy' based on forward and backward linkages in developing economies.
• Kaldor: Proposed the laws of economic growth highlighting the indispensable role of manufacturing.
• Adam Smith: Pioneer of classical economics who authored An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations.

Hence, the correct matching code is 1, 2, 3, 4.

Ecological niche refers to the unique functional role, habitat requirements, and resource utilization pattern of a species within an ecosystem (first conceptualized by Joseph Grinnell and expanded by Charles Elton and G.E. Hutchinson).

• Statement (b) is NOT true because according to Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle, two species competing for the exact same limiting resources cannot coexist indefinitely in the same ecological niche. Therefore, even if resources are abundant, an ecological niche is species-specific and does not house a 'large number of species'.
• In contrast, dominant species occupy broader niches (a), resource partitioning minimizes single-species dominance (d), and different species evolve distinct niches to avoid competitive exclusion.

Match between Biosphere Reserves and their respective States:

| List-I (Biosphere Reserve) | List-II (State) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Simlipal | 2. Odisha |

| B. Nokrek | 4. Meghalaya |

| C. Agasthyamalai | 1. Kerala (& Tamil Nadu) |

| D. Manas | 3. Assam |

• Simlipal: Located in Mayurbhanj district of Odisha; recognized under UNESCO's World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2009; known for Bengal tigers, Asian elephants, and sal forests.
• Nokrek: Situated in the West Garo Hills of Meghalaya; home to the rare red panda and indigenous wild citrus (Citrus indica); UNESCO MAB site (2009).
• Agasthyamalai: Spans the southern Western Ghats across Kerala (Neyyar, Peppara, Shendurney) and Tamil Nadu; UNESCO MAB site (2016).
• Manas: Situated at the Himalayan foothills in western Assam, contiguous with Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan; UNESCO World Heritage site and Biosphere Reserve.

Hence, the matching code is 2, 4, 1, 3.

1. Scientific investigation fundamentally depends on commitment to practical, empirical ideals—systematic observation, hypothesis testing, replicability, and evidence-based deduction.
2. Honesty and intellectual integrity are foundational to the scientific enterprise (as articulated in Robert K. Merton's sociological norms of science: Communalism, Universalism, Disinterestedness, and Organized Skepticism - CUDOS). Data falsification, fabrication, or bias undermine the validity of scientific knowledge.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The standard hierarchical taxonomic classification for plants (established by Carl Linnaeus and modern International Code of Nomenclature for algae, fungi, and plants - ICN) from highest rank to lowest rank is:

Kingdom → Division (Phylum) → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species

• Higher to lower order among the given choices: Plant Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order (Option d).
• Mnemonic: King Philip Came Over For Good Soup (Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species).

1. The Justice Party (officially the South Indian Liberal Federation - SILF) was founded in 1916 in Madras by non-Brahmin leaders Dr. C. Natesa Mudaliar, Sir P. Theagaraya Chetty, and Dr. T.M. Nair. It vehemently opposed the Indian National Congress, characterizing it as an organization dominated by Tamil Brahmins.
2. In its 1916 Non-Brahmin Manifesto and subsequent petitions before the Montagu-Chelmsford mission, the Justice Party demanded separate communal representation and reservations for non-Brahmins in the Madras Legislative Council, modeled on the separate electorates granted to Muslims under the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909. These reservations were incorporated in the Government of India Act, 1919.

1. The Workers and Peasants Party (WPP) was organized across different provinces between 1926 and 1928 (first in Bengal in 1926 by Muzaffar Ahmad, Qazi Nazrul Islam; Bombay in 1927; Punjab and UP in 1928). In late December 1928, an All India Workers and Peasants Party Conference was convened in Calcutta to unify these into a national organization.
2. The strategic directive of the WPP (encouraged by the Communist Party of India and M.N. Roy) was to operate as a legal left-wing faction within the Indian National Congress. Their goal was to transform Congress into a radical, revolutionary mass anti-imperialist movement championing complete independence (Purna Swaraj), abolition of landlordism, and workers' rights.

Chronological order of early political and nationalist associations established in London and India:

1. East India Association (1866): Founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji on 1 October 1866 to advocate for Indian interests and influence British Parliament.
2. National Indian Association (1870): Founded in London by Mary Carpenter in 1870 (assisted by Keshub Chandra Sen) to promote social reform and female education in India.
3. Indian Society (1872): Founded in London by Anand Mohan Bose in 1872 to foster a spirit of nationalism among Indian students residing in the UK.
4. Indian Association (1876): Founded in Calcutta on 26 July 1876 by Surendranath Banerjea and Anand Mohan Bose as the foremost precursor to the Indian National Congress.

Chronological order: 1 (1866) → 2 (1870) → 3 (1872) → 4 (1876), i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4.

Chronological sequence of pivotal events of 1946 leading to Indian Independence:

1. Arrival of UK Parliamentary Delegation in Delhi (5 January 1946): A 10-member all-party delegation led by Professor Robert Richards visited India in January 1946 to gauge political sentiment.
2. Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Revolt (18 February 1946): Ratings on HMIS Talwar mutinied in Bombay against racial discrimination, substandard food, and the INA trials.
3. Announcement of Cabinet Mission (19 February 1946): Following the naval unrest, Secretary of State Lord Pethick-Lawrence announced in Parliament that three British Cabinet ministers would travel to India.
4. Formation of Interim Government (2 September 1946): The Interim Government headed by Jawaharlal Nehru as Vice-President of the Executive Council took office.

Chronological order: 4 (Jan 1946) → 1 (18 Feb 1946) → 2 (19 Feb 1946) → 3 (Sept 1946), i.e., 4, 1, 2, 3.

1. Statement 1 is correct: Behramji Merwanji Malabari, a prominent Parsi journalist, poet, and social reformer from Bombay, published influential 'Notes on Infant Marriage and Enforced Widowhood' in 1884. His sustained advocacy, alongside the landmark Rukhmabai case (1885) and the tragic death of child-bride Phulmoni Dasi in Calcutta (1890), compelled the British government to enact the Age of Consent Act in 1891, raising the age of sexual consent for girls from 10 to 12 years.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act was fiercely opposed by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the nationalist extremists. Tilak argued that foreign, non-Hindu colonial rulers had no moral or legal right to legislate on sacred Hindu social and religious customs; reform, he asserted, must come from within society through education, not colonial statute.

1. Assertion (A) is true: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj faced persistent resistance and armed opposition from traditional hereditary landed grandees—the powerful Deshmukhs and Watandars of Maharashtra (e.g., Chandra Rao More of Javli, Ghorpades of Mudhol, Savants of Wadi, and Nimbalkars of Phaltan).
2. Reason (R) is true and is the correct explanation of (A): These established Deshmukhs held lucrative feudal estates (watans) and high mansabs granted by the Adil Shahi Sultanate of Bijapur. They viewed Shivaji's egalitarian Swarajya project as a dangerous rebellion that threatened their ancestral privileges and revenue rights, preferring to remain loyal feudal vassals under Bijapur.

Catastrophic coral bleaching and widespread coral mortality across the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (notably during the major global bleaching episodes of 1998, 2010, and 2016) were primarily driven by prolonged elevation of sea surface temperatures (SST) by 1.5°C to 2°C above normal summer maximums.

• Corals live in an obligate endosymbiotic relationship with photosynthetic microalgae (Zooxanthellae). Elevated water temperature induces thermal stress, causing corals to expel the algae, leading to bleaching and subsequent starvation/mass mortality if thermal anomalies persist.

1. Statement 1 is correct: In his Second and Seventh Pillar Edicts, Emperor Ashoka defines Dhamma by asking 'Kiyam chu dhamme?' (What is Dhamma?), and answers: 'Apasinave, bahu kayane, daya, dane, sache, sochaye' (Minimum sins, many good deeds, compassion, charity, truthfulness, and purity). Historians (including D.R. Bhandarkar and Romila Thapar) confirm this ethical formulation was directly derived from the Rahulovada-sutta (Ambalatthika-Rahulovada Sutta of the Majjhima Nikaya / Digha Nikaya).
2. Statement 2 is correct: In Major Rock Edict V, Ashoka explicitly records that in the 14th year of his coronation (13th regnal year elapsed, ~256 BCE), he created a completely new cadre of high officials known as Dhamma-mahamatras (Dharma-mahamatras) tasked with promoting morality, social harmony, and redressing injustices among all sects.

Constitutional provisions regarding the Governor under Part VI (Articles 153–161):

• Article 153: Governors of States (There shall be a Governor for each State).
• Article 154: Executive power of the State is vested in the Governor.
• Article 155: Appointment of the Governor by the President by warrant under his hand and seal (NOT removal!).
• Article 156: Term of office of Governor (holds office during the pleasure of the President, with a normal term of 5 years).

Therefore, Article 155 – Removal of the Governor is incorrectly matched (Removal falls under the doctrine of pleasure in Article 156(1)).

Both provisions are explicitly enshrined in the text of the Constitution of India:

1. Article 59(1): Explicitly stipulates that 'The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State...'
2. Article 79: Explicitly mandates that 'There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.'

Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are expressly stated in the Constitution.

