UPPCS / UPPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper (Answer Key & Hindi Solutions)
यूपीपीएससी / यूपीपीसीएस प्रारंभिक परीक्षा 2025 सामान्य अध्ययन प्रश्न-पत्र 1 (आधिकारिक उत्तर कुंजी)
Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission Combined State / Upper Subordinate Exam • UPPSC Combined State / Upper Subordinate GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D
150 MCQs
of 150 Total200 Marks
GS Paper120 Mins
Timed Arena-0.44 marks per wrong answer (1/3rd penalty)
per wrong MCQ| Parameterविवरण | Commission Standardआयोग मानक |
|---|---|
| Conducting Bodyपरीक्षा नियंत्रक आयोग | Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission (UPPSC) उत्तर प्रदेश लोक सेवा आयोग (यूपीपीसीएस) आयोग |
| Examination Nameपरीक्षा का नाम | UPPCS Prelims 2025 Solved Paper उत्तर प्रदेश लोक सेवा आयोग (यूपीपीसीएस) (UPPCS Prelims 2025) |
| Paper & Booklet Seriesप्रश्न-पत्र एवं बुकलेट सीरीज | General Studies Paper-I (GS) • UPPSC Combined State / Upper Subordinate GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D सामान्य अध्ययन प्रश्न-पत्र 1 • UPPSC Combined State / Upper Subordinate GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D |
| Total Questionsकुल प्रश्नों की संख्या | 150 Objective MCQs (Four Options A, B, C, D) 150 वस्तुनिष्ठ बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न |
| Total Maximum Marksअधिकतम कुल अंक (पूर्णांक) | 200 Marks (1.33 Marks per correct MCQ) 200 अंक (प्रत्येक सही प्रश्न पर 1.33 अंक) |
| Negative Marking Penaltyऋणात्मक अंकन प्रणाली (नेगेटिव मार्किंग) | -0.44 marks per wrong answer (1/3rd penalty) प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर -0.44 अंक (1/3 नकारात्मक अंकन) |
| Examination Durationपरीक्षा की कुल समयावधि | 120 Minutes (2.0 Hours) 120 मिनट (2.0 घंटे) |
| Medium & Languageपरीक्षा एवं प्रश्नों का माध्यम | 100% Bilingual (English and Hindi) द्विभाषी (अंग्रेजी एवं हिंदी - पूर्ण व्याख्या सहित) |
| Answer Key Authorityउत्तर कुंजी की प्रामाणिकता | Verified with Commission Final Master Key आयोग की अंतिम उत्तर कुंजी द्वारा शत-प्रतिशत सत्यापित |
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All questions below are presented in official serial sequence with verified Commission answer keys, bilingual Hindi translations, and step-by-step conceptual explanations. Use the subject filters or timed arena simulator to practice.
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विषयवार प्रश्न फिल्टर करें — अभ्यास को आसान और केंद्रित बनाएं
Authentic Questions & Verified Answers
Displaying 150 authentic questions with subject categorization and detailed explanations.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The interior part of Australia is desert and semi-desert. Reason (R): Northern Australia is situated in the temperate zone. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): ऑस्ट्रेलिया का आंतरिक भाग मरुस्थल और अर्ध-मरुस्थल है। कारण (R): उत्तरी ऑस्ट्रेलिया शीतोष्ण कटिबंध में स्थित है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The vast interior of Australia (the Outback) consists predominantly of arid and semi-arid deserts (Great Victoria, Great Sandy, Tanami, Simpson, and Gibson Deserts) due to the subsiding dry air of the subtropical high-pressure belt and the rain-shadow effect of the Great Dividing Range.
Northern Australia (including Arnhem Land, Darwin, and the Cape York Peninsula) lies between 11°S and 23.5°S latitude, placing it firmly in the Tropical Zone with a monsoonal wet-dry savanna climate, NOT the temperate zone. Southern and southeastern Australia lie in the temperate zone.
When the Environment (Protection) Act for the protection and preservation of enviroment was passed by the Government of india?
पर्यावरण (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1986:
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986:
- The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in 1986 (Act No. 29 of 1986) and came into force on 19 November 1986 (birth anniversary of Indira Gandhi).
- It was enacted under Article 253 of the Constitution (legislation for giving effect to international agreements) in the immediate aftermath of the horrific Bhopal Gas Tragedy (December 1984).
- It serves as an 'Umbrella Act' that coordinates the activities of various central and state regulatory agencies established under previous laws (like the Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981) and empowers the Central Government to set nationwide environmental emission standards, inspect industrial units, and declare Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs).
Therefore, the Act was passed in 1986 (Option D).
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Babur wrote Tuzk-e-Babri in Chagatai Turki. Reason (R): Turki was the official language of the Mughal Court. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): बाबर ने तुजुक-ए-बाबरी चगताई तुर्की में लिखी थी। कारण (R): तुर्की मुगल दरबार की आधिकारिक भाषा थी। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur penned his candid autobiography, the Tuzk-e-Babri (or Baburnama), in his mother tongue Chagatai Turki, a Karluk branch of the Turkic language family.
Persian (Farsi) was the official and administrative court language of the Mughal Empire. It was during the reign of Akbar that Tuzk-e-Babri was translated from Chagatai Turki into Persian by Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan as the Baburnama. Turki was never the official court language of the Mughals.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer by using the code given below the lists. List-I (Coal Field) List - II (Country) A. Appalachian 1. England B. Lancashire 2. Germany C. Ruhr 3. Russia D. Kuzbass 4. USA Code: A B C D
सूची- को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के 8. आदित्य LI 2. I7 फरवरी 2024नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। C. INSAT-3DS 3. 4 जुलाई 2023सूची-II[ सूची-II D. RLV-LEX-0] 4. 02 अप्रैल 2023(परिष्करण शाला) (राज्य) कूटःA. नायरा 1. असम A B c DB. मनाली 2. गुजरात to ; ; 5 हि
Detailed match between Coal Fields and their Countries:
| List-I (Coal Field) | List-II (Country) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Appalachian | 4. USA |
| B. Lancashire | 1. England (UK) |
| C. Ruhr | 2. Germany |
| D. Kuzbass | 3. Russia |
- Appalachian: Major bituminous coal basin stretching across Pennsylvania, West Virginia, and Kentucky in eastern USA.
- Lancashire: Historical industrial coalfield in northwestern England that powered the British Industrial Revolution.
- Ruhr Valley: Germany's primary industrial heartland and historical bituminous coal-mining region along the Rhine-Ruhr.
- Kuzbass (Kuznetsk Basin): One of the largest coal mining regions in south-western Siberia, Russia.
Hence, the correct matching code is 4, 1, 2, 3.
Which of the following rivers is/are tributaries of the Yamuna? 1. Chambal 2. Son 3. Betwa Select the correct answer using the code given below.
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी नदी/नदियाँ यमुना की सहायक नदी/नदियाँ है/हैं? 1. चंबल 2. सोन 3. बेतवा नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Chambal and Betwa (along with Sind and Ken) are direct right-bank tributaries of the Yamuna river. Son originates from the Amarkantak plateau in Madhya Pradesh and flows directly into the Ganges river near Patna in Bihar, not into the Yamuna.
With reference to the 'Non-Cooperation Movement' (1920-22), consider the following statements: 1. It was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in the backdrop of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Khilafat issue. 2. It was withdrawn after the Chauri Chaura incident. 3. The movement, for the first time, adopted the demand for Purna Swaraj (complete independence). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'असहयोग आंदोलन' (1920-22) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह महात्मा गांधी द्वारा जलियांवाला बाग हत्याकांड और खिलाफत के मुद्दे की पृष्ठभूमि में शुरू किया गया था। 2. चौरी-चौरा की घटना के बाद इसे वापस ले लिया गया था। 3. इस आंदोलन ने पहली बार पूर्ण स्वराज (पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता) की मांग को स्वीकार किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 following the Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala Bagh massacre, and Khilafat grievances, and called it off in February 1922 after violence erupted at Chauri Chaura. Statement 3 is incorrect because the movement sought Swaraj within the British Empire, whereas the goal of Purna Swaraj was officially adopted at the Lahore Congress session in 1929.
Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. Poona Pact 2. End of Civil Disobedience Movement 3. Gandhi-Irwin Pact 4. Second Round Table Conference Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code?
निम्नलिखित घटनाओं मे पर विचार कौजिए तथा इन्हें सही | 0, “दिल्ली सरकार के बायो-डीकंपोजर एवं स्प्रे कार्यक्रमए केee समझौता में व्यवस्थित कीजिए। संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही हे/हें?LR समता L. पराली को खाद में बदलने में मदद के लिए किसानों?
Correct Answer: Option (A) — 3, 4, 1, 2 Chronological sequence of Modern Indian History events: 1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact (5 March 1931): Signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Viceroy Lord Irwin, paving the way for Congress participation in the Second RTC. 2. Second Round Table Conference (7 September – 1 December 1931): Held in London; attended by Mahatma Gandhi as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress. 3. Poona Pact (24 September 1932): Agreement between Mahatma Gandhi (fasting in Yerwada Central Jail) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar regarding reserved seats for Depressed Classes in provincial legislatures. 4. End of Civil Disobedience Movement (May 1934): Suspended temporarily after Gandhi-Irwin Pact, relaunched in 1932, and formally withdrawn by the AICC at Patna in May 1934. Correct sequence: 3 → 4 → 1 → 2.
As per the India State of Forest Report 2023, which of the following districts in Uttar Pradesh had forest over more than 20% of their total area? 1. Bahraich 2. Chandauli 3. Shravasti Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
08. Ga-l को सूची- से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों . निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से विभाग उत्तर प्रदेश में सततनीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। विकास लक्ष्यों से संबंधित राष्ट्रीय संकेतक ढाँचा प्रगति रिपोर्टaa wa (राज्य) तैयार करता हे?(लौह अयस्क खदान) L. वित्त विभागA. गुरुमहिसानी L. झारखण्ड 2. शिक्षा विभागB. बैलाडिला 2. कर्नाटक 3. योजना विभाग
As per the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) by Forest Survey of India (FSI):
- Chandauli: Forest cover is 21.78% of its total geographic area (579.22 sq km out of 2,541 sq km).
- Bahraich: Forest cover is 12.92% (630.93 sq km out of 4,868 sq km).
- Shravasti: Forest cover is 12.44% (204.09 sq km out of 1,640 sq km).
Only three districts in Uttar Pradesh possess forest cover exceeding 20% of their total geographical area: Sonbhadra (35.29%), Chandauli (21.78%), and Mirzapur (20.36%).
Among the given choices, only Chandauli (statement 2) satisfies the condition of >20%. In UPPSC key variants where options are keyed against single-choice or specific subsets, candidate evaluation relies on identifying Chandauli as the sole >20% district among the three.
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (Coal Producing Area) (State) 1. Maolong - Arunachal Pradesh 2. Raniganj - West Bengal 3. Ramgarh - Jharkhand 4. Talcher - Odisha Select the correct answer from the c odegiven below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित है/हैं? (कोयला उत्पादक क्षेत्र) (राज्य) 1. मावलोंग - अरुणाचल प्रदेश 2. रानीगंज - पश्चिम बंगाल 3. रामगढ़ - झारखंड 4. तलचर - ओडिशा नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Evaluation of Coal Producing Areas and States:
- Maolong (Mawlong): Located in the East Khasi Hills / South Garo Hills of Meghalaya, NOT Arunachal Pradesh (Arunachal's primary coal area is Namchik-Namphuk). Thus, pair 1 is INCORRECTLY matched.
- Raniganj: Historic Gondwana coalfield located in the Damodar Valley of West Bengal (birthplace of commercial coal mining in India in 1774). Pair 2 is CORRECT.
- Ramgarh: Important coal basin situated in the Damodar Valley of Jharkhand. Pair 3 is CORRECT.
- Talcher: Major coal basin in the Mahanadi Valley in the Angul district of Odisha. Pair 4 is CORRECT.
Therefore, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.
Uttar Pradesh possesses coal reserves concentrated exclusively in the Singrauli coalfield region of Sonbhadra district, feeding mega thermal power stations like NTPC Singrauli, Anpara, and Obra.
Arunachal Pradesh's famous coalfield is Namchik-Namphuk; Mawlong/Cherrapunji belongs to Meghalaya.
- Raniganj: West Bengal (oldest coal mine in India, 1774)
- Talcher: Odisha (Mahanadi Coalfields Limited)
- Ramgarh: Jharkhand (Central Coalfields Limited)
- Namchik-Namphuk: Arunachal Pradesh
Pair 1 is false because Maolong is in Meghalaya. Eliminating 1 immediately discards options (a), (c), and (d), leaving (b) Only 2, 3 and 4.
With reference to 'Delhi Government\'s Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Bio-decomposer solution is provided free of cost to farmers to help convert stubble into manure. 2. The Bio-decomposer solution is prepared using a mix of several fungi. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
'दिल्ली सरकार के बायो-डीकंपोज़र और छिड़काव कार्यक्रम' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. किसानों को पराली को खाद में बदलने में मदद के लिए बायो-डीकंपोज़र घोल निःशुल्क प्रदान किया जाता है। 2. बायो-डीकंपोज़र घोल कई कवकों (फंगस) के मिश्रण से तैयार किया जाता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Both statements are correct:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Government of Delhi launched its free bio-decomposer spraying initiative for farmers across non-basmati and basmati paddy fields in rural Delhi to prevent stubble burning (parali burning) and promote in-situ decomposition into organic manure.
- Statement 2 is correct: The bio-decomposer (popularly known as the Pusa Bio-decomposer, developed by the ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi) is a fungal consortium comprising seven distinct species of fungi (including Aspergillus nidulans, Trichoderma viride, and Phanerochaete chrysosporium) that secrete potent cellulolytic, pectinolytic, and lignolytic enzymes to break down tough paddy straw in 20–25 days.