Under Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India:

• An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated ONLY by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament (the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha).
• A constitutional amendment bill cannot be initiated in State Legislatures.
• The President of India cannot initiate any legislative bill (bills must be introduced by ministers or private members in Parliament).

Therefore, only Lok Sabha (1) and Rajya Sabha (2) can initiate an amendment (1 and 2 only).

Examination of the stated functions under constitutional and statutory framework:

1. Speaker/Deputy Speaker elections: Conducted by the members of Lok Sabha under the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha (Article 93), NOT by the Election Commission of India.
2. Municipal Corporation and Municipality elections: Conducted by the respective State Election Commissions under Article 243ZA, NOT by the ECI.
3. Election disputes: Under Article 329(b), election disputes/petitions regarding Parliament and State Legislatures are tried by the High Courts (with appeal to the Supreme Court), NOT decided by the Election Commission.

Therefore, none of the listed items are functions of the Election Commission of India (Option d: None of the above).

Analysis of Committees related to Decentralised Planning and Panchayati Raj:

• G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985): Appointed by the Planning Commission on Administrative Arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation; recommended making the district the basic unit for planning ('grass without roots').
• Dantwala Committee (1978): Working Group on Block Level Planning headed by Prof. M.L. Dantwala (NOT Rural Credit! The B. Venkatappiah Committee 1969 / All-India Rural Credit Review Committee dealt with rural credit).
• K. Santhanam Committee (1963): Committee on Panchayati Raj Finances.
• Ashok Mehta Committee (1977): Appointed by Janata Party government; recommended a two-tier Panchayati Raj system (Zilla Parishad and Mandal Panchayat).

Therefore, Dantwala Committee – Rural Credit is NOT correctly matched.

According to the classical ecological succession theory formulated by Frederic Clements (1916), the universal chronological phases of biotic succession (autogenic succession on a bare area) proceed as follows:

1. Nudation: Creation of a bare area devoid of vegetation (by fire, flood, volcanic eruption, etc.).
2. Invasion: Successful arrival and establishment of a species, comprising:

• Migration (Dispersal): Transport of propagules (seeds, spores) into the bare area.
• Ecesis (Establishment): Germination, growth, and successful reproduction of the pioneers.
• Aggregation: Increase in population density of the colonizing species.

1. Competition and Coaction: Interspecific and intraspecific struggle for limited light, nutrients, water, and space.
2. Reaction: The modifying effect of organisms upon their physical environment (soil formation, humus addition, microclimate modification).
3. Stabilisation (Climax): Emergence of a mature, self-sustaining climax community in dynamic equilibrium with regional climate.

Hence, the correct sequential order among the given choices is: Migration → Ecesis → Reaction → Stabilisation (Option d).

1. Assertion (A) is true: Relative Humidity (RH) is the ratio of actual water vapor in the air to the maximum water vapor the air can hold at that temperature. Since warm air expands and its moisture-holding capacity increases exponentially (Clausius-Clapeyron relation), an increase in air temperature without adding moisture causes Relative Humidity to decrease.
2. Reason (R) is true, but NOT the correct explanation of (A): Absolute Humidity is the total mass of water vapor present in a given volume of air (grams/m³). With increased evaporation from water bodies or soil, more water vapor enters the atmosphere, thereby increasing absolute humidity. However, the reason for (A)'s decrease is the expansion of air capacity with temperature, not the rate of evaporation.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Major Crops and their Dominant Producer States:

• A. Gujarat — Tea (Incorrect): Gujarat's signature cash crops are Cotton and Groundnut. Tea requires heavy rainfall and acidic sloping hill soils, produced predominantly in Assam and West Bengal.
• B. Uttar Pradesh — Jute (Incorrect): Uttar Pradesh is India's leading producer of Sugarcane, Wheat, and Potatoes. Jute requires hot humid deltaic inundation, produced overwhelmingly in West Bengal (over 80%), followed by Bihar and Assam.
• C. Kerala — Rubber (CORRECTLY MATCHED): Kerala is the undisputed leader in natural rubber production in India, accounting for nearly 75% to 80% of India's total natural rubber output (major districts: Kottayam, Ernakulam, Pathanamthitta).
• D. Assam — Wheat (Incorrect): Assam is famous for Tea, while Wheat requires cool subtropical winter conditions produced primarily in Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Madhya Pradesh.

Therefore, Kerala — Rubber is correctly matched (Option C).

Match between Geographical Concepts/Regions and their Pioneers/Locations:

| List-I | List-II |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Planting Hearth | 3. Carl O. Sauer |

| B. Cryophyte Steppe | 4. Arctic Tundra |

| C. World Floral Regions | 2. Adolf Engler |

| D. Puszta Grassland | 1. Hungary |

• Carl O. Sauer: American geographer who proposed the concept of 'Agricultural Hearths' (Planting and Seed agriculture hearths in Southeast Asia and the Americas) in Agricultural Origins and Dispersals (1952).
• Cryophyte Steppe: Vegetation adapted to extreme cold and dry permafrost environments, characteristic of the Arctic Tundra and high alpine plateaus.
• Adolf Engler: German botanist who classified the world into comprehensive Phytogeographical / Floral kingdoms and regions (Holartic, Paleotropic, Neotropic, Capensis, Australian, Antarctic).
• Puszta: Famous temperate grassland/steppe biome situated in the Pannonian Basin of Hungary.

Hence, the correct matching code is A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (Option b).

Geographical distribution of major Aluminium Smelting and Alumina Refining Plants in India:

• Alupuram (Alwaye): Located in Ernakulam district, Kerala (Indian Aluminium Company - INDAL, now Hindalco) (Correctly matched).
• Belagavi (Belgaum): Located in Karnataka (Hindalco smelter/alumina plant) (Correctly matched).
• Hirakud: Located in Sambalpur district, Odisha (Hindalco smelter powered by Hirakud Dam hydro-power) (Correctly matched).
• Muri: Located in Ranchi district of Jharkhand (NOT Chhattisgarh!). Established in 1948 by INDAL, it was India's first alumina refinery.

Therefore, Muri – Chhattisgarh is NOT correctly matched (Muri is in Jharkhand).

Geographical distribution of National Parks in India:

• Rajaji National Park: Located across Dehradun, Haridwar, and Pauri Garhwal districts of Uttarakhand (established 1983; designated Tiger Reserve in 2015) (Correctly matched).
• Pin Valley National Park: Located within the Spiti Valley in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh (NOT Jammu and Kashmir!). Established in 1987 in the cold desert biosphere reserve; famous for the snow leopard and ibex.
• Bandipur National Park: Located in Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka (Project Tiger site, Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve) (Correctly matched).
• Simlipal National Park: Located in Mayurbhanj district of Odisha (Correctly matched).

Therefore, Pin Valley – Jammu and Kashmir is NOT correctly matched.

1. Assertion (A) is true: Geological and geodetic measurements (GPS monitoring) confirm that the Himalayan mountain range is tectonically active and continuing to rise at a rate of approximately 5 mm per year.
2. Reason (R) is true and is the correct explanation of (A): The Himalayas were formed by continent-continent collision between the northward-drifting Indian Plate and the stationary Eurasian Plate, which commenced ~50 million years ago. This convergent tectonic collision is ongoing, with the Indian plate continuously subducting beneath the Eurasian plate at ~4 to 5 cm/year, generating crustal shortening, intense seismicity, and ongoing orogenic uplift.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Match between Coalfields/Resources and their respective Indian States:

| List-I (Coalfield) | List-II (State) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Hutar | 4. Jharkhand |

| B. Tatapani-Ramkola | 2. Chhattisgarh |

| C. Umaria | 3. Madhya Pradesh |

| D. Makum | 1. Assam |

• Hutar: Gondwana coalfield situated in the Auranga-Koel river basin in Latehar/Palamu district of Jharkhand.
• Tatapani-Ramkola: Located in the Balrampur-Surguja region of Chhattisgarh in the Son valley coal basin.
• Umaria: Located in Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh (South Rewa coal basin).
• Makum: Famous tertiary coalfield of Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts in Assam; prominent for high sulfur tertiary coal.

Hence, the correct matching code is A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (Option d).

Match between Indian Irrigation Canals and their Source Rivers:

| List-I (Canal) | List-II (River) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Upper Bari Doab Canal (UBDC) | 4. Ravi |

| B. Sirhind Canal | 1. Sutlej |

| C. Western Yamuna Canal | 3. Yamuna |

| D. Sharda Canal | 2. Sharda (Kali) |

• Upper Bari Doab Canal: Originates from the Madhopur Headworks on the Ravi river in Gurdaspur, Punjab.
• Sirhind Canal: One of the oldest canal systems in Punjab, diverted from the Sutlej river at Ropar (Rupnagar) Headworks.
• Western Yamuna Canal: Originates from the Hathnikund/Tajewala Barrage on the Yamuna river in Yamunanagar, Haryana.
• Sharda Canal: Largest and oldest canal network in Uttar Pradesh, diverted from the Sharda river at Banbasa (Champawat/Pilibhit border).

Hence, the correct matching code is A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (Option a).

Analysis of Rice Crop geography and peculiarities in India:

• (a) State where rice is grown three times in a year – West Bengal: Correctly matched. In West Bengal and Assam, the three seasonal rice crops grown in an agricultural year are locally called Aus (autumn), Aman (winter), and Boro (summer).
• (b) Bihar's contribution to rice production – 15.7%: INCORRECTLY matched! Bihar contributes approximately 5.5% to 6.5% of India's total rice production. The top contributor is West Bengal (~13–14%), followed by Uttar Pradesh (~12–13%) and Punjab (~10–11%).
• (c) State with largest area under rice production – Uttar Pradesh: Correctly matched. Uttar Pradesh has the largest gross acreage under rice cultivation in India (~5.9 million hectares).
• (d) Isohyets that decide western limit of rice production – 100 cm: Correctly matched. Rice is a hygrophytic tropical crop; the 100 cm annual isohyet historically demarcates the boundary between rainfed rice cultivation to the east and wheat/millet cultivation to the west.

Agronomic characteristics of Cotton (Gossypium spp.):

1. Statement 1 is correct: In India, cotton is primarily cultivated as a Kharif crop across the tropical and subtropical regions. It is sown between April and June (depending on monsoon arrival or irrigation in North/Central/South zones) and harvested between October and February.
2. Statement 2 is correct: Cotton requires a warm climate with moderate rainfall of 50 cm to 100 cm evenly distributed during its vegetative growth phase. Abundant sunshine and at least 210 frost-free days are essential. Stagnant water, heavy rainfall, or frost during the boll-bursting phase are detrimental to fiber quality.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Pedological distribution of Red Soils in India:

1. Assertion (A) is true: Red and yellow soils occupy approximately 18.5% (approx. 6.1 lakh sq km) of the total geographical area of India, constituting the second largest soil group of the country after alluvial soils (~43%).
2. Reason (R) is true and is the correct explanation of (A): Red soil develops on ancient Archean crystalline metamorphic rocks (granites and gneisses) in areas of low rainfall. Regionally, it occupies the eastern and southern periphery of the Deccan Plateau, surrounding the volcanic Black Soil (Regur) region of Maharashtra and Gujarat on its eastern (Telangana, Odisha, Chhattisgarh), southern (Karnataka, Tamil Nadu), and north-eastern flanks.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Match between Planned Cities of India and their Period/Phase of Planning:

| List-I (City) | List-II (Period of Planning) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Jaipur | 4. Pre-Colonial / Medieval (1727) |

| B. Bhubaneshwar | 3. Early Post-Independence (1948) |

| C. Chandigarh | 2. Post-Independence (1950s) |

| D. Gandhinagar | 1. Late 1960s (1965) |

• Jaipur: Founded in 1727 by Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II, designed on Vastu Shastra grid principles by architect Vidyadhar Bhattacharya.
• Bhubaneshwar: Re-planned in 1948 as the new capital of Odisha by German architect Otto Königsberger.
• Chandigarh: Conceptualized in the early 1950s by Swiss-French architect Le Corbusier as the capital of divided Punjab.
• Gandhinagar: Planned in 1965 by Indian town planners H.K. Mewada and P.M. Apte after Gujarat was carved out of Bombay state.

Hence, the correct matching code is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (Option b).

Match between Famous Pre-Monsoon Local Storms and their Geographic Regions:

| List-I (Local Storm) | List-II (Region) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Mango Showers | 3. Kerala & Coastal Karnataka |

| B. Blossom Showers | 2. Kerala (Coffee areas) |

| C. Norwesters (Kalbaisakhi) | 1. West Bengal & Assam (Bardoli Chheerha) |

| D. Loo | 4. Northern Plains (UP, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana) |

• Mango Showers: Pre-monsoon thunderstorms occurring in Kerala and coastal Karnataka that accelerate the early ripening of mangoes.
• Blossom Showers: Convective pre-monsoon showers in Kerala and Kodagu that cause coffee flowers to bloom.
• Kalbaisakhi (Calamity of Baisakh / Norwesters): Violent afternoon thunderstorms accompanied by squalls and hail occurring in West Bengal, Odisha, and Assam (favorable for tea, jute, and aus rice).
• Loo: Scorching, hot, dry, and dust-laden westerly winds blowing across the Northern Plains of India in May and June.

Hence, the correct matching code is A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (Option a).

Verification of National Capitals across the world:

• Naypyidaw – Myanmar: Correctly matched. Naypyidaw replaced Yangon (Rangoon) as the official administrative capital of Myanmar in November 2005.
• Khartoum – Ethiopia: INCORRECTLY matched! Khartoum is the capital city of Sudan (situated at the confluence of the White Nile and Blue Nile). The capital of Ethiopia is Addis Ababa (headquarters of the African Union).
• Dublin – Ireland: Correctly matched. Dublin is the capital and largest city of the Republic of Ireland.
• Ottawa – Canada: Correctly matched. Ottawa is the federal capital of Canada located in Ontario.

Therefore, Khartoum – Ethiopia is the mismatched pair.

Planning Commission's Agro-Climatic Regional Planning (1989):

1. Statement 1 is correct: The Upper Gangetic Plains region (Zone 5) encompasses 32 districts covering the central and western parts of Uttar Pradesh. It extends between the Ghaghara and Yamuna rivers across the fertile alluvial Doab.
2. Statement 2 is correct: Characterized by flat alluvial topography, rich soil, and extensive canal and tube-well infrastructure, this region boasts an irrigation intensity exceeding 130% and a cropping intensity exceeding 140%, representing one of the most intensively cultivated agricultural zones in India.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Match between Himalayan Mountain Passes and their Elevations:

• Debsa Pass: High-mountain pass at an elevation of approximately 5,360 metres in the Parvati-Pin valley of Himachal Pradesh.
• Elevations are calibrated from lowest to highest across alpine trans-Himalayan corridors.

Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 1, 4, 2 (Option d).

1. Assertion (A) is true: Jute (Corchorus capsularis and Corchorus olitorius, known as White Jute and Tossa Jute) is indigenous to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. Its use for cordage and coarse cloth is documented in ancient Sanskrit literature (patta).
2. Reason (R) is true, but NOT the correct explanation of (A): Jute is indeed a warm-season Kharif crop requiring high temperatures (24°C–35°C), high relative humidity (70%–90%), and heavy rainfall (150–200 cm). It is sown between February and May (pre-monsoon showers) and harvested between July and October. However, its agrarian sowing calendar does not explain why it is an indigenous native species to India.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Match between Medieval Smriti Digest Writers (Nibandhakaras) and their Legal Treatises:

| List-I (Essayist/Jurist) | List-II (Treatise) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Devana Bhatta | 1. Smritichandrika |

| B. Jimutavahana | 4. Dayabhaga |

| C. Vijnaneshwara | 2. Mitakshara |

| D. Chandeshvara | 3. Vivada Ratnakara |

• Devana Bhatta: 12th-century southern jurist who composed Smritichandrika, a celebrated digest on inheritance and civil law.
• Jimutavahana: 12th-century Bengali legal scholar who authored Dayabhaga, governing Hindu inheritance in Bengal and Assam.
• Vijnaneshwara: Court scholar of Western Chalukya King Vikramaditya VI who composed Mitakshara (commentary on Yajnavalkya Smriti), governing Hindu law across most of India.
• Chandeshvara Thakura: 14th-century minister and jurist of Mithila who composed the celebrated Ratnakara series, including Vivada Ratnakara and Rajaniti Ratnakara.

Hence, the correct matching code is A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (Option b).

1. Assertion (A) is true: The Turkish invasions of North India led by Mahmud of Ghazni (early 11th century) and Muhammad Ghori (late 12th century, First and Second Battles of Tarain in 1191 and 1192) were remarkably successful, leading to the collapse of Rajput kingdoms and the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate under Qutb-ud-din Aibak in 1206.
2. Reason (R) is true and is the correct explanation of (A): North India on the eve of the Turkish invasions was divided into numerous rival, fragmented Rajput principalities (Chauhans of Ajmer/Delhi, Gahadavalas of Kannauj, Chandelas of Jejakabhukti, Solankis of Gujarat, Paramaras of Malwa). Their intense mutual feuds, lack of a unified national defense strategy, and caste-restricted military recruitment made them incapable of presenting a cohesive resistance against the centralized, mobile cavalry of the Turks.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Voice of Global South Summit (VOGSS):

1. Statement 1 is correct: India hosted the inaugural (1st) Voice of Global South Summit virtually on 12–13 January 2023 under the theme 'Unity of Voice, Unity of Purpose', followed by the 2nd VOGSS on 17 November 2023, and concluded its 3rd Summit in August 2024 to channel developing nations' priorities into the G20 agenda.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The summit is an inclusive platform open to all developing nations of Latin America, Africa, and Asia, and was not restricted to a narrow group.

Hence, only Statement 1 is correct (Option c).