With reference to creation of new All India Service, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In the national interest, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution for creation of new All India Service. 2. The resolution for creation of new All India Service must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-third majority of the total members of the house. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नई अखिल भारतीय सेवा के सृजन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. राष्ट्रीय हित में, राज्य सभा नई अखिल भारतीय सेवा के सृजन के लिए एक प्रस्ताव पारित कर सकती है। 2. नई अखिल भारतीय सेवा के सृजन का प्रस्ताव राज्य सभा द्वारा सदन के कुल सदस्यों के दो-तिहाई बहुमत से पारित होना चाहिए। नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Constitutional provisions regarding creation of All India Services under Article 312:
- Statement 1 is correct: If the Rajya Sabha declares by resolution that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest so to do, Parliament may by law create one or more new All India Services (including an All India Judicial Service) common to the Union and the States.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 312 explicitly mandates that the resolution in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, NOT two-thirds of the total membership of the House.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List - I (Disciple) List - II (Guru) A. Kabir 1. Guru Nanak Dev B. Amir Khusrau 2. Swami Ramananda C. Surdas 3. Nizamuddin Auliya D. Mardana 4. Vallabhacharya Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (शिष्य) A. कबीर B. अमीर खुसरो C. सूरदास D. मरदाना सूची-II (गुरु) 1. गुरु नानक देव 2. स्वामी रामानंद 3. निजामुद्दीन औलिया 4. वल्लभाचार्य कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between famous Medieval Bhakti/Sufi figures (Disciples) and their Gurus:
| List-I (Disciple) | List-II (Guru) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Kabir | 2. Swami Ramananda |
| B. Amir Khusrau | 3. Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya |
| C. Surdas | 4. Mahaprabhu Vallabhacharya |
| D. Mardana | 1. Guru Nanak Dev |
- Kabir: The 15th-century mystic poet was a prominent disciple of Swami Ramananda in Varanasi.
- Amir Khusrau: The 'Tuti-e-Hind' was the most devoted disciple of Sufi saint Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya of Delhi.
- Surdas: The blind devotional poet of Brajbhasha was initiated into the Pushtimarg sect by Vallabhacharya at Gau Ghat on the Yamuna.
- Bhai Mardana: A lifelong Muslim companion, rebec player, and disciple of Guru Nanak Dev.
Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 3, 4, 1.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Investment in human capital yields returns in the future. Reason (R): Education and health make people more productive. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): मानव पूंजी में निवेश भविष्य में प्रतिफल देता है। कारण (R): शिक्षा और स्वास्थ्य लोगों को अधिक उत्पादक बनाते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
According to classical and contemporary economics (theodore Schultz, Gary Becker), investment in human capital—primarily through schooling, skill training, and medical healthcare—yields substantial long-term returns in the form of higher income levels, technological innovation, and national GDP growth.
and provides the correct explanation: Education equips individuals with knowledge, critical thinking, and technical skills, while health enhances their physical stamina, cognitive longevity, and working days, directly making people more productive economic agents. Because higher productivity produces higher future returns, (R) is the exact causal explanation of (A).
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Refinery) List-II (State) A. Nayara 1. Assam B. Manali 2. Gujarat C. Numaligarh 3. Andhra Pradesh D. Tatipaka 4. Tamil Nadu Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (रिफाइनरी) A. नायरा B. मनाली C. नुमालीगढ़ D. तातीपाका सूची-II (राज्य) 1. असम 2. गुजरात 3. आंध्र प्रदेश 4. तमिलनाडु कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between Oil Refineries and their States:
| List-I (Refinery) | List-II (State) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Nayara Energy (Vadinar) | 2. Gujarat |
| B. Manali | 4. Tamil Nadu |
| C. Numaligarh | 1. Assam |
| D. Tatipaka | 3. Andhra Pradesh |
- Nayara Energy (formerly Essar Oil): Operates India's second-largest single-site private refinery at Vadinar in Devbhumi Dwarka district, Gujarat.
- Manali Refinery (CPCL): Located near Chennai in Tamil Nadu, operated by Chennai Petroleum Corporation Limited (a subsidiary of IOCL).
- Numaligarh Refinery (NRL): Located in Golaghat district, Assam, known as the 'Accord Refinery' established under the 1985 Assam Accord.
- Tatipaka Refinery: A mini-refinery operated by ONGC located in the East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh.
Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 4, 1, 3.
Which of the following is/are NOT a dimension of food security? 1. Availability 2. Accessibility 3. Affordability 4. Accountability, Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से खाद्य सुरक्षा का आयाम नहीं है/हैं? 1. उपलब्धता 2. पहुंच 3. सामर्थ्य (वहनीयता) 4. जवाबदेही नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
According to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the 1996 World Food Summit, Food Security is defined through four recognized dimensions:
- Availability: Sufficient quantities of food of appropriate quality supplied through domestic production or imports.
- Access (Accessibility): Access by individuals to adequate resources (entitlements) to acquire appropriate foods for a nutritious diet.
- Utilization (Affordability/Nutritional absorption): Utilization of food through adequate diet, clean water, sanitation, and healthcare to reach a state of nutritional well-being.
- Stability: Stability of access to adequate food at all times without risks of periodic shocks.
'Accountability' is a governance principle, NOT an established dimension of food security. Therefore, only statement 4 is NOT a dimension.
With reference to 'Silver articles', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Silver articles turn black after some time when exposed to air. 2. It happens due to coating of silver sulphide. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
'चांदी की वस्तुओं' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. हवा के संपर्क में आने पर कुछ समय बाद चांदी की वस्तुएं काली पड़ जाती हैं। 2. ऐसा सिल्वर सल्फाइड की परत चढ़ने के कारण होता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Chemical analysis of silver tarnishing:
- Statement 1 is correct: Shiny silver articles gradually lose their lustre and turn black when exposed to ambient atmospheric air over time.
- Statement 2 is correct: This blackening is a chemical corrosion process (tarnishing) caused by the reaction of silver (Ag) with trace amounts of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) present in the atmosphere, forming a thin, black surface coating of silver sulphide (Ag2S):
Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Mission) List-II (Date of Launch) A. Chandrayaan-3 1. 02 September 2023 B. Aditya L1 2. 17 Februaгу 2024 C. INSAT-3DS 3. 14 July 2023 D. RLV-LEX-01 4. 02 April 2023 Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (मिशन) A. चंद्रयान-3 B. आदित्य एल1 C. इनसेट-3डीएस (INSAT-3DS) D. आरएलवी-लेक्स-01 (RLV-LEX-01) सूची-II (प्रक्षेपण तिथि) 1. 02 सितंबर 2023 2. 17 फरवरी 2024 3. 14 जुलाई 2023 4. 02 अप्रैल 2023 कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between ISRO Missions and their Launch Dates:
| List-I (ISRO Mission) | List-II (Date of Launch) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Chandrayaan-3 | 3. 14 July 2023 |
| B. Aditya L1 | 1. 02 September 2023 |
| C. INSAT-3DS | 2. 17 February 2024 |
| D. RLV-LEX-01 | 4. 02 April 2023 |
- Chandrayaan-3: Launched by LVM3-M4 on 14 July 2023 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota; successfully landed on the lunar South Pole on 23 August 2023 (National Space Day).
- Aditya L1: India's first solar observatory mission launched via PSLV-C57 on 02 September 2023 toward the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1.
- INSAT-3DS: Advanced meteorological satellite launched via GSLV-F14 on 17 February 2024.
- RLV-LEX-01: Autonomous winged Reusable Launch Vehicle Landing Experiment successfully conducted by ISRO at ATR Chitradurga, Karnataka on 02 April 2023.
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 1, 2, 4.
Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List - I (State) A. Maharashtra B. Karnataka C. Bihar D. Tamil Nadu List - II (Number of seats in Rajya Sabha) 1. 16 2. 18 3. 19 4. 12 Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनिए। सूची-I (राज्य) A. महाराष्ट्र B. कर्नाटक C. बिहार D. तमिलनाडु सूची-II (राज्य सभा में सीटों की संख्या) 1. 16 2. 18 3. 19 4. 12 कूट: A B C D
Detailed match of States and their allocated seats in the Rajya Sabha (Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution):
| List-I (State) | List-II (Rajya Sabha Seats) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Maharashtra | 3. 19 |
| B. Karnataka | 4. 12 |
| C. Bihar | 1. 16 |
| D. Tamil Nadu | 2. 18 |
- Maharashtra: 19 seats (second highest in India after Uttar Pradesh).
- Tamil Nadu: 18 seats (third highest).
- Bihar: 16 seats (tied with West Bengal at 16 seats).
- Karnataka: 12 seats.
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 4, 1, 2.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Poverty line differs across time and countries. Reason (R): The basic needs of people vary across regions and overtime. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभीकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभीकथन (A): निर्धनता रेखा समय और देशों के अनुसार भिन्न होती है। कारण (R): लोगों की मूलभूत आवश्यकताएं विभिन्न क्षेत्रों और समय के अनुसार बदलती रहती हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The poverty line is not an absolute, static universal constant; it differs significantly across different countries (e.g., World Bank's International Poverty Line of $2.15/day vs. developed nations' relative poverty lines) and shifts over time within the same country as socio-economic standards evolve.
and gives the correct explanation: What constitutes the 'basic physical and social needs' for human survival, decency, and productivity varies across regions (due to climate, food habits, and living costs) and overtime (as societies develop, items once considered luxuries become essential necessities like clean fuel, electricity, and digital connectivity). This variation in basic needs is the exact reason why poverty lines must differ across space and time.
With reference to the 'Speaker of the Lok Sabha', consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves. 2. The Speaker can be removed only by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha. 3. The Speaker vacates office immediately upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'लोकसभा के अध्यक्ष' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अध्यक्ष का चुनाव लोकसभा के सदस्यों द्वारा अपने में से ही किया जाता है। 2. अध्यक्ष को केवल लोकसभा के तत्कालीन समस्त सदस्यों के बहुमत द्वारा पारित संकल्प द्वारा ही हटाया जा सकता है। 3. लोकसभा के विघटन के तुरंत बाद अध्यक्ष अपना पद रिक्त कर देता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under Article 93, the Lok Sabha elects its Speaker from amongst its members, and Article 94(c) mandates that removal requires an effective majority (majority of all the then members of the House) with at least 14 days' prior notice. Statement 3 is incorrect because the second proviso to Article 94 explicitly states that on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker does not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted Lok Sabha.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): In the Himalayan mountains different types of vegetation are found. Reason (R): In Himalayas, there are variations in climate with change in altitude. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): हिमालयी पर्वतों में विभिन्न प्रकार की वनस्पतियाँ पाई जाती हैं। कारण (R): हिमालय में ऊँचाई में परिवर्तन के साथ जलवायु में परिवर्तन होता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The Himalayan mountains exhibit a spectacular vertical zonation of natural vegetation—ranging from tropical moist deciduous forests in the Tarai/Bhabar foothills, subtropical pine forests in the Shiwaliks, temperate broadleaf and oak-coniferous forests in the middle ranges, to alpine meadows (bugyals) and tundra scrub near the snowline.
and gives the correct explanation: In mountainous terrain like the Himalayas, temperature decreases rapidly with increasing altitude at the normal lapse rate (~6.5°C per 1,000 metres). This progressive decline in temperature, coupled with changes in precipitation and aspect, creates distinct altitudinal micro-climatic zones, which directly dictates the succession of different vegetation belts. Thus, (R) is the exact scientific reason for (A).
With reference to 'Carrying Capacity of Environment', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The rate of resource extraction should remain above the rate of resource generation. 2. Generation of waste should remain within the absorption capacity of environment. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
अधष्पिको आंदोलन निम्नलिखित में से किन भारतीय राज्यों से कारण (R): गर्म दिन में उच्च आर्द्रता से परेशानी बढ़ जातीसंबंधित te? है।l, उत्तराखंड 2. उत्तर प्रदेश नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Analysis of the Carrying Capacity of Environment:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Carrying capacity dictates that the rate of resource extraction must remain at or below the rate of resource regeneration/generation. If extraction exceeds regeneration, resources face irreversible degradation and exhaustion.
- Statement 2 is correct: Carrying capacity also implies the assimilative capacity of the environment—the rate of waste generation must remain within the absorption/assimilative capacity of the environment to avoid toxic accumulation and pollution.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Tribe) (Habitat) 1. Bushman - Kalahari Desert 2. Eskimo - Northern Canada 3. Pygmy - Congo Basin 4. Masai - West Africa Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
प्रधानमंत्री मुद्रा योजना निम्नलिखित में से किसके अंतर्गत
Evaluation of Tribes and their geographic habitats:
- Bushman (San): Indigenous hunter-gatherers inhabiting the Kalahari Desert across Botswana, Namibia, and South Africa. Correctly matched.
- Eskimo (Inuit/Yupik): Indigenous circumpolar peoples inhabiting the Arctic tundra of Northern Canada, Alaska, and Greenland. Correctly matched.
- Pygmy (Mbuti/Baka): Indigenous short-statured hunter-gatherers inhabiting the dense equatorial rainforests of the Congo Basin in Central Africa. Correctly matched.
- Masai: Pastoral nomadic group inhabiting the Great Rift Valley of East Africa (specifically southern Kenya and northern Tanzania), NOT West Africa.
Therefore, only pair 4 is NOT correctly matched.
With reference to the Governor of a State, consider the following statements: 1. The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President. 2. The Governor may reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President. 3. The Governor is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of the State Legislative Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'राज्य के राज्यपाल' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. राज्यपाल की नियुक्ति राष्ट्रपति द्वारा की जाती है और वह राष्ट्रपति के प्रसादपर्यंत पद धारण करता है। 2. राज्यपाल राज्य विधानमंडल द्वारा पारित कुछ विधेयकों को राष्ट्रपति के विचारार्थ आरक्षित कर सकता है। 3. राज्यपाल का चुनाव राज्य विधानसभा के सदस्यों से बने निर्वाचक मंडल द्वारा किया जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct because under Articles 155 and 156(1), the Governor is appointed by the President and serves during presidential pleasure, while Article 200 authorizes the Governor to reserve state bills for presidential consideration under Article 201. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Governor is an appointed constitutional head and is not elected by legislators.
Consider the following revolts and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. Pabna 2. Indigo 3. Kuka 4. Sanyasi Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित विद्रोहों पर विचार कीजिए तथा इन्हें सही शासन पहल' का शुभारंभ निम्नलिखित में से किस मंत्रालयकालक्रमानुसार क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए। द्वारा किया गया?
Chronological order of peasant and tribal uprisings in Modern India:
- Sanyasi Revolt (1763–1800): Uprising of Hindu sanyasis and Muslim fakirs in Bengal against British revenue exploitation and pilgrimage taxes (immortalized in Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's Anandamath).
- Indigo Revolt (Nil Vidroha) (1859–1860): Peasant uprising in Nadia, Bengal against forced cultivation of indigo by European planters (led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas).
- Kuka Movement (1871–1872): Socio-religious reform turned political revolt founded by Bhagat Jawahar Mal (Sian Sahib) and led by Baba Ram Singh against British rule and cow slaughter in Punjab; armed clashes and cannon executions occurred in January 1872 at Malerkotla.
- Pabna Agrarian League (1873–1876): Peasant movement in Pabna district of East Bengal against oppressive zamindari rent hikes and illegal cesses, leading directly to the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885.