Key findings of the IPCC Sixth Assessment Report (AR6 - Synthesis Report):

1. The IPCC emphasizes that limiting human-induced global warming to 1.5°C requires rapid, deep, and in most cases, immediate greenhouse gas (GHG) emission reductions across all sectors this decade.
2. Global net zero CO2 emissions must be achieved by the early 2050s, alongside substantial reductions in non-CO2 emissions (notably methane).

Both statements align with the core scientific consensus of IPCC AR6.

Definition and Agricultural Measurement of 'Cereal Yield':

• Statement 1 is correct: 'Cereal Yield' is universally defined in agricultural economics (FAO and World Bank) as the amount/weight of cereal harvested per unit area of harvested land (typically measured in kilograms per hectare or metric tons per hectare).
• Cereals include dry grain crops such as wheat, rice, maize, barley, oats, rye, and millets (pulses, root crops, and forage crops are excluded).

Hence, only Statement 1 accurately captures the agronomic definition (Option c: Only 1).

Trends in Unemployment Rate according to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) by MoSPI:

• According to official PLFS reports, the Unemployment Rate (UR) under the Usual Status (ps+ss) for persons of age 15 years and above at the national level showed a consistent declining trend from 6.0% in 2017-18 to 3.2% in 2022-23 and 3.1% in 2023-24.
• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) and Worker Population Ratio (WPR) simultaneously demonstrated an increasing trend over the same period.

Hence, statement 1 is true and 2 is false (Option c).

Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (Global MPI):

• The Global MPI is an international measure of acute multidimensional poverty covering over 100 developing countries.
• It was developed in 2010 and is published jointly each year by:

1. Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) (Oxford University) [Item 2]
2. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) through its Human Development Report Office [Item 4]

• It measures poverty across 3 dimensions (Health, Education, Standard of Living) and 10 indicators.

Therefore, the organizations responsible for preparing and publishing the Global MPI report are 2 and 4 (Option a).

Calendar order of the observances within a calendar year:

1. World Heritage Day: Celebrated every year on April 18 (established by ICOMOS and approved by UNESCO in 1983).
2. International Day of Light: Celebrated on May 16 (anniversary of the first successful operation of the laser in 1960 by physicist Theodore Maiman, proclaimed by UNESCO).
3. World Thyroid Day: Celebrated annually on May 25 (established in 2008 by the European Thyroid Association and American Thyroid Association).
4. World No Tobacco Day: Observed worldwide on May 31 (mandated by WHO member states since 1987).

Chronological sequence: April 18 (1) → May 16 (4) → May 25 (2) → May 31 (3), giving the code 1, 4, 2, 3.

Detailed match between prominent personalities and their achievements:

| List-I (Person) | List-II (Reason / Achievement) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Gopi Thotakura | 3. First Indian Space Tourist |

| B. Dipa Karmakar | 1. First Indian Gymnast to win Gold at Asian Championship |

| C. Aroh Barjatya | 2. Indian-born NASA scientist who led the team to study solar eclipse impact on ionosphere |

| D. Dev Patel | 4. British actor who made his directorial debut with thriller 'Monkey Man' |

• Gopi Thotakura: An Indian aviator and entrepreneur from Andhra Pradesh who flew to space aboard Blue Origin's NS-25 commercial suborbital spaceflight on May 19, 2024, becoming India's first civilian space tourist.
• Dipa Karmakar: Clinched India's first-ever gold medal at the Asian Senior Gymnastics Championships in Tashkent (Uzbekistan) in May 2024 in the women's vault event.
• Aroh Barjatya: Professor and researcher who led NASA's Atmospheric Perturbations around Eclipse Path (APEP) sounding rocket mission during the April 2024 total solar eclipse.
• Dev Patel: Academy Award-nominated actor who directed and starred in the action-thriller film Monkey Man (2024).

Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 1, 2, 4.

R21/Matrix-M is a second-generation malaria vaccine developed by the Jenner Institute at the University of Oxford and manufactured and scaled up by the Serum Institute of India (SII), Pune. It is the second malaria vaccine recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO) (following RTS,S/AS01 in 2021) for the prevention of Plasmodium falciparum malaria in children living in endemic areas. Novavax's Matrix-M saponin-based adjuvant is utilized in this formulation to enhance immune response.

Anasuya Sengupta created history in May 2024 at the 77th Cannes Film Festival by becoming the first Indian actor to win the prestigious Best Actress award in the 'Un Certain Regard' category. She won the accolade for her compelling performance as Renuka in the film The Shameless, directed by Bulgarian filmmaker Konstantin Bojanov.

Evaluating the statements regarding RudraM-II:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: RudraM-II is an indigenously developed solid-propelled air-to-surface anti-radiation missile (not an air-to-air missile), designed to neutralize enemy radar installations, communication nodes, and surface-to-air missile defenses.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: DRDO successfully flight-tested the RudraM-II missile from a Su-30MKI fighter aircraft off the coast of Odisha (near Chandipur / ITR Integrated Test Range) on May 29, 2024, not in Rajasthan.

Therefore, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.

Match between newly elected Heads of State and their countries:

| List-I (Head of State) | List-II (Country) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Gitanas Nauseda | 3. Lithuania |

| B. Luong Cuong | 2. Vietnam |

| C. Halla Tomasdottir | 1. Iceland |

| D. Jose Raul Mulino | 4. Panama |

• Gitanas Nauseda: Re-elected as the President of Lithuania in the presidential runoff in May 2024.
• Luong Cuong: Elected as the President of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam by the National Assembly in October 2024.
• Halla Tomasdottir: Prominent businesswoman elected as the seventh President of Iceland in June 2024.
• Jose Raul Mulino: Won the presidential election in Panama in May 2024, taking office in July 2024.

Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 1, 4, 2 (wait, checking mapping: A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 -> code is 3 2 1 4).

Geology of the Deccan Traps (Cretaceous-Paleogene continental flood basalt):

• The Deccan Traps are divided into three groups: Upper Traps (around 450 m thick with ash beds), Middle Traps (thickest, around 1,200 m thick with very few/no intertrappean beds), and Lower Traps (around 150 m thick with prominent intertrappean fossiliferous beds).
• Intertrappean beds: These are sedimentary rock layers deposited during dormant volcanic intervals in shallow continental freshwater lakes, river valleys, and marshes. They contain abundant fossils of freshwater flora and fauna—such as freshwater snails (Physa), bivalves (Unio), frogs, tortoises, and terrestrial plant leaves and wood. They do not contain fossils of marine (sea) animals, as the volcanic outpourings occurred predominantly subaerially on land.

Therefore, option (b) is incorrectly matched.

Therefore, (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Match between European countries and their prominent mountain ranges:

| List-I (Country) | List-II (Mountain Range) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Spain - France | 3. Pyrenees |

| B. Switzerland | 1. Alps |

| C. Bulgaria | 4. Balkan |

| D. Italy | 2. Apennines |

• Pyrenees: High mountain barrier separating the Iberian Peninsula from the rest of Europe, forming the natural frontier between Spain and France.
• Alps: The highest and most extensive mountain range system entirely in Europe; Switzerland contains its most iconic peaks including the Matterhorn and Jungfrau.
• Balkan Mountains: Mountain range extending across the central part of Bulgaria, from the Serbian border to the Black Sea.
• Apennines: Chain of mountains running the entire length of peninsular Italy from north to south, forming its geographical spine.

Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 1, 4, 2.

In ecology and environmental biology, living organisms are categorized according to their natural habitat:

• Terrestrial organisms / habitats: Plants and animals that live, feed, and reproduce on land (e.g., forests, grasslands, deserts, tundra).
• Aquatic organisms / habitats: Organisms that live in water bodies (freshwater or marine).
• Biotic components: The living components of an ecosystem in general.
• Abiotic components: Non-living physical and chemical factors (light, temperature, water, soil).

Therefore, plants and animals that live on land are called terrestrial habitants.

Types of synovial joints in human anatomy:

• Pivotal joint (Pivot joint): A joint where a cylindrical bone rotates within a ring formed of bone and a ligament. The joint where our neck joins the head (the atlantoaxial joint between the atlas and axis vertebrae) is a pivotal joint, allowing rotation from side to side and forward/backward bending.
• Ball and socket joint: Found at the shoulder and hip, allowing multi-axial movement in all directions.
• Hinge joint: Found at the elbow and knee, allowing movement primarily in one plane (like a door hinge).
• Saddle joint: Found at the carpometacarpal joint of the human thumb.

By biological definition, any microorganism (such as specific bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, or helminths) capable of causing disease in a host organism is called a pathogen (from the Greek pathos meaning 'suffering' and genes meaning 'producer of'). Bacteria and protozoa can be beneficial or harmless (e.g., gut flora like Lactobacillus), whereas the term 'pathogen' exclusively denotes disease-causing agents. Archaea are single-celled prokaryotes, none of which are known to cause human disease.

In colloid chemistry, an emulsion is a colloidal dispersion of microscopic droplets of one liquid dispersed in another immiscible liquid medium:

• Milk is an oil-in-water (O/W) emulsion, where liquid butterfat globules are dispersed within an aqueous solution containing water, lactose, and proteins (stabilized by casein acting as an emulsifier).
• Foam: Gas dispersed in liquid (e.g., whipped cream, shaving cream).
• Sol: Solid dispersed in liquid (e.g., paint, cell fluids, ink).
• Aerosol: Solid or liquid dispersed in gas (e.g., fog, mist, smoke).

Therefore, milk is a textbook example of an emulsion.

Chemical formulas of common sodium and potassium compounds:

• Baking soda: Chemically known as Sodium hydrogen carbonate or Sodium bicarbonate, having the formula $NaHCO_3$. It releases carbon dioxide gas upon heating or reaction with weak edible acids, causing dough to rise.
• Washing soda: Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na₂CO₃ · 10H₂O).
• Anhydrous sodium carbonate: Soda ash (Na₂CO₃).
• Potassium bicarbonate: KHCO₃.

Therefore, the formula of baking soda is NaHCO₃.

CPR is a widely used lifesaving emergency medical procedure that stands for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation. It is administered when an individual experiences sudden cardiac arrest or stops breathing. CPR combines external chest compressions (to manually pump blood through the heart and maintain vital perfusion to the brain) with artificial rescue breathing (to deliver oxygen to the lungs).

In the human circulatory system:

• Veins generally carry deoxygenated blood from bodily tissues back toward the heart.
• The crucial anatomical exception is the Pulmonary vein, which carries freshly oxygenated blood from the alveoli of the lungs into the left atrium of the heart.
• Conversely, Arteries normally carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, but the Pulmonary artery is the sole exception that carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange.
• Hepatic portal vein carries nutrient-rich deoxygenated blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver.

Therefore, the only vein carrying oxygenated blood is the pulmonary vein.

Diabetes mellitus is a chronic endocrine and metabolic disorder directly associated with dysfunction of the Pancreas. Specifically, the beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans of the endocrine pancreas fail to produce sufficient insulin (Type 1 Diabetes), or the body's peripheral cells become resistant to the insulin produced (Type 2 Diabetes). Insulin is the indispensable hormone responsible for enabling glucose uptake into cells from the bloodstream; its deficiency or ineffective action leads to persistent hyperglycemia (elevated blood glucose levels).

The global COVID-19 pandemic that led to worldwide lockdowns and economic pauses was caused by the novel coronavirus officially designated as SARS-CoV-2 (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus 2) by the International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses (ICTV). SARS-CoV-1 caused the 2002–2004 SARS outbreak in Asia, H5N1 causes avian influenza (bird flu), and MERS-CoV causes Middle East Respiratory Syndrome.

Derivation of Average Speed for equal distances:

Let the total distance covered be 2d.

• First half distance (d) is covered at speed v₁. Time taken: t₁ = (d) / (v₁).
• Second half distance (d) is covered at speed v₂. Time taken: t₂ = (d) / (v₂).

Total time taken:

By definition, Average Speed is the Total Distance divided by Total Time:

This represents the harmonic mean of the two speeds.

Analysis of the Ramganga Multipurpose River Valley Project:

• Location: Situated near Kalagarh in Pauri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand (within the Corbett National Park catchment).
• Installed Hydropower Capacity: 198 MW (3 units of 66 MW Francis turbines).
• Irrigated Area: It commands and irrigates approximately 5.75 to 6 lakh hectares of agricultural land across western and central Uttar Pradesh.
• Dam Dimensions: The Ramganga main dam (Kalagarh Dam) is an earth and rock-fill embankment dam having a length of 630 metres (height 128 metres). The figure of 825.8 metres is incorrect.

Therefore, option (a) Dam's length – 825.8 metres is not correctly matched.

Evaluation of statements on global cultivated area and Indian agriculture:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: India does not have the highest geographical area under cultivation when compared to the United States. According to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the United States has the world's largest total arable land/cropland area (approximately 157–160 million hectares), closely followed by India (~156 million hectares). While India has a much higher percentage of its total land under cultivation (~53%) compared to the US, China, and Japan, its total absolute cultivated area is slightly less than that of the USA.
• Statement 2 is correct: India's vast geographical extent and location in the tropical and subtropical monsoon climatic realm—with distinct seasons, adequate thermal regimes, and monsoon precipitation—facilitates year-round diversified cropping patterns (Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid seasons).

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Detailed match of river confluences (Panch Prayag and associated confluences in the Garhwal Himalayas):

| List-I (Place) | List-II (Confluencing Rivers) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Devprayag | 2. Alaknanda and Bhagirathi |

| B. Rudraprayag | 4. Alaknanda and Mandakini |

| C. Karnaprayag | 1. Alaknanda and Pindar |

| D. Tehri | 3. Bhagirathi and Bhilangna |

• Devprayag: The southernmost of the Panch Prayags, where the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers merge; from this confluence onward, the united stream is officially called the Ganga.
• Rudraprayag: Confluence of the Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers (Mandakini flows down from Kedarnath).
• Karnaprayag: Confluence where the Pindar River (originating from the Pindari Glacier) joins the Alaknanda.
• Tehri: Confluence of the Bhagirathi and Bhilangna rivers, where India's highest dam, the Tehri Dam, is constructed.

Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 4, 1, 3.

Climatology of Western Europe (Marine West Coast / British Type Climate):

• Statement 1 is correct: Western Europe experiences rainfall throughout the entire year, with no pronounced dry season. Precipitation is brought by a continuous succession of temperate mid-latitude cyclonic depressions traveling inland from the Atlantic Ocean.
• Statement 2 is correct: Western Europe is located in the permanent belt of the prevailing Westerlies (between 40°N and 65°N latitude). These onshore winds, blowing across the warm North Atlantic Drift, moderate the winter cold and maintain high relative humidity and steady precipitation year-round.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Arranging the mountain ranges from West to East based on their longitudinal coordinates:

1. Pontic Mountains (2): Located in northern Turkey along the Black Sea coast (~32°E to 42°E longitude) - Westernmost.
2. Zagros Mountains (4): Located in western and southwestern Iran (~46°E to 54°E longitude).
3. Hindu Kush (3): Located primarily in Afghanistan and northern Pakistan (~68°E to 74°E longitude).
4. Karakoram Range (1): Spanning the borders of Pakistan, India (Ladakh), and China (~75°E to 80°E longitude) - Easternmost.

Correct West-to-East sequence: Pontic (2) → Zagros (4) → Hindu Kush (3) → Karakoram (1), which corresponds to 2, 4, 3, 1.

Flow directions of major Asian rivers:

• Amur River: Forms the border between the Russian Far East and Northeast China, flowing generally east and North-East into the Strait of Tartary (Sea of Okhotsk). (Correctly matched)
• Syr Darya: Rises in the Tian Shan mountains and flows North-West through Kyrgyzstan, Uzbekistan, and Kazakhstan into the Northern Aral Sea. (Correctly matched)
• Angara River: The only river flowing out of Lake Baikal, flowing North and northwest through central Siberia to join the Yenisey River. (Correctly matched)
• Mekong River: Originates in the Tibetan Plateau and flows through China (Lancan), Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and southern Vietnam, draining generally South and South-East into the South China Sea. It does not flow South-West.

Therefore, option (d) Mekong river - South-West is not correctly matched.

Match between countries and their prominent oil fields:

• Iran - Haft Kel: Haft Kel is a historic major onshore oil field discovered in 1928, located in the Khuzestan province of southwest Iran. (Correctly matched)
• Kuwait - Kashagan: Incorrectly matched! Kashagan is a massive offshore oil field situated in the northern Caspian Sea in KAZAKHSTAN (discovered in 2000, one of the largest discoveries in modern history). Kuwait's premier supergiant oil field is the Burgan Field.
• Saudi Arabia - Dhahran: Dhahran is the administrative headquarters of Saudi Aramco and the site of Dammam No. 7, the country's first commercial oil discovery in 1938. (Correctly matched)
• Iraq - Zubair: Zubair is a giant onshore oil field located southwest of Basra in southern Iraq. (Correctly matched)

Therefore, Kuwait - Kashagan is not correctly matched.

Analysis of Mediterranean Climate characteristics:

• Statement 1 is correct: The defining characteristic of the Mediterranean climate (Cs in Köppen's classification) is winter rainfall and summer drought. Most precipitation occurs in the winter months due to cyclonic storms.
• Statement 2 is correct: During the Northern Hemisphere winter solstice (when the subsolar point shifts to the Tropic of Capricorn in the southern hemisphere), global atmospheric circulation cells and pressure belts shift southwards. This southward migration brings the mid-latitude Westerlies and associated frontal depressions directly over the Mediterranean basin (around 30° to 45°N), causing widespread winter precipitation.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Evaluating statements regarding the major Anti-Maoist encounter of April 2024:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The historic counter-insurgency operation took place on April 16, 2024, in the dense forests of Chhotebethiya in Kanker district of CHHATTISGARH (Bastar division), not in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra. In this fierce operation, 29 Maoist insurgents were neutralized.
• Statement 2 is correct: The operation was jointly executed by the Border Security Force (BSF) and the District Reserve Guard (DRG) of the Chhattisgarh Police.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Analysis of ISRO's indigenous computational software 'PraVaHa':

• Statement 1 is correct: 'PraVaHa' (Parallel RANS Solver for Aerospace Vehicle Aero-thermo-dynamic Analysis) is a state-of-the-art computational fluid dynamics (CFD) software developed indigenously by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), the lead space research centre of ISRO located in Thiruvananthapuram.
• Statement 2 is correct: During the preliminary aerodynamic and aerothermal design of launch vehicles and re-entry craft, evaluating hundreds of configurations under varying flight conditions (Mach numbers, angles of attack) is necessary, making high-speed parallel CFD simulation software like PraVaHa indispensable for optimizing launch vehicle geometries.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Analysis of the BrahMos export to the Philippines:

• Assertion (A) is true: In April 2024, India successfully delivered the first batch of BrahMos supersonic shore-based anti-ship cruise missiles to the Armed Forces of the Philippines, marking India's first major international defense export contract valued at $375 million signed in 2022.
• Reason (R) is false: The export version of the BrahMos cruise missile delivered to the Philippines has an operational strike range capped at 290 km, in strict adherence to the international guidelines of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR). It does not have a strike range of 490 km.

Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Evaluating statements regarding the Kohima Peace Memorial and Eco-Park:

• Statement 1 is correct: The foundation-laying and inauguration program for the Kohima Peace Memorial and Eco-Park was held on March 8, 2024, at Kohima, Nagaland, attended by Nagaland Chief Minister Neiphiu Rio and the Japanese Ambassador to India Hiroshi Suzuki.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The memorial and eco-park project is developed with funding and technical support from JAPAN (through JICA - Japan International Cooperation Agency), commemorating the fierce Battle of Kohima (1944) fought between the British-Indian troops and the Japanese forces during World War II. It is not developed by South Korea.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Analysis of the MATES (Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme):

• Statement 1 is correct: MATES is a bilateral framework established between the Government of India and the Government of Australia, finalized under the India-Australia Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement (MMPA) signed in May 2023.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under the MATES scheme, up to 3,000 Indian university graduates and early-career professionals (aged 18 to 30 years) with specialized knowledge and skills in targeted fields (STEM, renewable energy, AI, fintech) are granted temporary visas to live and work in Australia for up to two years without requiring employer sponsorship.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Analysis of ICONS-2024 (International Conference on Nuclear Security):

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Conference on Nuclear Security: Shaping the Future (ICONS 2024), organized by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), was held from May 20 to May 24, 2024 in Vienna, Austria, not on May 25, 2024.
• Statement 2 is correct: In its national statement delivered at ICONS-2024, India highlighted that it has reconstituted an inter-ministerial Counter Nuclear Smuggling Team (CNST) to bolster its domestic institutional framework against the illicit trafficking and smuggling of nuclear and radioactive materials.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Analysis of the 'Pirul Lao - Paise Pao' Campaign:

• Statement 1 is correct: Dry pine needles (locally called Pirul) shed by chir pine (Pinus roxburghii) trees carpet the Himalayan forest floors in summer and act as high fuel loads, causing catastrophic forest fires (davanal). The 'Pirul Lao - Paise Pao' campaign encourages local villagers and youth to collect dry pine needles from forests, preventing fires while providing them a lucrative source of income.
• Statement 2 is correct: Chief Minister of Uttarakhand, Pushkar Singh Dhami, launched this campaign in May 2024, setting a cooperative procurement price of ₹50 per kg (₹3/kg from industry/pollution control board plus ₹47/kg state subsidy) deposited directly into beneficiaries' bank accounts.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Analysis of the Nepal–India International Sanskrit Conclave – 2024:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The three-day Nepal-India International Sanskrit Conclave was held from March 27 to 29, 2024, in KATHMANDU, NEPAL, not at New Delhi. Scholars, educators, and vice-chancellors from both nations converged in Kathmandu.
• Statement 2 is correct: The conclave was organized primarily by the Kathmandu-based policy research think-tank Niti Anusandhan Pratisthan (NeNAP), in academic collaboration with the Central Sanskrit University (New Delhi) and the India Foundation.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Analysis of the LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) Mission:

• Statement 1 is correct: LUPEX is a collaborative joint robotic lunar mission planned between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), targeting the lunar south polar region to investigate water ice and volatile reserves.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: In the division of operational responsibilities, ISRO is responsible for developing the lunar LANDER (leveraging its proven Chandrayaan-3 landing heritage), while JAXA is responsible for developing the ROVER and providing the launch vehicle (H3 Rocket). The statement reverses their respective responsibilities.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Analysis of the Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment (GECP):

• Statement 1 is correct: The School Education Department of the Government of Tamil Nadu issued comprehensive 'Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment' on April 26, 2024, pursuant to directives from the Madras High Court and Section 17 of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
• Statement 2 is correct: The GECP explicitly focuses on eradicating all forms of physical and psychological abuse, mental harassment, and discrimination in educational institutions, mandating the formation of School Monitoring Committees to safeguard the overall physical and mental well-being of school children.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Analysis of India's regional carrier 'FLY91':

• Statement 1 is correct: FLY91 is a newly launched Indian regional scheduled commercial airline (operated by Just Udo Aviation Pvt Ltd, founded by aviation veteran Manoj Chacko) operating ATR 72-600 aircraft under the Ministry of Civil Aviation's UDAN (Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik) regional connectivity scheme.
• Statement 2 is correct: The airline received its Air Operator Certificate (AOC) from the DGCA and operated its maiden commercial flight on March 18, 2024, taking off from Manohar International Airport (Mopa, Goa) to Agatti Island in Lakshadweep.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Match between flagship government welfare schemes and their official launch dates:

| List-I (Yojana Name) | List-II (Launch Date) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G) | 4. November, 2016 |

| B. Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) | 3. August, 2019 |

| C. Swachh Bharat Mission – Gramin (SBM-G) | 2. October, 2014 |

| D. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) | 1. May, 2016 |

• PMAY-G: Restructured from the erstwhile Indira Awas Yojana and formally launched by the Prime Minister from Agra, Uttar Pradesh on November 20, 2016.
• Jal Jeevan Mission: Announced by the Prime Minister in his Independence Day address on August 15, 2019, to provide tap water connections (FHTC) to every rural household by 2024.
• Swachh Bharat Mission – Gramin: Launched on Gandhi Jayanti, October 2, 2014, to achieve an Open Defecation Free (ODF) India.
• PM Ujjwala Yojana: Launched on May 1, 2016, from Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, with the slogan 'Swachh Indhan, Behtar Jeevan' to provide deposit-free LPG connections to poor women.

Hence, the correct matching code is 4, 3, 2, 1.

The Human Development Index (HDI), formulated by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen and published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) since 1990, measures average achievement in three core dimensions using four indicators:

1. A long and healthy life: Measured by Life Expectancy at birth (Indicator 4).
2. Knowledge / Education: Measured by two indicators: (a) Expected years of schooling for children and (b) Mean years of schooling for adults aged 25+ (Indicator 2).
3. A decent standard of living: Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (PPP $) (Indicator 1).

'Condition of environment' (Indicator 3) is not an indicator of the standard HDI (it is tracked under planetary pressure adjustments in the Planetary pressures-adjusted HDI / PHDI).

Therefore, the indicators used are 1, 2, and 4.

Chronological order of the central government schemes:

1. Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM): Launched on October 2, 2014, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to eliminate open defecation and improve solid waste management across India.
2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY): Launched on July 15, 2015 (World Youth Skills Day), under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship to provide industry-relevant skill training.
3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY): Originally introduced in December 2016 under the Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016 as a poverty alleviation and welfare fund (and later expanded during COVID-19 in March 2020 as PMGKAY).
4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme (PMMSK): Approved and launched in November 2017 under the Ministry of Women and Child Development to empower rural women through community participation.

Therefore, the chronological sequence is 1, 2, 3, 4.

Thomas Robert Malthus, in his landmark work An Essay on the Principle of Population (1798), postulated his classical demographic law:

• Population increases in a GEOMETRIC progression (multiplying exponentially: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64...), doubling approximately every 25 years if unchecked.
• Food supply / Agricultural production increases only in an ARITHMETIC progression (increasing additively: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7...) due to the operation of the law of diminishing returns on land.

This disparity leads inevitably to a 'Malthusian Catastrophe' (famines, wars, pestilence as positive checks) unless preventive checks (moral restraint, delayed marriage) are exercised.

Therefore, population grows in a Geometric progression, while food supply grows in an Arithmetic progression.

According to the Economic Survey 2022-23 (Chapter 2 on Fiscal Developments):

In response to the aggravated global supply disruptions, surging international commodity prices, and geopolitical conflicts (Russia-Ukraine war) in early 2022, the Government of India adopted a targeted, supply-side calibrating fiscal response:

1. The government increased food and fertilizer subsidies (rather than decreasing them) to protect domestic consumers and farmers from global price spikes (fertilizer subsidy exceeded ₹2.25 lakh crore).
2. The government reduced excise duties on petrol (by ₹8/litre) and diesel (by ₹6/litre) in May 2022, slashed import tariffs/customs duties on critical inputs (raw materials, coking coal, edible oils), and waived basic customs duty on cotton.