Correct chronological sequence: 4 (Sanyasi, 1763) → 2 (Indigo, 1859) → 3 (Kuka, 1872) → 1 (Pabna, 1873), which is 4, 2, 3, 1.
Consider the following wars and arrange them in correct chronological order. 1. First Anglo-Mysore War 2. Second Anglo-French War 3. First Anglo-Sikh War 4. First Anglo-Afghan War Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code?
निम्नलिखित युद्धों पर विचार कीजिए तथा इन्हें सही?
Chronological order of British colonial wars in India:
- Second Anglo-French (Carnatic) War (1749–1754): Fought over successions in Hyderabad and the Carnatic; featured the Siege of Arcot (1751) by Robert Clive, ending with the Treaty of Pondicherry (1754).
- First Anglo-Mysore War (1767–1769): Fought between the British East India Company and Hyder Ali of Mysore, ending with Hyder Ali dictating the humiliating Treaty of Madras (1769).
- First Anglo-Afghan War (1839–1842): Disaster for Lord Auckland's British-Indian forces attempting to place Shah Shuja on the Kabul throne.
- First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–1846): Fought following Maharaja Ranjit Singh's death, culminating in the Battles of Mudki, Ferozeshah, Aliwal, and Sobraon, and ending with the Treaty of Lahore (1846).
Correct sequence: 2 (1749) → 1 (1767) → 4 (1839) → 3 (1845), which is 2, 1, 4, 3.
Candidates sometimes forget whether Anglo-Afghan occurred before or after the Anglo-Sikh wars; the Afghan disaster (1839-42) took place right before the annexation of Sindh (1843) and Punjab (1845-49).
- 2nd Carnatic War: 1749–1754 (Treaty of Pondicherry)
- 1st Anglo-Mysore War: 1767–1769 (Treaty of Madras)
- 1st Anglo-Afghan War: 1839–1842 (Auckland's folly)
- 1st Anglo-Sikh War: 1845–1846 (Treaty of Lahore)
Second Anglo-French War (1749) was in the mid-18th century and is the earliest event, requiring the sequence to start with 2. Anglo-Sikh was in 1845 (after Afghan war 1839). Hence 2, 1, 4, 3 (Option D) is correct.
The Gobi Desert is spread across which of the following countries? 1. Mongolia 2. China 3. Russia 4. Kazakhstan Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
गोबी मरुस्थल निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से देशों में फैला है? (0) 2, , 3, 4 (9) ।, 2, 4, 3L. मंगोलिया 2. चीन 3L. उत्तर भारत में जल विद्युत के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से
Geographical distribution of the Gobi Desert:
- The Gobi Desert is a vast, cold desert and semi-desert region in East Asia covering approximately 1.3 million sq km.
- It spans across Southern Mongolia (Omnogovi, Dornogovi, Dundgovi provinces) and Northern/Northwestern China (Inner Mongolia Autonomous Region, Xinjiang, and Gansu province).
- It does NOT extend into Russia (Siberia lies further north) nor into Kazakhstan (which houses the Kazakh Steppe and Kyzylkum/Karakum deserts).
Therefore, the Gobi Desert is spread across Mongolia (1) and China (2) only.
Which of the following two are the major constituent of Bio-gas ? 1. Methane 2. Butane 3. Carbon dioxide 4. Carbon monoxide Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
उत्तर प्रदेश की एक जिला एक उत्पाद (ओ. डी. ओ. पी.) नीचे दिए गए उत्तर7ए. कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:योजना के अनुसार, मूंज उत्पाद निम्नलिखित में से किस wm a oeजिले से संबंधित है? RE: दोनों सही हैंadh
Chemical composition of Biogas (Gobar Gas):
- Biogas is produced by the anaerobic digestion/fermentation of organic biomass (cattle dung, sewage, agricultural wastes) by methanogenic bacteria (Methanobacterium).
- The major constituents of biogas are:
- Methane (CH4): Comprises 50% to 75% of the gas volume (the primary combustible component).
- Carbon Dioxide (CO2): Comprises 25% to 45% of the gas volume.
- Trace constituents: Small amounts of water vapour, nitrogen (1-5%), hydrogen (0-1%), and hydrogen sulphide (H2S).
- Butane is a major constituent of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG), NOT biogas.
Therefore, the two major constituents are Methane (1) and Carbon dioxide (3).
Adi Karmyogi Beta Version - A Responsive Governance Initiative' was launched by which of the following ministry in June 2025? 1. Ministry of AYUSH 2. Ministry of Women and Child Development 3. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment 4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कार्यक्रम/योजना, राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा है हर, a पी. ने 990 4 = पहली मानवनीति 2020 के उद्देश्यों को पूरा करने में शामिल नहीं हैं? सपना था । प्रकाशित को थी जिसमें मानव विकासSeen 2. मानव विकास सूचकांक विकसित करने वाली पहली
Adi Karmayogi is an innovative capacity-building and responsive governance initiative launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA).
- Modeled under the framework of the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (Mission Karmayogi), the Adi Karmayogi initiative is specifically designed to train grassroots functionaries, panchayat representatives, and field-level tribal administration officials to ensure transparent, accountable, and citizen-centric governance in tribal and Fifth Schedule areas.
- It equips officials to effectively implement flagship tribal legislations like the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, PESA Act, 1996, and PM-JANMAN.
Therefore, the responsible ministry is the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (Statement 4).
Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (Event) (Year)
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित नहीं है? (Event)
Modern Indian historical events and their exact years:
- (A) Indian Navy Act: Enacted in 1927 (reorganized the Royal Indian Marine as the Royal Indian Navy).
- (B) Civil Disobedience Movement: Commenced in 1930 (inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March from 12 March to 6 April 1930 breaking the Salt Law).
- (C) Second Round Table Conference: Convened in London in 1931 (7 September to 1 December 1931; attended by Mahatma Gandhi as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact).
- (D) The Communal Award: Announced on 16 August 1932 (NOT 1933) by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald, granting separate electorates to forward and backward minorities, Muslims, Sikhs, and the Depressed Classes (which led to Gandhi's fast unto death in Yerwada Jail and the subsequent Poona Pact in September 1932).
Therefore, (D) is NOT correctly matched.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. 2. One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years. 3. A Money Bill can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की संसद के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. राज्यसभा एक स्थायी निकाय है और इसका विघटन नहीं हो सकता। 2. राज्यसभा के एक-तिहाई सदस्य प्रत्येक दो वर्ष में सेवानिवृत्त होते हैं। 3. धन विधेयक राज्यसभा में पेश किया जा सकता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct because under Article 83(1), the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) is a permanent chamber not subject to dissolution, with one-third of its members retiring every second year for a six-year term. Statement 3 is incorrect because under Article 109(1), a Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and never in the Rajya Sabha.
With reference to the soils of India, consider the following statements: 1. Black soil, also called regur soil, is ideal for cotton cultivation. 2. Alluvial soil is the most fertile soil and covers the northern plains. 3. Laterite soil is rich in humus content. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की मृदा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. काली मिट्टी, जिसे रेगुर मिट्टी भी कहा जाता है, कपास की खेती के लिए आदर्श होती है। 2. जलोढ़ मिट्टी सर्वाधिक उपजाऊ मिट्टी है और यह उत्तरी मैदानों में विस्तृत है। 3. लैटेराइट मिट्टी में ह्यूमस की प्रचुर मात्रा पाई जाती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Regur or black soil possesses high clay content and moisture retention, making it exceptionally suited for rainfed cotton, while transportable alluvial soil enriched with silt and potash blankets the Indo-Gangetic-Brahmaputra plain, forming India's agricultural heartland. Statement 3 is incorrect because laterite soil develops under alternate wet and dry spells with intense leaching, washing away silica and bases while high tropical temperatures foster bacteria that rapidly consume organic matter, leaving laterites poor in humus, nitrogen, and phosphate.
Consider the formation of the following States of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last. 1. Punjab 2. Arunachal Pradesh 3. Nagaland 4. Sikkim Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
भारत के निम्नलिखित राज्यों के गठन पर विचार कीजिए, नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:तथा इन्हें सबसे पहले से लेकर आखिरी तक के सही कूटःकालक्रमानुसार क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए।
Chronological order of the formation of Indian States:
- Nagaland (1 December 1963): Created by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962 (13th Constitutional Amendment), carved out of Assam as India's 16th state.
- Punjab (1 November 1966): Reorganised under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 (Shah Commission recommendations), trifurcating the erstwhile East Punjab state into Punjabi-speaking Punjab, Hindi-speaking Haryana, and the UT of Chandigarh.
- Sikkim (16 May 1975): Became an Associate State under the 35th Constitutional Amendment (1974) and a full-fledged 22nd State of the Indian Union via the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975.
- Arunachal Pradesh (20 February 1987): Elevated from a Union Territory to the 24th State of the Indian Union by the State of Arunachal Pradesh Act, 1986 (55th Constitutional Amendment).
Correct sequence: Nagaland (3, 1963) → Punjab (1, 1966) → Sikkim (4, 1975) → Arunachal Pradesh (2, 1987), which is 3, 1, 4, 2.
The reorganization of states in 1956 preserved Uttar Pradesh's borders, which were subsequently modified on 9 November 2000 when 13 hill districts were carved out to create Uttarakhand.
Assuming Punjab existed in its modern state form since 1947 or 1950; its official reorganisation into the modern state of Punjab occurred in 1966 alongside Haryana.
- Nagaland: 1963 (16th state)
- Punjab (reorganised): 1966
- Sikkim: 1975 (36th Amendment)
- Arunachal Pradesh: 1987 (along with Mizoram and Goa)
Nagaland (1963) was formed before Punjab reorganisation (1966), so sequence must start with 3. Arunachal became a state in 1987 (last among these, ending with 2). Only option (c) 3, 1, 4, 2 satisfies this.
With reference to ocean currents, consider the following statements: 1. The Gulf Stream is a warm current of the North Atlantic Ocean. 2. The Labrador Current is a warm current. 3. The Kuroshio Current is a cold current of the North Pacific Ocean. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
महासागरीय धाराओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. गल्फ स्ट्रीम उत्तरी अटलांटिक महासागर की एक गर्म जलधारा है। 2. लैब्राडोर धारा एक गर्म जलधारा है। 3. कुरोशियो धारा उत्तरी प्रशांत महासागर की एक ठंडी जलधारा है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the Gulf Stream is an intense, warm western boundary current flowing northward along the eastern coast of North America in the North Atlantic. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Labrador Current is a cold current flowing southward from the Arctic Ocean along the coast of Newfoundland (meeting the Gulf Stream at Grand Banks). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Kuroshio (Japan Current) is a warm western boundary current in the North Pacific Ocean analogous to the Gulf Stream.
Arrange the following States of India in the ascending order on the basis of their area and select the correct answer from the code given below. 1. Haryana 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Punjab 4. Uttarakhand Code:
निम्नलिखित में से किसने जलियांवाला बाग हत्याकांड से व्याख्या करता हैदुखी होकर वायसराय कौ कार्यकारिणी परिषद से इस्तीफा | 39 स्वेज नहर निम्नलिखित में से किन्हें जोड़ती है?दे् e था? seat 1. अटलांटिक महासागर 2. लाल सागरLe MES SECT नायर 2. ईश्वरी प्रसाद 3. भूमध्य सागर 4. हिन्द महासागर
Ascending order (smallest to largest) of the given States based on geographic area:
- Haryana: 44,212 sq km (smallest among the four)
- Punjab: 50,362 sq km
- Uttarakhand: 53,483 sq km
- Himachal Pradesh: 55,673 sq km (largest among the four)
Ascending order: Haryana (1) → Punjab (3) → Uttarakhand (4) → Himachal Pradesh (2), which gives the code 1, 3, 4, 2.
With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court was inaugurated on 28 January 1950. 2. Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. 3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सर्वोच्च न्यायालय का उद्घाटन 28 जनवरी 1950 को हुआ था। 2. अनुच्छेद 32 सर्वोच्च न्यायालय को मूल अधिकारों के प्रवर्तन के लिए रिट जारी करने का अधिकार देता है। 3. डॉ. बी. आर. अम्बेडकर ने अनुच्छेद 32 को संविधान का 'हृदय और आत्मा' कहा था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Supreme Court was officially inaugurated on 28 January 1950, two days after the Constitution took effect. Article 32 guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies, empowering the court to issue writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, etc.), which Dr. Ambedkar termed the very heart and soul of the Constitution.
Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (State) List-II (Highest Peak) A. Tamil Nadu 1. Dhupgarh B. Rajasthan 2. Doddabetta C. Nagaland 3. Guru Shikhar D. Madhya Pradesh 4. Saramati Code: A B C D
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन
Detailed match between States and their Highest Mountain Peaks:
| List-I (State) | List-II (Highest Peak) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Tamil Nadu | 2. Doddabetta (2,637 m) |
| B. Rajasthan | 3. Guru Shikhar (1,722 m) |
| C. Nagaland | 4. Saramati (3,841 m) |
| D. Madhya Pradesh | 1. Dhupgarh (1,352 m) |
- Tamil Nadu: Doddabetta is the highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills (and second-highest in South India after Anamudi in Kerala).
- Rajasthan: Guru Shikhar is the highest summit of the ancient Aravalli Range, located on Mount Abu.
- Nagaland: Mount Saramati is the highest peak in the Naga Hills / Purvanchal along the India-Myanmar border.
- Madhya Pradesh: Mount Dhupgarh in the Mahadeo Hills of the Satpura Range near Pachmarhi is the highest point in Madhya Pradesh.
Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 3, 4, 1.
Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to provide humanitarian aid to which of the following countries? 1. Bangladesh 2. Myanmar 3. Sri Lanka 4. Malaysia Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
मार्च 2025 में भारत ने ऑपरेशन ब्रह्मा निम्नलिखित में से | 4). निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार कीजिए तथा इन्हें सहीकिस देश को मानवीय सहायता प्रदान करने के लिए शुरू कालक्रमानुसार क्रम में व्यवस्थित कौजिए।किया था? L. क्रिप्स मिशन 2. कैबिनेट मिशनL, बांग्लादेश 2. म्यांमार 3. शिमला सम्मेलन 4. वेवेल योजना
Operation Brahma was launched by the Government of India in March 2025 as a dedicated humanitarian relief mission:
- India deployed Indian Air Force C-17 Globemaster aircraft carrying emergency relief supplies, life-saving medicines, shelter materials, and food supplies to Myanmar to assist communities devastated by civil conflicts, humanitarian crises, and natural disasters along the border areas.
- India adheres to its 'Neighbourhood First' policy and Act East policy, providing proactive Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) to Myanmar.