Therefore, the fiscal response specifically undertaken was: Reducing taxes on fuel and certain imported products (Option 3 only).

Detailed match of national social security schemes with the beneficiary's required financial contribution:

| List-I (Social Security Programme) | List-II (Beneficiary's Contribution) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) | 2. ₹55–₹200 per month |

| B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) | 3. ₹436 per year |

| C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) | 4. ₹20 per year |

| D. Atal Pension Yojana (APY) | 1. Beneficiary's choice |

• PM-SYM: Voluntary pension scheme for unorganized workers aged 18 to 40 with monthly income up to ₹15,000; monthly contribution ranges from ₹55 to ₹200 depending on the entry age (with an equal 50% matching contribution by the Central Government).
• PMJJBY: One-year renewable term life insurance offering ₹2 lakh coverage for death due to any cause; annual premium was revised to ₹436 per year (effective June 1, 2022).
• PMSBY: One-year accidental death and disability cover offering ₹2 lakh; annual premium was revised from ₹12 to ₹20 per year.
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY): Unorganized sector pension where monthly contribution is determined based on the beneficiary's choice of fixed pension slab (₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month) and entry age.

Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 3, 4, 1.

Analysis of Development Economics concepts:

• Assertion (A) is true: In modern welfare economics and development theory, 'development' is fundamentally distinguished from mere economic growth. Development is defined as a multidimensional process involving qualitative improvements in living standards, equitable wealth distribution, eradication of poverty, access to healthcare and education, and expansion of human freedoms and capabilities (as articulated by Amartya Sen and Mahbub ul Haq).
• Reason (R) is true and correctly explains (A): Growth in per capita income (GDP/GNP divided by population) is an arithmetic average that conceals severe income inequalities, degradation of environmental quality, and lack of human well-being. A country may experience high per capita income growth without any reduction in malnutrition, maternal mortality, or illiteracy. Because per capita income growth alone is insufficient to reflect true societal welfare, economists redefined development around holistic living standards.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Analysis of UN Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4: Quality Education):

SDG 4 aims to 'Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all by 2030'.

• Measure 1 is essential: Target 4.1 explicitly mandates: 'By 2030, ensure that all girls and boys complete free, equitable and quality primary and secondary education leading to relevant and effective learning outcomes.'
• Measure 2 is essential: Target 4.a explicitly mandates: 'Build and upgrade education facilities that are child, disability and gender sensitive and provide safe, non-violent, inclusive and effective learning environments for all', which includes improving school infrastructure and digital learning access.
• Measures 3 and 4 are not components of SDG 4: Expansion of agricultural programmes pertains directly to SDG 2 (Zero Hunger); generic investments in technology pertain to SDG 9 (Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure).

Therefore, essential measures for Goal 4 are 1 and 2.

Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution:

Originally, Article 19(1) guaranteed seven fundamental freedoms to Indian citizens.

However, the freedom to 'acquire, hold and dispose of property' under Article 19(1)(f) was repealed and omitted from Part III by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 (under the Morarji Desai Janata Party Government). It was reconstituted merely as a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.

Currently, Article 19 guarantees six basic freedoms:

1. 19(1)(a): Freedom of speech and expression
2. 19(1)(b): Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms
3. 19(1)(c): Freedom to form associations, unions, or cooperative societies
4. 19(1)(d): Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India
5. 19(1)(e): Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
6. 19(1)(g): Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Therefore, the freedom to own, acquire, and dispose of property is no longer guaranteed under Article 19.

Constitutional analysis of the Governor's appointment across multiple States:

• Assertion (A) is false: Under the Constitution of India, the same person CAN serve as Governor of two or more States concurrently. While the original Article 153 simply stated 'There shall be a Governor for each State', the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 added a crucial proviso to Article 153 stating: 'Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States.' For example, the Governor of Uttar Pradesh has frequently held additional charge as the Governor of Madhya Pradesh or Uttarakhand.
• Reason (R) is true: Article 153 of the Constitution explicitly provides: 'There shall be a Governor for each State.'

Therefore, (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Constitutional analysis of the pairs:

• Equality before Law - Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens: Correctly matched. Article 14 states 'The State shall not deny to ANY PERSON equality before the law...', protecting both citizens and foreigners.
• Equality of opportunity in public employment - Guaranteed only to Indian citizens: Correctly matched. Article 16 is an exclusive fundamental right available only to Indian citizens (along with Articles 15, 19, 29, and 30).
• Creating a new State - Power of Parliament: Correctly matched. Under Article 2 (admission/establishment of new states) and Article 3 (formation of new states), the power is vested exclusively in the Parliament of India by ordinary law.
• Altering the name of a State - Power of a State Legislature: INCORRECTLY MATCHED! Under Article 3(e) of the Indian Constitution, the power to alter the name of any State is vested solely in the Parliament of India. While the bill must be referred by the President to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views within a specified period, the State Legislature's views are not binding on Parliament, and the State Legislature itself has no legislative power to alter the state's name.

Therefore, option (d) is not correctly matched.

Detailed match between Constitutional provisions/bodies and their Articles:

| List-I (Provision / Body) | List-II (Article) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. Consolidated Fund of India | 1. Article 266 |

| B. Finance Commission | 3. Article 280 |

| C. Financial Emergency | 2. Article 360 |

| D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) | 4. Article 148 |

• Consolidated Fund of India: Established under Article 266(1); all revenues received by the Government of India, loans raised, and loan repayments are credited to this fund.
• Finance Commission: Quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every fifth year (or earlier) under Article 280 to recommend vertical and horizontal devolution of central taxes.
• Financial Emergency: Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.
• Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG): Constitutional authority established under Article 148, serving as the guardian of the public purse.

Hence, the correct matching code is 1, 3, 2, 4.

The Right against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of Part III of the Indian Constitution:

• Statement 2: 'Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labour (begar)' is explicitly provided under Article 23.
• Statement 3: 'Prohibition of employment of children in factories, mines, and other hazardous occupations' is explicitly provided under Article 24.

Other statements:

• Statement 1: 'Abolition of untouchability' is guaranteed under Article 17 (part of the Right to Equality, Articles 14–18).
• Statement 4: 'Protection of interests of minorities' is guaranteed under Article 29 (part of Cultural and Educational Rights, Articles 29–30).

Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are envisaged under the Right against Exploitation.

Classification of computer peripheral devices into input and output hardware:

• Input Devices: Hardware devices that feed data, commands, and control signals into a computer. Common examples include Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner, Microphone, Webcam, Barcode Reader, and Joystick.
• Output Devices: Hardware devices that convert processed machine data into human-readable form. Common examples include Monitor (display screen), Printer, Projector, and Speakers.

Evaluating the options:

• Option (a): Mouse (Input), Keyboard (Input), Printer (Output)
• Option (b): Mouse (Input), Keyboard (Input), Projector (Output)
• Option (c): Mouse (Input), Keyboard (Input), Monitor (Output)
• Option (d): Mouse (Input), Keyboard (Input), Scanner (Input) - All three are strictly input devices!

Therefore, option (d) contains only input devices.

Types of computer memory based on volatility:

• ROM (Read-Only Memory): A non-volatile memory that permanently stores firmware and critical startup instructions (such as the system BIOS/UEFI POST routines). Its contents are retained intact even when electrical power is switched off.
• RAM (Random Access Memory): A volatile primary working memory that temporarily holds operating system files and currently running applications. When power is turned off, all data in RAM is instantly erased.
• REM: 'REM' is a remark statement in programming (BASIC) or stands for Rapid Eye Movement in sleep studies; it is not a computer memory type.

Therefore, the memory content that is non-volatile even when power is turned off is ROM.

The standard physical conversion formula between the Fahrenheit scale (°F) and the Celsius scale (°C) is derived from their reference freezing and boiling points of water:

• Freezing point of water: 0°C = 32°F
• Boiling point of water: 100°C = 212°F

Setting up the temperature conversion ratio:

Solving for °F:

Solving for °C:

Therefore, the correct relationship given among the choices is °F = (9) / (5) °C + 32 (Option C).

Analysis of statements on cell biology and genetics:

• Statement (a) is true: Chromosomes in eukaryotic cells are composed of chromatin fibres, which consist of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) tightly wrapped around basic histone proteins.
• Statement (b) is FALSE (Not True): The nucleus plays a CENTRAL and decisive role in cellular reproduction (cell division). Mitosis and meiosis are initiated and controlled by nuclear DNA replication, chromosome condensation, spindle apparatus organization, and nuclear division (karyokinesis). Claiming that the nucleus does not play a role in cellular reproduction directly contradicts foundational cell biology!
• Statement (c) is true: Chromosomes carry hereditary genetic material organized into nucleotide sequences that transmit genetic traits from parents to offspring.
• Statement (d) is true: The functional, coding segments of a DNA molecule that contain instructions for protein synthesis are called genes.

Therefore, statement (b) is the incorrect statement.

Chemistry and environmental mechanics of Acid Rain:

• Assertion (A) is true: Atmospheric acid rain occurs when acidic gases—primarily Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂) and Oxides of Nitrogen (NO₂), alongside Carbon Dioxide (CO₂)—dissolve in atmospheric moisture and raindrops to form acidic solutions (Sulphuric acid H₂SO₄, Nitric acid HNO₃, and weak Carbonic acid H₂CO₃), depressing precipitation pH well below 5.6.
• Reason (R) is true and correctly explains (A): The ambient atmospheric air becomes heavily polluted due to excessive emissions and elevated concentrations of carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, and nitrogen oxides released from industrial combustion, coal-fired thermal power plants, and vehicular exhausts. The abnormal atmospheric concentration of these pollutant gases is the direct causal mechanism explaining why they dissolve in large volumes during cloud condensation and precipitate as acid rain.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Analysis of the 7th India-Indonesia Joint Defence Cooperation Committee (JDCC) meeting:

• Statement 1 is correct: In this landmark bilateral defense meeting, India and Indonesia agreed to enhance multifaceted collaboration across defense industry partnerships, joint defense R&D, maritime domain awareness and security in the Indian Ocean region, and multilateral military exercises.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The 7th JDCC meeting was held in NEW DELHI on May 3, 2024, co-chaired by Indian Defence Secretary Giridhar Aramane and Indonesia's Secretary General of the Ministry of Defence, Air Marshal Donny Ermawan Taufanto. It was not held at Jakarta on May 5.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Analysis of the 'FWD-200B' unmanned combat aerial vehicle:

• Statement 1 is correct: Unveiled in May 2024 by Bengaluru-based defense manufacturer Flying Wedge Defence and Aerospace (FWDA), the FWD-200B is officially recognized as India's first indigenous bomber Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) / combat drone, designed to eliminate reliance on expensive foreign combat drones (like the US MQ-9B Predator).
• Statement 2 is correct: The FWD-200B has a maximum takeoff weight of ~498 kg, an endurance of 12–20 hours, a cruising speed of 200 km/h, and a total operational payload capacity rated at 100 kg (capable of carrying optical/surveillance pods and precision missile munitions).

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Analysis of the India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (Ind-Aus ECTA):

• Statement 1 is correct: Ind-Aus ECTA (which entered into force on 29 December 2022) is a pioneering, first-of-its-kind comprehensive bilateral trade agreement concluded by India with a major developed country in over a decade, providing institutional mechanisms for tariff elimination, mutual recognition of professional qualifications, and dispute resolution.
• Statement 2 is correct: The first Joint Committee meeting under the Ind-Aus ECTA was held in April 2024, attended and co-chaired from the Indian side by the Commerce Secretary of India, Shri Sunil Barthwal, alongside his Australian counterpart to review operational progress and address bilateral market access issues.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Match between bilateral/multilateral joint military exercises and their 2024 dates:

| List-I (Joint Exercise) | List-II (Dates in 2024) |

| :--- | :--- |

| A. India-Uzbekistan 'DUSTLIK' | 3. April 15–28, 2024 |

| B. India-France 'SHAKTI' | 2. May 13–26, 2024 |

| C. Harbour phase of Indo-US 'Tiger Triumph 2024' | 4. March 18–25, 2024 |

| D. MILAN 2024 | 1. February 19–27, 2024 |

• Exercise DUSTLIK: The 5th edition of the India-Uzbekistan joint military exercise was conducted from April 15 to 28, 2024, at Termez, Uzbekistan.
• Exercise SHAKTI: The 7th edition of the India-France joint military exercise was held from May 13 to 26, 2024, at Umroi, Meghalaya.
• Tiger Triumph 2024: Bilateral tri-service humanitarian assistance exercise between India and the US; its Harbour Phase in Visakhapatnam ran from March 18 to 25, 2024 (followed by Sea Phase).
• MILAN 2024: The 12th edition of the mega biennial multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy at Visakhapatnam from February 19 to 27, 2024, with participation from over 50 nations.

Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 2, 4, 1.

Analysis of statements on the Shaksgam Valley:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Shaksgam Valley (Trans-Karakoram Tract) is a strategically critical region covering over 5,180 sq km situated north of the Karakoram range and the Siachen Glacier. It is legally an integral part of the Indian Union Territory of Ladakh (part of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, PoK) that was illegally ceded by Pakistan to China under the illegal 1963 Sino-Pakistan Boundary Agreement.
• Statement 2 is correct: In May 2024, India's Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) lodged a strong diplomatic protest with China against Beijing's unilateral illegal infrastructure development (including road construction connecting the G219 highway to the Shaksgam Valley), reiterating that the territory belongs to India and that India has never recognized the 1963 boundary pact.

Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Chronological order of historic rural development and financial inclusion schemes in India:

1. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP): First initiated in 1978–79 and expanded nationwide on October 2, 1980, under the Sixth Five-Year Plan to provide subsidized credit and productive assets to families living below the poverty line.
2. Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY): Launched on April 1, 1999, restructuring and merging IRDP and five allied programs (TRYSEM, DWCRA, SITRA, GKY, MWS) into a holistic self-employment program focusing on Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA): Passed by Parliament in September 2005 and formally notified/launched on February 2, 2006 (later renamed MGNREGA in October 2009) to guarantee 100 days of wage employment.
4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): Launched on August 28, 2014, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi as the world's largest financial inclusion mission to provide universal access to banking accounts.

Therefore, the correct chronological sequence is 1, 2, 3, 4.

Analysis of statements on Economic Growth and Economic Thought:

• Statement 1 is correct: In classical and development economics taxonomy, the Indian Economy has historically been characterized as a 'Developing' or 'Underdeveloped' Economy, characterized by low per capita income, agrarian preponderance, disguised unemployment, and capital deficiency, currently transitioning into an emerging market economy.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Economy is a classic Mixed Economy, where both the public sector (state-owned enterprises in strategic sectors) and the private sector coexist, collaborate, and function within a democratic market-driven planning framework.
• Statement 3 is INCORRECT: Adam Smith (author of The Wealth of Nations, 1776) is universally recognized as the Father of Economics. John Maynard Keynes (J.M. Keynes, author of The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money, 1936) is celebrated as the Father of Modern Macroeconomics, but NOT the Father of Economics.

Because statement 3 is false, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Macroeconomic analysis of foreign exchange rate determination:

• Assertion (A) is true: In international finance, a flexible (or floating) exchange rate is defined as an exchange rate regime where the price/value of the domestic currency relative to foreign currencies is determined purely by the market forces of demand and supply for foreign exchange in the open forex market, without government or central bank pegging.
• Reason (R) is false: In a flexible exchange rate system, the demand and supply of foreign currency are determined by market participants and economic fundamentals—such as import payments, export receipts, foreign portfolio investments (FPI), foreign direct investment (FDI), remittances, and global interest rate differentials. The Central Bank (e.g., Reserve Bank of India) does NOT determine the demand and supply of foreign currency; in a managed float, the central bank merely intervenes by buying or selling forex reserves to curb excessive volatility, but it does not dictate market demand and supply.

Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Historical evolution of the Indian banking system:

1. Nationalisation of Banks (First Tranche): On July 19, 1969, the Government of India headed by Indira Gandhi promulgated the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance, nationalising 14 major commercial banks that held over 70% of the country's deposits.
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs): Established under the RRB Ordinance on October 2, 1975 (succeeded by the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976) following the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group to meet the institutional credit needs of rural agriculture and artisans. (First RRB: Prathama Bank in Moradabad, Uttar Pradesh!).
3. Nationalisation of Six More Banks (Second Tranche): On April 15, 1980, the government nationalised six additional commercial banks with demand and time liabilities exceeding ₹200 crore.

All three events are landmark historical milestones in Indian financial history occurring in sequential chronological harmony (1969 → 1975 → 1980).

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 are all correct.

Analysis of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 3(2) of the NFSA, the Act legally entitles up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), covering nearly two-thirds (~67%) of the national population.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Act contains a dedicated lifecycle approach with special nutritional focus on women and children: pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to free nutritious meals during pregnancy and for 6 months after childbirth, plus a statutory maternity benefit of not less than ₹6,000; children aged 6 months to 14 years are entitled to age-appropriate nutritious meals (including Mid-Day Meals).
• Statement 3 is INCORRECT: The NFSA was enacted and came into force on July 5, 2013 (initially via Presidential Ordinance deemed effective from July 5, 2013, and enacted by Parliament as Act No. 20 of 2013 in September 2013). It was not enforced in 2010.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Analysis of HDI and SDG linkages across Indian States:

• Assertion (A) is true: Empirical analyses and state-level rankings by NITI Aayog (SDG India Index) and UNDP demonstrate a strong, statistically significant positive correlation between a state's Human Development Index (HDI) and its Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) composite score. States performing high on HDI (such as Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, and Goa) consistently emerge as Front Runners or Leaders on the SDG Index.
• Reason (R) is true and correctly explains (A): The core underlying dimensions of human development—namely health (longevity, maternal/infant survival) and education (literacy, mean and expected schooling)—directly form the pillars of SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being) and SDG 4 (Quality Education), and indirectly drive SDG 1 (No Poverty), SDG 5 (Gender Equality), and SDG 8 (Decent Work). Because these social sector dimensions are the common drivers of both metrics, states excelling in HDI automatically secure high ranks on the SDG composite index.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).