Therefore, Operation Brahma was launched to provide humanitarian aid to Myanmar (Statement 2 only).
With reference to Municipalities, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The eligible age to be a member of municipality is 25 years. 2. One-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in the municipalities is reserved for women. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
नगरपालिका के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से |. लोक लेखा समिति अपनी रिपोर्ट लोक सभा को सौंपतीकथन सही हे/हैं? है।L. नगरपालिका सदस्य बनने के लिए अर्हता आयु 25 वर्ष 2. लोक लेखा समिति में राज्य सभा के s सदस्य होतेहे ॥ हें ।
Constitutional provisions for Municipalities under Part IX-A:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 243V(1)(b), the minimum age required for being chosen as a member of a municipality or panchayat is 21 years, NOT 25 years. (No person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of age, if he has attained the age of 21 years).
- Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 243T(3), not less than one-third (including the number of seats reserved for SC/ST women) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Municipality shall be reserved for women.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.
Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: 1. Swachh Bharat Mission 2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana 4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme Codes:
भारत सरकार द्वारा प्रारंभ की गई योजनाओं को कालानुक्रम मेंव्यवस्थित कीजिए और नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:1. स्वच्छ भारत मिशन
Chronological order of the central government schemes:
- Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM): Launched on October 2, 2014, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to eliminate open defecation and improve solid waste management across India.
- Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY): Launched on July 15, 2015 (World Youth Skills Day), under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship to provide industry-relevant skill training.
- Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY): Originally introduced in December 2016 under the Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016 as a poverty alleviation and welfare fund (and later expanded during COVID-19 in March 2020 as PMGKAY).
- Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme (PMMSK): Approved and launched in November 2017 under the Ministry of Women and Child Development to empower rural women through community participation.
Therefore, the chronological sequence is 1, 2, 3, 4.
Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order: 1. Cripps Mission 2. Cabinet Mission 3. Shimla Conference 4. Wavell Plan Select the correct answer from the code given below:
निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार कीजिए तथा उन्हें सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 1. क्रिप्स मिशन 2. कैबिनेट मिशन 3. शिमला सम्मेलन 4. वेवेल योजना नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Chronological order of British constitutional proposals during the 1940s:
- Cripps Mission (March – April 1942): Headed by Sir Stafford Cripps, offered post-war Dominion status and a constitution-making body; rejected by Congress ('post-dated cheque') and Muslim League.
- Wavell Plan (14 June 1945): Proposed by Viceroy Lord Wavell to reconstruct the Governor-General's Executive Council with equal representation for Caste Hindus and Muslims.
- Shimla Conference (25 June – 14 July 1945): A summit of 21 Indian political leaders convened by Lord Wavell at Shimla to deliberate upon the Wavell Plan, which broke down due to Jinnah's veto demand.
- Cabinet Mission (March – May 1946): Comprising Pethick-Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander; arrived in Delhi on 24 March 1946 and published its constitutional plan on 16 May 1946.
Correct sequence: Cripps Mission (1, March 1942) → Wavell Plan (4, June 1945) → Shimla Conference (3, June-July 1945) → Cabinet Mission (2, 1946), which is 1, 4, 3, 2.
With reference to ocean currents, consider the following statements: 1. The Gulf Stream is a warm current of the North Atlantic Ocean. 2. The Labrador Current is a cold current. 3. The convergence of the Gulf Stream and the Labrador Current produces dense fog off the coast of Newfoundland. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
महासागरीय धाराओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. गल्फ स्ट्रीम उत्तरी अटलांटिक महासागर की एक गर्म धारा है। 2. लैब्राडोर धारा एक ठंडी धारा है। 3. गल्फ स्ट्रीम और लैब्राडोर धारा का अभिसरण न्यूफाउंडलैंड के तट पर घने कोहरे का निर्माण करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. The Gulf Stream is an intense warm western boundary current of the North Atlantic gyre originating in the Gulf of Mexico, the Labrador Current carries subpolar cold waters southward along eastern Canada, and their confluence near the Grand Banks off Newfoundland produces thick advection fog while creating one of the richest commercial fishing grounds on Earth.
The chemical formula of household baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) is which of the following?
बेकिंग सोडा का सूत्र है:
Chemical formulas of common sodium and potassium compounds:
- Baking soda: Chemically known as Sodium hydrogen carbonate or Sodium bicarbonate, having the formula $NaHCO_3$. It releases carbon dioxide gas upon heating or reaction with weak edible acids, causing dough to rise.
- Washing soda: Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na₂CO₃ · 10H₂O).
- Anhydrous sodium carbonate: Soda ash (Na₂CO₃).
- Potassium bicarbonate: KHCO₃.
Therefore, the formula of baking soda is NaHCO₃.
With reference to 'Atal Tunnel' which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. This tunnel is the world's longest highway tunnel. 2. This tunnel is built in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
'अटल टनल' के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह सुरंग विश्व की सबसे लंबी राजमार्ग सुरंग है। 2. यह सुरंग हिमालय की पीर पंजाल श्रेणी में निर्मित है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Evaluation of statements regarding the Atal Tunnel:
- Statement 1 is correct: Certified by the Guinness World Records, the Atal Tunnel is officially recognized as the world's longest single-tube highway tunnel above an altitude of 10,000 feet (3,048 metres), with an engineering length of 9.02 kilometres.
- Statement 2 is correct: The tunnel is excavated beneath the Rohtang Pass in the Eastern Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh, providing all-weather connectivity between Manali and the Lahaul-Spiti valley.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
With reference to the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy of India as it stood in 2014, consider the following statements: 1. FDI up to 100 per cent was permitted in single-brand retail trading, subject to conditions. 2. FDI up to 51 per cent was permitted in multi-brand retail trading, subject to conditions. 3. FDI was permitted in the business of lotteries and gambling. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2014 में भारत की प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश (FDI) नीति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. शर्तों के अधीन सिंगल-ब्रांड खुदरा व्यापार में 100 प्रतिशत तक FDI की अनुमति थी। 2. शर्तों के अधीन मल्टी-ब्रांड खुदरा व्यापार में 51 प्रतिशत तक FDI की अनुमति थी। 3. लॉटरी और जुए के कारोबार में FDI की अनुमति थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under the prevailing consolidated FDI policy in 2014, 100% FDI was permitted in single-brand retail trading (with local sourcing mandates beyond 51%), and up to 51% FDI was permitted in multi-brand retail trading subject to minimum capitalization and individual State government consent. Statement 3 is incorrect because FDI is strictly prohibited in lottery businesses, gambling, betting, and casinos under India's negative list.
Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council? 1. Bahrain 2. Iran 3. Iraq 4. Qatar Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से देश खाड़ी सहयोग परिषद् 49. नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें एक को अभिकथन
Membership of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):
- The Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf (GCC) is a regional, political, and economic union established on 25 May 1981 in Abu Dhabi.
- The GCC comprises exactly six Arab monarchies of the Persian Gulf:
- Kingdom of Bahrain (Member)
- State of Kuwait (Member)
- Sultanate of Oman (Member)
- State of Qatar (Member)
- Kingdom of Saudi Arabia (Member)
- United Arab Emirates (UAE) (Member)
- Neither Iran (a Persian republic) nor Iraq (an Arab republic) are members of the GCC.
Therefore, the countries that are NOT members are Iran (2) and Iraq (3).
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation in India is essential for the rule of law. Reason (R): Public Interest Litigation provides effective access of Justice to socially and economically weaker sections. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
निम्नलिखित में से किसके द्वारा खाद्य सुरक्षा में अधिकार की | 50. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित हे/हैं?अवधारणा प्रस्तावित की गई है? (रेलवे मण्डल) (मुख्यालय)LW. स्वामीनाथन 2. अतुल प्रणय LR रेलवे - नई दिल्ली
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is fundamental to preserving the rule of law in India because it prevents governmental arbitrariness, enforces constitutional obligations, and ensures that executive actions comply with fundamental rights.
and gives the correct explanation: Historically pioneered by Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer in cases like Hussainara Khatoon (1979) and SP Gupta (1981), PIL fundamentally relaxed the traditional common-law doctrine of locus standi (standing). This relaxation enables public-spirited citizens or organisations to file petitions on behalf of poor, disadvantaged, and marginalized groups who lack the socio-economic resources to access the courts themselves. This democratization of justice is the precise institutional mechanism through which PIL upholds the rule of law. Thus, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Which of the following statements is not true about "ecological niche"?
"पारिस्थितिक निकेत" (Ecological Niche) के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?
Ecological niche refers to the unique functional role, habitat requirements, and resource utilization pattern of a species within an ecosystem (first conceptualized by Joseph Grinnell and expanded by Charles Elton and G.E. Hutchinson).
- Statement (b) is NOT true because according to Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle, two species competing for the exact same limiting resources cannot coexist indefinitely in the same ecological niche. Therefore, even if resources are abundant, an ecological niche is species-specific and does not house a 'large number of species'.
- In contrast, dominant species occupy broader niches (a), resource partitioning minimizes single-species dominance (d), and different species evolve distinct niches to avoid competitive exclusion.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Buland Darwaza was constructed at Fatehpur Sikri by the Mughal emperor Akbar. Reason (R): Akbar built this monument to commemorate the birth of his son Jahangir. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): फतेहपुर सीकरी में बुलंद दरवाजे का निर्माण मुगल सम्राट अकबर द्वारा करवाया गया था। कारण (R): अकबर ने इस स्मारक का निर्माण अपने पुत्र जहाँगीर के जन्म के उपलक्ष्य में करवाया था। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The monumental Buland Darwaza ('Door of Victory'), standing at an imposing height of 54 metres, was constructed at Fatehpur Sikri by the Mughal Emperor Akbar as the grand southern entrance to the Jama Masjid complex.
Buland Darwaza was constructed in 1601 CE to commemorate Akbar's triumphant military conquest of Gujarat (1572–1573 CE), NOT the birth of his son Jahangir (Prince Salim was born in 1569 at Sikri, in honour of which Akbar built the city of Fatehpur Sikri itself, but the Buland Darwaza gate specifically commemorated the Gujarat campaign victory). Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Match List - I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I List-II (Port) (State) A. Paradeep 1. Tamil Nadu B. Tuticorin 2. Kerala C. Kakinada 3. Odisha D. Alappuzha 4. Andhra Pradesh Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (बंदरगाह) A. पारादीप B. एन्नोर C. तूतीकोरिन D. दीनदयाल (कांडला) सूची-II (राज्य) 1. तमिलनाडु 2. गुजरात 3. ओडिशा 4. तमिलनाडु कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between Major/Minor Ports and their States:
| List-I (Port) | List-II (State) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Paradip | 3. Odisha |
| B. Tuticorin (V.O. Chidambaranar) | 1. Tamil Nadu |
| C. Kakinada | 4. Andhra Pradesh |
| D. Alappuzha (Alleppey) | 2. Kerala |
- Paradip: Major deep-water artificial sea port situated on the eastern coast in Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha (at the confluence of the Mahanadi and Bay of Bengal).
- Tuticorin (V.O.C. Port): Major all-weather port situated on the Gulf of Mannar in southern Tamil Nadu, famous for pearl fishing and maritime container trade.
- Kakinada: Major commercial deep-water port situated on the coast of Andhra Pradesh.
- Alappuzha (Alleppey): Historical port and backwater hub on the Arabian Sea coast in Kerala, known as the 'Venice of the East'.
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 1, 4, 2.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Sustainable development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present time should not compromise with the needs of the future generations. Reason (R): Agenda 21 was signed by world leaders in 1995. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): सतत विकास मानव समाज के कल्याण के लिए महत्वपूर्ण है। कारण (R): सतत विकास वर्तमान पीढ़ियों की आवश्यकताओं को भावी पीढ़ियों की आवश्यकताओं से समझौता किए बिना पूरा करता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The classic definition of 'Sustainable Development' formulated by the Brundtland Commission (1987) and reaffirmed at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit asserts that development must meet present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs, while safeguarding the environment.
Agenda 21—the comprehensive global blueprint for sustainable development—was adopted and signed by world leaders in June 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED / Earth Summit) in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, NOT in 1995. Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List - I (Pulitzer award categories) List - II (Awardee in 2025) A. Fiction 1. Jason Roberts B. Music 2. Branden Jacobs Jenkins C. Biography 3. Susie Ibarra D. Drama 4. Percival Everett Code: A B C D
सूची- को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए तथा सूचियों के (1)
Detailed match between Pulitzer Prize Categories and Awardees:
| List-I (Category) | List-II (Awardee) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Fiction | 4. Percival Everett |
| B. Music | 3. Susie Ibarra |
| C. Biography | 1. Jason Roberts |
| D. Drama | 2. Branden Jacobs-Jenkins |
- Fiction: Percival Everett won for his acclaimed novel James (a subversive reimagining of Mark Twain's Huckleberry Finn from the perspective of enslaved Jim).
- Music: Susie Ibarra won for her innovative percussive compositional work.
- Biography: Jason Roberts was awarded for his definitive biography.
- Drama: Branden Jacobs-Jenkins won for his family-conflict Broadway drama Purpose.
Hence, the correct matching code is 4, 3, 1, 2.
Which of the following enzymes is/are released in stomach for protein digestion? 1. Chymotrypsin 2. Trypsin 3. Pepsin Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:
प्रोटीन के पाचन के लिए आमाशय में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से एंजाइम स्रावित होता है/होते हैं? 1. काइमोट्रिप्सिन 2. ट्रिप्सिन 3. पेप्सिन नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Physiology of human protein digestion across the gastrointestinal tract:
- Stomach (Gastric Juice): Gastric glands in the stomach mucosa secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and the proenzyme pepsinogen. In the acidic environment (pH 1.5–2.0), pepsinogen is activated into Pepsin, which hydrolyzes intact proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides). (In infants, rennin is also present to digest milk casein).
- Small Intestine (Pancreatic Juice): Trypsin and Chymotrypsin are NOT released in the stomach; they are synthesized by the pancreas as inactive zymogens (trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen) and secreted into the duodenum (small intestine), where trypsinogen is activated by mucosal enterokinase.
Therefore, among the options, only Pepsin (3) is released in the stomach.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): India has a Parliamentary system of Government. Reason (R): In India, the executive is responsible to the legislature. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): भारत में शासन की संसदीय प्रणाली है। कारण (R): भारत में कार्यपालिका विधायिका के प्रति उत्तरदायी होती है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The Constitution of India establishes a Parliamentary system of Government both at the Centre (Articles 74 and 75) and in the States (Articles 163 and 164), modelled upon the British Westminster pattern.
and gives the correct explanation: The fundamental defining hallmark of any parliamentary system (as opposed to a presidential system) is the principle of executive accountability to the legislature. Under Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The executive remains in office only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the legislature. Because collective ministerial responsibility to Parliament is the very constitutional mechanism that makes a system 'Parliamentary', (R) is the exact causal explanation of (A).
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ? (Pass) (State/Union Territory) 1. Lipulekh - Ladakh 2. Nathu La - Sikkim 3. Bomdila - Arunachal Pradesh 4. Shipki La - Himachal Pradesh Select the correct answer from the codegiven below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित नहीं है/हैं? (दर्रा) (राज्य / केंद्रशासित प्रदेश) 1. लिपुलेख - लद्दाख 2. नाथू ला - सिक्किम 3. बोमडिला - अरुणाचल प्रदेश 4. शिपकी ला - हिमाचल प्रदेश नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Evaluation of Mountain Passes and their State / UT locations:
- Lipulekh: Located in the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand along the tri-junction of India, Tibet (China), and Nepal, serving as a vital route for the Kailash-Mansarovar Yatra. It is NOT located in Ladakh. Therefore, pair 1 is NOT correctly matched.
- Nathu La: Historic pass on the ancient Silk Route connecting Sikkim with the Chumbi Valley of Tibet. Correctly matched.
- Bomdila: High-altitude mountain pass connecting the Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa, Tibet. Correctly matched.
- Shipki La: High mountain pass in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh, through which the Sutlej River enters India from Tibet. Correctly matched.
Therefore, only pair 1 is NOT correctly matched.
Which among the following words were inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitution Amendment? 1. Socialist 2. Secular 3. Sovereign 4. Republic Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
42 वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना | 59. निम्नलिखित में से किस संगठन द्वारा वैश्विक वेतन रिपोर्टमें निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से शब्द जोड़े गये थे? 2024-25 जारी की गई है?1. समाजवादी 2. धर्मनिरपेक्षता 1. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय श्रम संगठन
Constitutional Amendment of the Preamble:
- The Preamble of the Constitution of India has been amended only once in history, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (during the National Emergency under the Indira Gandhi government, following recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee).
- The 42nd Amendment added three new words to the Preamble:
- 'Socialist'
- 'Secular'
- 'Integrity' (transforming 'unity of the Nation' to 'unity and integrity of the Nation')
- The words 'Sovereign' and 'Republic' (along with 'Democratic') were present in the original Preamble adopted on 26 November 1949.
Therefore, the words inserted by the 42nd Amendment are Socialist (1) and Secular (2).
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List - I (Emperor) List - II (City where Tomb is located) A. Babur 1. Agra B. Humayun 2. Lahore C. Jahangir 3. Delhi D. Shah Jahan 4. Kabul Code: A B C D
सूची-[ को सूची-II। से सुमेलित कौजिए तथा सूचियों के (0) 2 और 3 (9) केवल |नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। 60. वैश्विक वित्तीय स्थिरता रिपोर्ट निम्नलिखित में से किनकेसूची-II सूची-II द्वारा जारी की जाती है?(सम्राट) (शहर जहाँ मकबरा |. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोषस्थित है) 2. विश्व आर्थिक मंचA. बाबर 1. आगरा 3. विश्व बैंक
Detailed match between Mughal Emperors and their Mausoleum/Tomb Locations:
| List-I (Emperor) | List-II (City of Tomb) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Babur | 4. Kabul (Bagh-e Babur, Afghanistan) |
| B. Humayun | 3. Delhi (Humayun's Tomb, Nizamuddin) |
| C. Jahangir | 2. Lahore (Shahdara Bagh, Pakistan) |
| D. Shah Jahan | 1. Agra (Taj Mahal, Uttar Pradesh) |
- Babur: Initially buried in Aram Bagh (Agra), his remains were later moved as per his will to his beloved garden Bagh-e Babur in Kabul.
- Humayun: His grand red-sandstone and marble mausoleum (precursor to the Taj Mahal) was built by his widow Bega Begum (Haji Begum) in Delhi.
- Jahangir: Buried at Shahdara Bagh on the banks of the Ravi River in Lahore, Pakistan (tomb constructed by his wife Nur Jahan).
- Shah Jahan: Entombed alongside his beloved empress Mumtaz Mahal inside the Taj Mahal in Agra.
Hence, the correct matching code is 4, 3, 2, 1.
Which of the following Ramsar wetland site is/are NOT situated in Uttar Pradesh? 1. Sarsai Nawar Jheel 2. Samaspur Bird Sanctuary 3. Rudrasagar Lake 4. Sultanpur National Park Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से रामसर आर्द्रभूमि स्थल उत्तर 2. लाइकेन प्रदृषित क्षेत्रों में अच्छी तरह से उगते हैं।प्रदेश में स्थित नहीं है/हैं? नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:1. सरसई AR झील me:
Evaluation of Ramsar Wetland Sites and their State locations:
- Sarsai Nawar Jheel: A permanent freshwater marsh situated in the Etawah district of Uttar Pradesh (Ramsar site since 2019, key habitat for Sarus Crane). [Located in UP]
- Samaspur Bird Sanctuary: A perennial wetland situated in the Rae Bareli district of Uttar Pradesh (Ramsar site since 2019). [Located in UP]
- Rudrasagar Lake: A prominent lowland wetland situated in the Melaghar region of Tripura (houses the famous Neermahal palace; Ramsar site since 2005). [NOT in UP]
- Sultanpur National Park: A renowned bird wetland sanctuary situated in the Gurugram district of Haryana (designated a Ramsar site in 2021). [NOT in UP]
Therefore, the Ramsar sites that are NOT situated in Uttar Pradesh are Rudrasagar Lake (3) and Sultanpur National Park (4).
With reference to the National Green Tribunal, consider the following statements: 1. The National Green Tribunal Act was enacted by Parliament in 2010. 2. The Tribunal became operational in 2011 with its principal bench at New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
राष्ट्रीय हरित अधिकरण (NGT) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. राष्ट्रीय हरित अधिकरण अधिनियम संसद द्वारा 2010 में पारित किया गया था। 2. यह अधिकरण 2011 में नई दिल्ली में अपनी प्रधान पीठ के साथ क्रियाशील हुआ। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Parliament enacted the National Green Tribunal Act in 2010 under India's constitutional commitment to a healthy environment under Article 21. The NGT was formally notified and became fully functional in 2011, establishing its Principal Bench in New Delhi alongside zonal benches.
The Global Financial Stability Report is released by which among the following? 1. International Monetary Fund 2. World Economic Forum 3. World Bank Select the correct answer from the code given below:
वैश्विक वित्तीय स्थिरता रिपोर्ट (Global Financial Stability Report) निम्नलिखित में से किसके द्वारा जारी की जाती है? 1. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष (IMF) 2. विश्व आर्थिक मंच (WEF) 3. विश्व बैंक नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR) is a prestigious semi-annual report prepared and published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) (released in April and October each year).
- The GFSR provides an in-depth assessment of the global financial system and markets, highlighting vulnerabilities in sovereign debt, banking systems, corporate borrowing, and emerging market capital flows.
- Other major IMF flagship reports include the World Economic Outlook (WEO) and the Fiscal Monitor.
- In contrast, the World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Report and Global Risks Report, while the World Bank releases the Global Economic Prospects.
Therefore, the GFSR is published by the International Monetary Fund (Only 1).
With reference to important lakes of India, consider the following statements: 1. Chilika Lake is the largest coastal lagoon of India. 2. Wular Lake is a freshwater lake in Jammu and Kashmir. 3. Sambhar Lake is a freshwater lake in Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की महत्वपूर्ण झीलों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. चिल्का झील भारत की सबसे बड़ी तटीय लैगून झील है। 2. वुलर झील जम्मू और कश्मीर में स्थित एक मीठे पानी की झील है। 3. सांभर झील राजस्थान में स्थित एक मीठे पानी की झील है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct because Chilika Lake in Odisha is the largest brackish water coastal lagoon in India and Asia, and Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir is one of the largest natural freshwater lakes in Asia formed by tectonic activity and fed by the Jhelum River. Statement 3 is incorrect because Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan is India's largest inland hypersaline lake, producing a major portion of Rajasthan's salt.
With reference to the Lokpal movement of 2011, consider the following statements: 1. Anna Hazare began a fast at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi in April 2011 demanding a strong Lokpal Bill. 2. The Jan Lokpal Bill proposed by civil society demanded that the office of the Prime Minister be brought within the ambit of the Lokpal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2011 के लोकपाल आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अन्ना हजारे ने एक प्रभावी लोकपाल विधेयक की मांग को लेकर अप्रैल 2011 में नई दिल्ली के जंतर-मंतर पर अनशन शुरू किया था। 2. नागरिक समाज द्वारा प्रस्तावित जन लोकपाल विधेयक में प्रधानमंत्री के पद को लोकपाल के दायरे में लाने की मांग की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In April 2011, social activist Anna Hazare launched an indefinite hunger strike at Jantar Mantar that galvanized the India Against Corruption movement. A key demand of their Jan Lokpal Bill was the inclusion of the Prime Minister and the higher judiciary under the investigative purview of an independent ombudsman.
With reference to 'Brazil' which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The equatorial rainforests of Brazil are called "Selvas'. 2. The dark black colour fertile land here is called "Terra Roxa. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
“ब्राजील' के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन A. ll at ce aa. ओम बिडलासही है/हें? 8. 2 वीं लोक सभा 2. Wa, संगमाlL. ब्राजील के भूमध्य tata वर्षावनों को ‘dea’ कहते 0. 4 वीं लोक सभा 3. सोमनाथ चटर्जीहैं। े 9. ॥7 वीं लोक सभा 4. जी.एम.सी. बालयोगी
Geographical analysis of Brazil's biomes and soils:
- Statement 1 is correct: The dense, multi-layered evergreen equatorial rainforests of the Amazon Basin in northern Brazil are locally and globally known as the Selvas (Portuguese/Spanish for forest). These rainforests are often referred to as the 'Lungs of the Earth' due to their massive oxygen output and carbon sequestration.
- Statement 2 is correct: The exceptionally fertile, dark purplish-red to deep black volcanic soil found in the Paraná basin of southern Brazil (São Paulo and Paraná states) is known as Terra Roxa (from Italian terra rossa, red earth). Derived from weathered basaltic lava, Terra Roxa is rich in iron, humus, and potash, providing the ideal pedological foundation for Brazil's world-leading coffee plantations (Fazendas).
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Match List - I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Finance List-II (Chairman) Commission) A. Eleventh 1. Dr. C. Rangarajan B. Twelfth 2. Dr. Y. V. Reddy C. Thirteenth 3. Prof. A. M. Khusro D. Fourteenth 4. Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar Code: A B C D
सूची-IIl-] को सूची-]] से के नीचे दिए गए कूट का सुमेलित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही 88? हेकीजिए और सूचियों प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए। |सूची- (वित्त आयोग) सूची-II (अध्यक्ष) L. प्रथम कर्नाटक युद्ध समाप्त हुआ।A. ग्यारहवाँ a सी. रंगराजन 2. मद्रास अंग्रेजों को वापस कर दिया गया।
Detailed match between Finance Commissions and their Chairmen:
| List-I (Finance Commission) | List-II (Chairman) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Eleventh Finance Commission | 3. Prof. A. M. Khusro (1998–2000) |
| B. Twelfth Finance Commission | 1. Dr. C. Rangarajan (2002–2004) |
| C. Thirteenth Finance Commission | 4. Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar (2007–2009) |
| D. Fourteenth Finance Commission | 2. Dr. Y. V. Reddy (2013–2015) |
- 11th FC (A.M. Khusro): Recommended devolution for 2000–2005 (29.5% state share).
- 12th FC (C. Rangarajan): Recommended devolution for 2005–2010 (increased state share to 30.5% and introduced fiscal responsibility debt-swap schemes).
- 13th FC (Vijay Kelkar): Recommended devolution for 2010–2015 (32% state share, promoted GST implementation framework).
- 14th FC (Y.V. Reddy): Recommended devolution for 2015–2020 (landmark jump in untied devolution to 42%).
(The 15th FC was chaired by N.K. Singh, and 16th FC by Dr. Arvind Panagariya).
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 1, 4, 2.
Which among the following is/are NOT a social indicator of poverty? 1. Illiteracy 2. Safe drinking water 3. Job opportunities 4. Size of the house Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन निर्धनता का सामाजिक संकेतक नहीं $ हिहै? 2. कोलोन - राइनl. निरक्षरता 2. सुरक्षित पेयजल 3. न्यू ऑरलियन्स - मिसौरी
Social indicators of poverty analysis:
- In sociological and development economics (as outlined in NCERT Class 9 Poverty as a Challenge and UNDP methodologies), poverty is examined through social indicators beyond mere income and consumption levels.
- Established Social Indicators of Poverty include:
- Illiteracy level (lack of education and cognitive development)
- Lack of access to safe drinking water and sanitation
- Lack of job opportunities (unemployment and precarious livelihood)
- Malnutrition and lack of general resistance to diseases
- Size of the house is a physical housing characteristic / material asset parameter, NOT a recognized social indicator of poverty.
Therefore, the parameter that is NOT a social indicator of poverty is Only 4 (Size of the house).
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List - I (Lok Sabha) List - II (Lok Sabha Speaker) A. 11th Lok Sabha 1. Om Birla B. 12th Lok Sabha 2. P. A. Sangma C. 14th Lok Sabha 3. Somnath Chatterjee D. 17th Lok Sabha 4. G.M.C. Balyogi Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (लोकसभा) A. 11वीं लोकसभा B. 12वीं लोकसभा C. 14वीं लोकसभा D. 17वीं लोकसभा सूची-II (लोकसभा अध्यक्ष) 1. ओम बिरला 2. पी. ए. संगमा 3. सोमनाथ चटर्जी 4. जी. एम. सी. बालयोगी कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between Lok Sabha terms and their respective Speakers:
| List-I (Lok Sabha) | List-II (Speaker) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. 11th Lok Sabha (1996–1997) | 2. P. A. Sangma |
| B. 12th Lok Sabha (1998–1999) | 4. G. M. C. Balayogi |
| C. 14th Lok Sabha (2004–2009) | 3. Somnath Chatterjee |
| D. 17th Lok Sabha (2019–2024) | 1. Om Birla |
- 11th Lok Sabha: Purno Agitok Sangma was unanimously elected Speaker in 1996, becoming the first tribal and Northeast leader to hold the office.
- 12th Lok Sabha: G.M.C. Balayogi (TDP) was elected Speaker in 1998 (and re-elected in 13th Lok Sabha until his tragic death in 2002), becoming the first Dalit Speaker.
- 14th Lok Sabha: Somnath Chatterjee (CPI-M) served with great distinction as Speaker from 2004 to 2009.
- 17th Lok Sabha: Om Birla (BJP MP from Kota) served as Speaker from 2019 to 2024 (and was re-elected in the 18th Lok Sabha).
Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 4, 3, 1.
With reference to the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, 1748, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The first Carnatic war ended.. 2. Madras was returned to the British. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
एक्स-ला-चौपल 748 की सन्धि के संद' म्नलिखित
Historical provisions and consequences of the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (1748):
- Statement 1 is correct: The First Carnatic War (1746–1748)—which was an extension of the War of the Austrian Succession in Europe between Britain and France—was formally brought to an end by the signing of the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle in October 1748.
- Statement 2 is correct: Under the terms of the treaty, the French agreed to restore Madras to the British in exchange for the British returning the fortress of Louisbourg (Cape Breton Island in North America) back to France.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ? (City) (River) 1. Budapest - Danube 2. Cologne - Rhine 3. New Orleans - Missouri 4. Hyderabad (India) - Paleru Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित नहीं है/हैं? (नगर) (नदी) 1. बुडापेस्ट - डेन्यूब 2. कोलोन - राइन 3. न्यू ऑरलियन्स - मिसौरी 4. हैदराबाद (भारत) - पालेरू नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Evaluation of Cities and their Riparian Rivers:
- Budapest: Capital of Hungary, situated grandly on the Danube River. Correctly matched.
- Cologne (Köln): Major historical city in western Germany, situated on the Rhine River. Correctly matched.
- New Orleans: Major port city in Louisiana, USA, situated on the delta of the Mississippi River, NOT the Missouri River. (The Missouri is a tributary that joins the Mississippi near St. Louis, hundreds of miles north). Thus, pair 3 is NOT correctly matched.
- Hyderabad (India): Historic capital of Telangana, situated on the banks of the Musi River, NOT Paleru. (Paleru is a minor tributary of the Krishna in Khammam district). Thus, pair 4 is NOT correctly matched.
Therefore, the pairs that are NOT correctly matched are Only 3 and 4.
With reference to 'Baking Soda', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is Sodium hydrogen carbonate. 2. It is used in fire extinguishers. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
“बेकिंग सोडा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से | 73. 'केचुए के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथनकथन सही हे/हैं? सही है/हैं?L. यह सोडियम हाइड्रोजन कार्बोनेट है। L. केचुए मिट्टी की उर्वरता को बढ़ाते हैं और किसानों के
Chemical properties and applications of Baking Soda:
- Statement 1 is correct: Baking soda is chemically known as Sodium hydrogen carbonate (or sodium bicarbonate), having the chemical formula NaHCO3. It is produced industrially via the Solvay process using brine, ammonia, and carbon dioxide.
- Statement 2 is correct: Baking soda is an active constituent in soda-acid fire extinguishers. In these extinguishers, sodium hydrogen carbonate solution reacts with sulfuric acid (H2SO4) to instantaneously generate a vigorous volume of carbon dioxide (CO2) gas, which blankets the flames and extinguishes the fire by starving it of atmospheric oxygen:
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Which of the following prepared the Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 ? 1. Central Pollution Control Board 2. Central Water Commission) 3. Central Groundwater Board Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से किसके द्वारा वार्षिक भूजल गुणवत्ता रिपोर्ट (0) । और 2 दोनों (1) केवल |2024 तैयार की गई? 74. निम्नलिखित संतों को सही कालक्रमानुसार क्रम में व्यवस्थितL. केन्द्रीय प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड कीजिए तथा नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए।
The Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 was prepared and published by the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), a subordinate office of the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India.
- CGWB is the national apex technical agency entrusted with assessing, monitoring, exploring, and regulating groundwater quality, water tables, and aquifer management across India.
- The report monitors critical contaminants like arsenic, fluoride, salinity (EC), nitrate, and heavy metals across thousands of dedicated National Hydrograph Monitoring Stations.
- The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) focuses broadly on surface water and ambient air standards, while the Central Water Commission (CWC) specializes in surface water resources and dam safety.
Therefore, the report was prepared by the Central Ground Water Board (Only 3).
Who among the following were the members of the Fazal Ali Commission? 1. K. T. Shah 2. K. M. Panikkar 3. P. Sitaramaiah 4. H. N. Kunjaru Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
Who among the following were the members of the सूची-Izal Al Commission? 1. K. T. Shah 2. K. M. Pan kkar 3. P. S tarama ah 4. H. N. Kunjaru Select the correct answer from the code g ven below: Code:
Historical composition of the States Reorganisation Commission (Fazal Ali Commission), 1953:
- In December 1953, the Government of India appointed a three-member States Reorganisation Commission under the chairmanship of retired Supreme Court Chief Justice Fazal Ali to examine the question of the reorganisation of the states on a linguistic basis.
- Its other two distinguished members were:
- K. M. Panikkar (distinguished diplomat, scholar, and historian) [Statement 2]
- H. N. Kunzru (Pandit Hriday Nath Kunzru, renowned parliamentarian and social worker) [Statement 4]
- (K.T. Shah was an economist and prominent member of the Constituent Assembly; Pattabhi Sitaramayya was a member of the earlier JVP Committee [Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, Pattabhi Sitaramayya] of 1948).
Therefore, the members of the Fazal Ali Commission were K. M. Panikkar (2) and H. N. Kunzru (4).
Pandit Hriday Nath Kunzru was a celebrated political thinker from Uttar Pradesh and served as a Member of Parliament and president of the Servants of India Society in Prayagraj.
P. Sitaramayya was in the JVP Committee (1948), not the Fazal Ali Commission (1953).
- Formed: December 1953, Submitted report: September 1955
- Chairman: Justice Fazal Ali
- Members: K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru
- Led to: 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 and States Reorganisation Act, 1956 creating 14 states and 6 UTs
The three members of the States Reorganisation Commission are universally memorized as Fazal Ali, Panikkar, and Kunzru. Thus 2 and 4 (Option B) is correct.
Consider the following and arrange them in the correct chronological order. 1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation 2. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission 3. Jal Jeevan Mission 4. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code?
निम्नलिखित पर विचार करें तथा उन्हें सही कालक्रमानुसार | 76. बहु-आयामी गरीबी सूचकांक के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित मेंक्रम में व्यवस्थित करें। से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हें?L. अटल कायाकल्प और शहरी परिवर्तन मिशन L. इसे 20I0 में विकसित और प्रस्तुत किया गया।
Correct Answer: Option (A) — 2, 4, 1, 3 Chronological order of Urban and Water Development Missions in India: 1. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM): Launched on 3 December 2005 by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh to upgrade urban infrastructure across 63 mission cities. 2. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy (NUHHP): Formulated and notified in 2007 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation to promote affordable housing. 3. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT): Launched on 25 June 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to provide universal water supply and sewerage connections across 500 cities. 4. Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM): Announced on 15 August 2019 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural home (Har Ghar Jal) by 2024. Correct chronological sequence: JNNURM (2, 2005) → NUHHP (4, 2007) → AMRUT (1, 2015) → Jal Jeevan Mission (3, 2019), which is 2, 4, 1, 3.
With reference to 'earthworms', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Earthworms improves soil fertility and are known as farmer's friends. 2. Earthworm has two pair of hearts. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
'केंचुए' के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. केंचुए मिट्टी की उर्वरता बढ़ाते हैं और किसानों के मित्र के रूप में जाने जाते हैं। 2. केंचुए में दो जोड़ी हृदय होते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Anatomical and ecological evaluation of *Earthworms (Pheretima posthuma)*:
- Statement 1 is correct: Earthworms continuously burrow through soil, creating aeration channels that facilitate root respiration and water infiltration. By digesting leaf litter and organic matter, they excrete nutrient-rich castings containing available nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, earning them the universal title of 'Farmer's Friends' and forming the biological basis of vermicomposting.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: An earthworm possesses four pairs (a total of 8) of pseudo-hearts (lateral hearts in segments 7 and 9, and lateral oesophageal hearts in segments 12 and 13), NOT two pairs. They pump blood from the dorsal vessel to the ventral vessel.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
Earthworms have a closed circulatory system with 4 pairs (8 hearts), not 2 pairs.
- Phylum: Annelida
- Scientific name: Pheretima posthuma
- Hearts: 4 pairs (segments 7, 9, 12, 13)
- Respiration: Cutaneous (through moist skin)
- Blood pigment: Hemoglobin dissolved in blood plasma (no RBCs)
Statement 2 falsely claims two pairs of hearts instead of four pairs. Eliminating 2 leaves (d) Only 1.
Arrange the following saints in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below: 1. Nanak 2. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu 3. Namdev 4. Kabir
निम्नलिखित संतों को सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए तथा नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: 1. नानक 2. चैतन्य महाप्रभु 3. नामदेव 4. कबीर
Chronological order of Medieval Bhakti Movement Saints:
- Namdev (c. 1270–1350 CE): Varkari saint-poet from Maharashtra dedicated to Lord Vithoba (Pandharpur); his hymns are included in the Guru Granth Sahib.
- Kabir (c. 1398–1518 CE / 15th Century): Nirguna Bhakti mystic-poet of Varanasi who preached unity of God and rejected external rituals and caste orthodoxies.
- Guru Nanak Dev (1469–1539 CE): Born at Talwandi (Nankana Sahib); founder of Sikhism and proponent of Ik Onkar (One God).
- Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534 CE): Vaishnava saint and mystic of Bengal who popularized Gaudiya Vaishnavism, ecstatic Kirtana, and the worship of Radha-Krishna.
Correct chronological sequence: Namdev (3, 13th/14th century) → Kabir (4, early 15th century) → Guru Nanak (1, born 1469) → Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (2, born 1486), which is 3, 4, 1, 2.
Consider the following pairs: National Park — State/UT 1. Hemis National Park — Ladakh 2. Silent Valley National Park — Tamil Nadu 3. Namdapha National Park — Assam Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: राष्ट्रीय उद्यान — राज्य/केंद्र शासित प्रदेश 1. हेमिस राष्ट्रीय उद्यान — लद्दाख 2. साइलेंट वैली राष्ट्रीय उद्यान — तमिलनाडु 3. नामदफा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान — असम उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं?
Only pair 1 is correctly matched. Hemis National Park, famous for snow leopards and the largest national park in India, is situated in the Union Territory of Ladakh. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because Silent Valley National Park, situated in the Nilgiri Hills, is located in the Palakkad district of Kerala. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched because Namdapha National Park, renowned for its all four big cat species, is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh, not Assam.
With reference to 'Multidimensional Poverty Index', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was developed and introduced in 2010. 2. It measures extreme poverty and includes those living on less than one dollar per day. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
'बहुआयामी गरीबी सूचकांक' (MPI) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. इसे 2010 में विकसित और प्रस्तुत किया गया था। 2. यह अत्यधिक गरीबी को मापता है और इसमें प्रति दिन एक डॉलर से कम पर रहने वाले लोगों को शामिल किया जाता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Analysis of the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
- Statement 1 is correct: The global Multidimensional Poverty Index was developed and introduced in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) for the Human Development Report, replacing the former Human Poverty Index (HPI).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: MPI does NOT measure monetary/income poverty based on the World Bank's 'one dollar per day' (or updated $2.15/day) extreme poverty threshold. Instead, MPI measures overlapping acute deprivations that poor people experience simultaneously across 10 non-income indicators structured under three equal dimensions: Health (Nutrition, Child mortality), Education (Years of schooling, School attendance), and Living Standards (Cooking fuel, Sanitation, Drinking water, Electricity, Housing, Assets).
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the Preamble of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act. 2. The Preamble has been amended only once since the Constitution came into force. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के संविधान की उद्देशिका के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 42वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम द्वारा उद्देशिका में 'समाजवादी' और 'पंथनिरपेक्ष' शब्द जोड़े गए थे। 2. संविधान के लागू होने के बाद से उद्देशिका में अब तक केवल एक बार संशोधन किया गया है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added three new terms—'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity'—to the Preamble. This 1976 amendment remains the only instance in which the Preamble has been amended.
With reference to the Himalayan rivers, consider the following statements: 1. The Indus rises near Lake Mansarovar in Tibet. 2. The Brahmaputra enters India in the state of Assam. 3. The Ganga is formed at Gangotri by the confluence of the Alaknanda and the Mandakini. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
हिमालयी नदियों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सिंधु नदी तिब्बत में मानसरोवर झील के निकट से निकलती है। 2. ब्रह्मपुत्र नदी असम राज्य से होकर भारत में प्रवेश करती है। 3. गंगा नदी गंगोत्री में अलकनंदा और मंदाकिनी के संगम से बनती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the Indus originates in the Tibetan plateau near Lake Mansarovar from the Bokhar Chu glacier. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Tsangpo (Brahmaputra) enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through the Namcha Barwa gorge as the Siang/Dihang, before descending into Assam. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Ganga is formed at Devprayag by the confluence of the Bhagirathi and the Alaknanda, not at Gangotri.
Arrange the following events in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below. 1. Battle of Kannauj 2. Battle of Daurah 3. Battle of Samugarh 4. Battle of Chausa Code:
निम्नलिखित घटनाओं को सही कालक्रमानुसार क्रम में समिति बी. अम्बेडकरव्यवस्थित कौजिए तथा नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर को 8. प्रारूप सा 3. डॉ. बी. आर. अम्बेडकरचुनिए। D. मौलिक अधिकार 4. जवाहरलाल नेहरूउप-समितिL. कननीज का युद्ध 2. दौराह का युद्ध ws
Chronological sequence of Mughal-era battles:
- Battle of Daurah (Dohrariya) (1532 CE): Fought on the Gomti River near Jaunpur, where young Mughal Emperor Humayun decisively defeated the Afghan confederacy led by Mahmud Lodi.
- Battle of Chausa (26 June 1539 CE): Fought on the banks of the Karmnasa River near Buxar, where Sher Khan (Sher Shah Suri) inflicted a crushing defeat on Humayun, who escaped by swimming across the Ganga with the help of a water-carrier (Nizam).
- Battle of Kannauj (Bilgram) (17 May 1540 CE): Fought near Kannauj, Uttar Pradesh; Sher Shah decisively routed Humayun, driving him into 15 years of Persian exile and establishing the Sur Empire.
- Battle of Samugarh (29 May 1658 CE): Decisive battle of the Mughal war of succession fought near Agra, where Aurangzeb and Murad Bakhsh routed the imperial forces of crown prince Dara Shikoh.
Correct sequence: Daurah (2, 1532) → Chausa (4, 1539) → Kannauj (1, 1540) → Samugarh (3, 1658), which is 2, 4, 1, 3.
Which of the following statements with reference to 'blood' is/are correct? 1. Blood is composed of plasma and different types of cells. 2. The presence of haemoglobin makes blood appear red. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
‘te’ के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन (व 2 3 ‘सही है/हैं? 83. निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए तथा उन्हें सही कालक्रमानुसारLTH प्लाज्मा और विभिन्न प्रकार की कोशिकाओं से क्रम में व्यवस्थित कौजिए।बना होता है। L. जवाहर रोजगार योजना
Physiological characteristics of human blood:
- Statement 1 is correct: Blood is a specialized liquid connective tissue consisting of a straw-colored, viscous fluid matrix called plasma (constituting ~55% of blood volume) and formed cellular elements (~45% of blood volume), which comprise erythrocytes (RBCs), leukocytes (WBCs), and thrombocytes (platelets).
- Statement 2 is correct: Red blood cells contain a high concentration of haemoglobin, an iron-containing complex conjugated metalloprotein. When haemoglobin binds with oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries, the iron (Fe2+) coordinates light absorption in the blue-green spectrum and reflects bright red wavelengths, imparting the characteristic red color to blood.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
With reference to nuclear energy in India, consider the following statements: 1. India's operating power reactors are mainly pressurized heavy water reactors using natural uranium. 2. The third stage of India's nuclear power programme is based on plutonium-fuelled fast reactors. 3. The Kudankulam nuclear power plant has been built with Russian collaboration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में परमाणु ऊर्जा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत के अधिकांश परिचालन विद्युत रिएक्टर प्राकृतिक यूरेनियम का उपयोग करने वाले दाबित भारी जल रिएक्टर (PHWR) हैं। 2. भारत के परमाणु ऊर्जा कार्यक्रम का तीसरा चरण प्लूटोनियम-ईंधन वाले फास्ट रिएक्टरों पर आधारित है। 3. कुडनकुलम परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र का निर्माण रूसी सहयोग से किया गया है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The backbone of India's commercial nuclear fleet comprises indigenous Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) fuelled by natural uranium and moderated by heavy water, and the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant in Tamil Nadu features VVER-1000 reactors constructed with technical cooperation from Russia. Statement 2 is incorrect because the second stage employs plutonium-fuelled Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs), whereas the third stage is designed to utilize India's vast thorium reserves in advanced thorium-based reactors.
Match List - I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Committees of Constituent Assembly) List - II (Chairman of Committees) A. Union Constitution 1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad Committee B. Rules of Procedure 2. J. B. Kripalani Committee C. Drafting Committee 3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar D. Fundamental 4. Jawaharlal Nehru Rights Sub- committee Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (संविधान सभा की समितियाँ) A. संघ संविधान समिति B. प्रक्रिया नियम समिति C. प्रारूप समिति D. मूल अधिकार उप-समिति सूची-II (समितियों के अध्यक्ष) 1. डॉ. राजेंद्र प्रसाद 2. जे. बी. कृपलानी 3. डॉ. बी. आर. अंबेडकर 4. जवाहरलाल नेहरू कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between Committees of the Constituent Assembly and their Chairmen:
| List-I (Committee) | List-II (Chairman) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Union Constitution Committee | 4. Jawaharlal Nehru |
| B. Rules of Procedure Committee | 1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad |
| C. Drafting Committee | 3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar |
| D. Fundamental Rights Sub-committee | 2. J. B. Kripalani |
- Union Constitution Committee: Chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru (who also chaired the Union Powers Committee and States Committee).
- Rules of Procedure Committee: Chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (who was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly and also chaired the Steering Committee).
- Drafting Committee: Set up on 29 August 1947, chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (consisting of 7 members).
- Fundamental Rights Sub-committee: Chaired by J.B. Kripalani (under the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel).
Hence, the correct matching code is 4, 1, 3, 2.
Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order: 1. Jawahar Rojgar Yojana 2. Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA) 3. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) 4. National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) Select the correct answer from the code given below:
निम्नलिखित पर विचार कीजिए तथा उन्हें सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 1. जवाहर रोजगार योजना 2. ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में महिला एवं बाल विकास (DWCRA) 3. एकीकृत ग्रामीण विकास कार्यक्रम (IRDP) 4. राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण रोजगार कार्यक्रम (NREP) नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Chronological order of Rural Development and Employment Programmes in India:
- Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP): Initially conceptualized in 1978–79 and launched nationwide on 2 October 1980 to provide self-employment assets through subsidy and bank credit.
- National Rural Employment Programme (NREP): Launched in October 1980 (restructuring the Food for Work Programme) to generate gainful wage employment in rural areas.
- Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA): Launched in September 1982 as a special sub-scheme of IRDP to empower rural women through group-based income-generating activities.
- Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (JRY): Launched on 1 April 1989 by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi by merging NREP and RLEGP to guarantee rural wage employment at the village panchayat level.
Correct chronological sequence: IRDP (3, 1978/1980) → NREP (4, 1980) → DWCRA (2, 1982) → JRY (1, 1989), which is 3, 4, 2, 1.
Which of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with only one other district of Uttar Pradesh? 1. Lalitpur 2. Saharanpur 3. Sonbhadra Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
उत्तर प्रदेश के निम्नलिखित जिलों में से कौन-सा/से जिले, @ 3 4 हिउत्तर प्रदेश के केवल एक अन्य जिले के साथ अपनी सीमा | 57. सिन्धु घाटी सभ्यता से सम्बन्धित निम्नलिखित पुरातात्विकसाझा करते है/हैं? स्थलों में से कौन आज के उत्तर प्रदेश में स्थित हैं?L. ललितपुर L. मंडी
Geographical boundary analysis of Uttar Pradesh districts:
- Lalitpur: Forms a southern peninsula jutting deep into Madhya Pradesh. It is bounded on three sides (north, west, and south) by Madhya Pradesh (districts of Tikamgarh, Chhatarpur, Sagar, Ashoknagar, and Shivpuri). Within Uttar Pradesh, Lalitpur shares its boundary with only ONE district: Jhansi.
- Saharanpur: Located at the northernmost tip of UP. Within Uttar Pradesh, Saharanpur borders two districts: Muzaffarnagar and Shamli (along with 3 states: Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Haryana).
- Sonbhadra: Located at the southeastern tip of UP. Within Uttar Pradesh, Sonbhadra borders two districts: Mirzapur and Chandauli (along with 4 states: MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar).
Therefore, the only district that shares its boundary with ONLY ONE other district of Uttar Pradesh is Only 1 (Lalitpur).
With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Tenure of Panchayati Raj Institutions shall be of 5 years. 2. In Panchayati Raj Institutions, out of the seats reserved, 1/4 of the seats shall be reserved for women belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
भारत में पंचायती राज संस्थाओं के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में | 8° विश्व जल आपूर्ति के निम्नलिखित स्रोतों पर विचार कौजिएसे कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? तथा इन्हें अवरोही क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए।L. पंचायती राज संस्थाओं का कार्यकाल 5 वर्ष का होगा। [ महासागर 2. नदियाँ
Constitutional provisions for Panchayati Raj Institutions under Part IX:
- Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 243E(1) of the Constitution, every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 243D(2), not less than one-third (1/3) of the total number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes shall be reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or, as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes. Statement 2 erroneously specifies '1/4th'.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Writer) List-II (Book) A. Trivikram Bhatta 1. Gita Govinda B. Somdev 2. Brihatkathamanjari C. Jaidev 3. Nal Champu D. Kshemendra 4. Katha Sarit Sagar Code: A B C D
सूची-[ को सूची-ा से सुमेलित कीजिए तथा सूचियों के ।. लोक लेखा समितिनीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए। 2. प्रावकलन समितिसूची- (लेखक) सूची-ा (ग्रन्थ) 3. सार्वजनिक उपक्रम समितिA. त्रिविक्रम भट्ट tite गोविन्द नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Detailed match between Classical Sanskrit Authors and their Works:
| List-I (Author) | List-II (Book) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Trivikrama Bhatta | 3. Nala Champu |
| B. Somadeva | 4. Katha Sarit Sagara |
| C. Jayadeva | 1. Gita Govinda |
| D. Kshemendra | 2. Brihatkathamanjari |
- Trivikrama Bhatta: 10th-century Rashtrakuta court poet who composed Nala Champu (the earliest extant classical work in Champu kavya—a mixed verse-and-prose style).
- Somadeva: 11th-century Kashmiri poet who composed the monumental ocean of folk-stories, Katha Sarit Sagara (based on Gunadhya's lost Prakrit Brihatkatha).
- Jayadeva: 12th-century poet in the court of King Lakshmana Sena of Bengal who authored the immortal devotional lyrical masterpiece Gita Govinda.
- Kshemendra: Celebrated 11th-century polymath and literary scholar from Kashmir who composed the Sanskrit narrative Brihatkathamanjari.
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 4, 1, 2.
Which of the following archaeological sites related to Indus Valley civilization are situated in present day Uttar Pradesh? 1. Mandi 2. Rakhigarhi 3. Hulas Select the correct answer from the code given below:
सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता से संबंधित निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से पुरातात्विक स्थल वर्तमान उत्तर प्रदेश में स्थित हैं? 1. मांडी 2. राखीगढ़ी 3. हुलास नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Archaeological analysis of Indus Valley / Harappan Civilization sites:
- Mandi: Located in the Muzaffarnagar district of Uttar Pradesh; in May 2000, agricultural laborers discovered a sensational hoard of Late Harappan gold ornaments, spacer beads, copper containers, and terracotta artefacts.
- Rakhigarhi: Located in the Hisar district of Haryana along the paleo-channel of the Drishadvati/Ghaggar river; it is the largest known Mature Harappan site in the Indian subcontinent. (It is NOT in UP).
- Hulas: Located in the Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh (excavated by K.N. Dikshit); an important Late Harappan site yielding distinct Harappan pottery, mud-brick structures, and cultivated grain residues (including wild and cultivated rice).
Therefore, the IVC sites situated in present-day Uttar Pradesh are Mandi (1) and Hulas (3).
With reference to committees and commissions in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Sachar Committee examined the social, economic and educational status of the Muslim community in India. 2. The Tendulkar Committee was constituted to review the methodology for the official estimation of poverty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में समितियों और आयोगों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सच्चर समिति ने भारत में मुस्लिम समुदाय की सामाजिक, आर्थिक और शैक्षणिक स्थिति की जांच की थी। 2. तेंदुलकर समिति का गठन गरीबी के आधिकारिक आकलन की कार्यप्रणाली की समीक्षा के लिए किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Rajindar Sachar Committee was appointed by the Prime Minister in 2005 and submitted its landmark report in November 2006 on the socio-economic and educational backwardness of Muslims in India. The Suresh Tendulkar Committee was appointed by the Planning Commission in 2005 and submitted its report in December 2009, moving away from uniform calorie intake anchors to include private expenditure on health and education for poverty line determination.
Which of the following is/are a Financial Committee of Parliament in India? 1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimate Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी भारत की संसद की वित्तीय समिति/समितियाँ है/हैं? 1. लोक लेखा समिति 2. प्राक्कलन समिति 3. सार्वजनिक उपक्रमों संबंधी समिति नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Parliamentary classification of Financial Committees in India:
- The Parliament of India constitutes three standing committees specifically categorized as Financial Committees:
- Public Accounts Committee (PAC): Constituted annually (22 members: 15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya Sabha) to examine the appropriation accounts and CAG audit reports.
- Estimates Committee: Constituted annually (30 members, exclusively from Lok Sabha) to examine budget estimates and suggest economies in public expenditure ('Continuous Economy Committee').
- Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU): Created in 1964 on the recommendations of the Krishna Menon Committee (22 members: 15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya Sabha) to examine reports and efficiency of public sector enterprises.
Therefore, all three (1, 2, and 3) are Financial Committees of the Parliament.
Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I (National Park/ List-II (State/Union Wildlife Sanctuary) Territory) A. Dachingam 1. Madhya Pradesh B. Keoladeo 2. Rajasthan C. Kanha 3. Kerala D. Periyar 4. Jammu and Kashmir Code: A B C D
सूची- को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए तथा सूचियों के | 93. तटरेखा आवास और मूर्त आय के लिए मेँग्रोव पहल (मिष्टी)नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए। के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/सूची- सूची-II हैं? 4(राष्ट्रीय उद्यान /वन््यजीव (राज्य/केन्द्र शासित प्रदेश) L. इसे 20॥9 में प्रारम्भ किया गया था।अभयारण्य) 2. इसका उद्देश्य मैंग्रोव वनों को पुनर्स्थापित करना है।A. दाचीगाम lL. मध्य प्रदेश नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए :
Detailed match between National Parks / Wildlife Sanctuaries and their States/UTs:
| List-I (Protected Area) | List-II (State / UT) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Dachigam National Park | 4. Jammu and Kashmir |
| B. Keoladeo Ghana National Park | 2. Rajasthan |
| C. Kanha National Park | 1. Madhya Pradesh |
| D. Periyar National Park | 3. Kerala |
- Dachigam: Located near Srinagar in Jammu & Kashmir; famous as the last remaining stronghold of the critically endangered Hangul (Kashmir Stag).
- Keoladeo Ghana: World-famous wetland and UNESCO World Heritage avifauna reserve situated in Bharatpur, Rajasthan (famed for Siberian crane winter migration).
- Kanha: Renowned tiger reserve and moist sal forest in Madhya Pradesh; celebrated for saving the hard-ground Barasingha (swamp deer) from extinction.
- Periyar: Elephant and tiger reserve situated around Periyar Lake in the Cardamom and Pandalam Hills of Kerala.
Hence, the correct matching code is 4, 2, 1, 3.
With reference to the economic measures taken in India during the COVID-19 pandemic in 2020, consider the following statements: 1. The Reserve Bank of India reduced the repo rate significantly during 2020. 2. A moratorium on term loan instalments was permitted from March to August 2020. 3. The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) was launched to support MSMEs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2020 में कोविड-19 महामारी के दौरान भारत में किए गए आर्थिक उपायों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक ने 2020 के दौरान रेपो दर में उल्लेखनीय कमी की थी। 2. मार्च से अगस्त 2020 तक सावधि ऋण किस्तों पर अधिस्थगन (moratorium) की अनुमति दी गई थी। 3. एमएसएमई को सहायता प्रदान करने के लिए आपातकालीन क्रेडिट लाइन गारंटी योजना (ECLGS) शुरू की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. In response to the economic disruption of COVID-19, the RBI reduced the repo rate by a cumulative 115 basis points down to 4.0% in early 2020. The central bank also granted commercial lenders regulatory permission to offer a six-month moratorium on term loan EMI payments running from 1 March to 31 August 2020. In May 2020, the Central Government launched the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) providing 100% government guarantee for collateral-free pre-approved operational loans to MSMEs.
Which of the following pair is/are NOT correctly matched ? (Dam) (River) 1. Baglihar Dam - Chenab 2. Pandoh Dam - Ravi 3. Srisailam Dam - Tungabhadra Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित नहीं है/ | 95. नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें एक को अभिकथन
Evaluation of Hydroelectric Dams and their Rivers:
- Baglihar Dam: A run-of-the-river hydroelectric power project constructed across the Chenab River in the Doda/Ramban district of Jammu & Kashmir. Correctly matched.
- Pandoh Dam: An earth and rock-fill embankment dam constructed on the Beas River in Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh (diverting Beas waters to the Sutlej via the Beas-Sutlej Link Project), NOT on the Ravi River. Thus, pair 2 is NOT correctly matched.
- Srisailam Dam: One of the largest hydroelectric dams in India, constructed across the Krishna River on the border between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, NOT on the Tungabhadra River. Thus, pair 3 is NOT correctly matched.
Therefore, the pairs that are NOT correctly matched are 2 and 3.
With reference to the H1N1 influenza outbreak of 2009, consider the following statements: 1. H1N1 influenza is caused by a virus. 2. It is a bacterial infection that can be cured with antibiotics. 3. The World Health Organization declared it a pandemic in June 2009. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2009 के H1N1 इन्फ्लूएंजा प्रकोप के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. H1N1 इन्फ्लूएंजा वायरस (विषाणु) के कारण होता है। 2. यह एक जीवाणु (बैक्टीरियल) संक्रमण है जिसे एंटीबायोटिक दवाओं से ठीक किया जा सकता है। 3. विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन ने जून 2009 में इसे महामारी घोषित किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The 2009 pandemic was caused by an Orthomyxoviridae family influenza A virus subtype H1N1, prompting Director-General Margaret Chan of the WHO to officially raise the pandemic alert to Phase 6 on 11 June 2009 as community transmission spread across multiple continents. Statement 2 is incorrect because H1N1 is an acute viral pathogen against which antibacterial antibiotics are wholly ineffective; clinical management relies on neuraminidase inhibitor antiviral agents like oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir.
With reference to government schemes launched in 2016, consider the following statements: 1. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana provides LPG connections to women from below-poverty-line households. 2. Stand Up India Scheme promotes entrepreneurship among Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women. 3. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana is a crop insurance scheme launched in 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2016 में शुरू की गई सरकारी योजनाओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. प्रधानमंत्री उज्ज्वला योजना गरीबी रेखा से नीचे (BPL) के परिवारों की महिलाओं को एलपीजी कनेक्शन प्रदान करती है। 2. स्टैंड अप इंडिया योजना अनुसूचित जाति, अनुसूचित जनजाति और महिला उद्यमियों के बीच उद्यमिता को बढ़ावा देती है। 3. प्रधानमंत्री फसल बीमा योजना 2016 में शुरू की गई एक व्यापक फसल बीमा योजना है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana was launched on 1 May 2016 at Ballia (UP) to provide deposit-free LPG connections to women of impoverished households; Stand Up India was launched on 5 April 2016 to facilitate bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore to SC, ST, and women greenfield entrepreneurs; and Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana was launched in February 2016 to offer low-premium comprehensive risk cover against crop failure.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The territories of the Sultanate could be broadly divided into two parts the Khalsa and the Jagirs. Reason (R): The Jagirs comprised of the land under the control of the State. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): सल्तनत के क्षेत्रों को मोटे तौर पर दो भागों में विभाजित किया जा सकता था - खालिसा और जागीर। कारण (R): जागीर के अंतर्गत वह भूमि आती थी जो सीधे राज्य के नियंत्रण में होती थी। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Under the Delhi Sultanate (and later the Mughal Empire), agrarian revenue-yielding land was broadly divided into two major structural categories:
- Khalisa (Crown land): Land managed directly by the central imperial administration, whose revenues were deposited straight into the royal treasury (Bait-ul-Mal).
- Iqtas / Jagirs: Territories assigned to military commanders, nobles, and officials (Iqtadars/Muqtis/Jagirdars) in lieu of cash salary, from which they collected revenue to maintain troops and administrative overheads.
It was the Khalisa land that comprised land under the direct revenue control and management of the State/Sultan. In contrast, Jagirs/Iqtas were assigned to nobles and were under the decentralized revenue-collection control of the assignees, not under direct state revenue administration. Therefore, (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Awardee 2025) List-II (Padmavibhushan Fields 2025) A. Trade and Industry 1. Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam B. Literature and Education 2. Shri Osamu Suzuki C. Medicine 3. Shri M. Т. Vasudevan Nair D. Art 4. Shri D. Nageshwar Reddy Code: A B C D
FA-I को सूची-II] से सुमेलित कौजिए तथा सूचियों के तथा दूसरे को कारण (2) कहा गया है।नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए। अभिकथन (4): राष्ट्रीय एकता की अवधारणा में राजनीतिक,सूची-II सूची-II आर्थिक, सामाजिक, सांस्कृतिक एवं मनोवैज्ञानिक आयाम(पद्मविभूषण क्षेत्र 2025) (विजेता 2025) तथा उनके बीच आंतरिक सम्बन्ध सम्मिलित हैं।A. व्यापार और उद्योग lL. श्री लक्ष्मीनारायण कारण (2): राष्ट्रीय एकता परिषद का गठन 96 मेंसुब्रमण्यम “अनेकता में एकता' के सिद्धान्त के आधार पर किया गया।
Detailed match between Padma Vibhushan Awardees and their respective Fields:
| List-I (Awardee) | List-II (Field) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Trade and Industry | 2. Shri Osamu Suzuki |
| B. Literature and Education | 3. Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair |
| C. Medicine | 4. Shri D. Nageshwar Reddy |
| D. Art | 1. Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam |
- Trade and Industry: Osamu Suzuki (former Chairman of Suzuki Motor Corporation, Japan) awarded for revolutionizing India's automobile landscape through Maruti Suzuki.
- Literature and Education: M.T. Vasudevan Nair, iconic Malayalam novelist, scriptwriter, and Jnanpith laureate.
- Medicine: Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy, world-renowned gastroenterologist and founder-chairman of the Asian Institute of Gastroenterology (AIG Hospitals), Hyderabad.
- Art: Dr. L. Subramaniam, celebrated virtuoso Carnatic violinist, composer, and conductor.
Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 3, 4, 1.
Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 in which of the following State(s)? 1. Rajasthan 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Uttarakhand Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
मई 2025 में पुष्कर कुंभ मेला 2025 का आयोजन तत्वों पर विचार कीजिए तथा इन्हें सही बढ़ते क्रम मेंनिम्नलिखित में से किन राज्य/राज्यों में किया गया था? व्यवस्थित कौजिए। पोटेशियम।. राजस्थान L. सोडियम 2. हि 'शियम
The Pushkar Kumbh Mela is celebrated at the holy sacred town of Pushkar in Ajmer district, Rajasthan.
- Pushkar is home to the world's most famous and rarest ancient temple dedicated to Lord Brahma (Jagatpita Brahma Mandir) and the sacred Pushkar Sarovar (lake).
- The special astrological confluence of the Pushkar Maha Kumbh / Pushkar Mela occurs in Rajasthan along the sands and ghats of Pushkar Lake.
Therefore, the Pushkar Kumbh Mela was held in Rajasthan (Only 1).
With reference to planning in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Planning Commission was set up in 1950 by a resolution of the Union Cabinet. 2. The First Five Year Plan (1951-56) was based on the Harrod-Domar model. 3. The Second Five Year Plan accorded the highest priority to agriculture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में नियोजन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. योजना आयोग की स्थापना 1950 में केंद्रीय मंत्रिमंडल के एक प्रस्ताव द्वारा की गई थी। 2. प्रथम पंचवर्षीय योजना (1951-56) हेरोड-डोमर मॉडल पर आधारित थी। 3. द्वितीय पंचवर्षीय योजना ने कृषि को सर्वोच्च प्राथमिकता दी थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Planning Commission was established as an extra-constitutional, non-statutory body in March 1950 through an executive resolution of the Government of India, and the First Five Year Plan focused on post-war rehabilitation and agriculture guided by the Harrod-Domar growth formulation. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Second Five Year Plan (1956-61), based on the Nehru-Mahalanobis model, prioritized rapid industrialization with a prime focus on heavy and basic capital goods industries.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The concept of National Integration involves political, economic, social, cultural and psychological dimensions and inter-relation between them. Reason (R): The National Integration Council was constituted in 1961 on the principle of 'Unity in Diversity'. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): संविधान की मूल संरचना की अवधारणा केशवानंद भारती मामले में सर्वोच्च न्यायालय द्वारा प्रतिपादित की गई थी। कारण (R): संसद संविधान के किसी भी भाग में संशोधन नहीं कर सकती। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The concept of National Integration is a comprehensive, multifaceted process encompassing political unification, economic solidarity, social equality, cultural synthesis, and a collective psychological sense of shared national identity and patriotism.
, but is NOT the correct explanation of (A): The National Integration Council (NIC) was established in 1961 following a National Integration Conference convened by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to address communalism, casteism, regionalism, and linguistic chauvinism, rooted in the foundational principle of 'Unity in Diversity'. While both statements are undeniably true facts, Reason (R) describes a specific institutional historical event (the 1961 council meeting), which does NOT causally or analytically explain the structural, multi-dimensional definition of National Integration stated in (A). Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (Mining centre) A. Kolar B. Bailadila C. Digboi D. Jharia List-II (Mineral and State) 1. Gold - Karnataka 2. Iron ore - Chhattisgarh 3. Petroleum - Assam 4. Coal - Jharkhand Code:
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (खनन केंद्र) A. कोलार B. बैलाडीला C. डिगबोई D. झरिया सूची-II (खनिज और राज्य) 1. सोना - कर्नाटक 2. लौह अयस्क - छत्तीसगढ़ 3. पेट्रोलियम - असम 4. कोयला - झारखंड कूट:
Kolar Gold Fields (KGF) in Karnataka was one of India's deepest gold mines. Bailadila in the Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh is famous for world-class high-grade haematite iron ore deposits exported via Visakhapatnam. Digboi in Assam is India's oldest operational oil refinery and petroleum field dating to 1901. Jharia in Jharkhand is India's largest and most famous coking coal reserve in the Damodar Valley basin.
Consider the following Committees relating to poverty estimation and arrange their formation in correct chronological order: 1. Lakdawala Committee 2. Rangarajan Committee 3. Tendulkar Committee 4. Dandekar and Rath Committee Select the correct answer from the code given below:
गरीबी आकलन से संबंधित निम्नलिखित समितियों पर विचार कीजिए तथा उनके गठन को सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 1. लकड़ावाला समिति 2. रंगराजन समिति 3. तेंदुलकर समिति 4. दांडेकर और रथ समिति नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Chronological order of Expert Committees on Poverty Estimation in India:
- Dandekar and Rath Committee (1971): First systematic assessment using National Sample Survey (NSS) data, establishing the benchmark of 2,250 calories per capita per day in both rural and urban areas.
- Lakdawala Committee (Task Force) (1989 / submitted 1993): Chaired by Prof. D.T. Lakdawala; recommended state-specific poverty lines updated using CPI-AL (for rural) and CPI-IW (for urban) indices.
- Tendulkar Committee (2005 / submitted 2009): Chaired by Suresh Tendulkar; shifted away from calorie anchoring to Mixed Reference Period (MRP) consumption expenditure covering education and health, pegging national poverty at 21.9%.
- Rangarajan Committee (2012 / submitted 2014): Chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan; reverted to independent nutritional norms, establishing daily per-capita thresholds of Rs. 32 (rural) and Rs. 47 (urban).
Correct chronological sequence: 4 (1971) → 1 (1989) → 3 (2005) → 2 (2012), which is 4, 1, 3, 2.
Which of the following languages is/are NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution? 1. Nepali 2. Dogri 3. Bodo 4. Bhojpuri Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी भाषा/भाषाएँ भारतीय संविधान की आठवीं अनुसूची में शामिल नहीं है/हैं? 1. नेपाली 2. डोगरी 3. मैथिली 4. राजस्थानी नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Constitutional provisions regarding the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
- The Eighth Schedule currently recognizes 22 languages (originally 14 in 1950):
- Nepali: Added by the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (along with Konkani and Manipuri).
- Dogri: Added by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 (along with Bodo, Maithili, and Santhali).
- Bodo: Added by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
- Bhojpuri: Despite widespread popular demand and millions of speakers across eastern UP and western Bihar, Bhojpuri has NOT yet been included in the Eighth Schedule.
Therefore, the language NOT included in the Eighth Schedule is Only 4 (Bhojpuri).
With reference to the Buddhist Councils, consider the following statements: 1. The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajgriha under the patronage of Ajatashatru. 2. The Second Buddhist Council was held at Vaishali about a century after the death of the Buddha. 3. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
बौद्ध संगीतियों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. प्रथम बौद्ध संगीति अजातशत्रु के संरक्षण में राजगृह में आयोजित की गई थी। 2. द्वितीय बौद्ध संगीति बुद्ध के महापरिनिर्वाण के लगभग एक शताब्दी बाद वैशाली में आयोजित हुई थी। 3. चतुर्थ बौद्ध संगीति कनिष्क के शासनकाल में कश्मीर में आयोजित की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. The First Buddhist Council met at the Sattapanni cave in Rajgriha under King Ajatashatru shortly after Buddha's death, where Upali and Ananda recited the Vinaya Pitaka and Sutta Pitaka. The Second Council was convened at Vaishali under King Kalashoka in 383 BCE, and the Fourth Council was held at Kundalvana in Kashmir under Kushan ruler Kanishka, which marked the formal split into Mahayana and Hinayana sects.
Consider the tenure of the following Presidents of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the latest: 1. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 2. K.R. Narayanan 3. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam 4. R. Venkataraman Select the correct answer from the code given below:
भारत के निम्नलिखित राष्ट्रपतियों के कार्यकाल पर विचार कीजिए तथा उन्हें आरंभ से अंत तक सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 1. नीलम संजीव रेड्डी 2. के.आर. नारायणन 3. ए.पी.जे. अब्दुल कलाम 4. आर. वेंकटरमण नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Chronological order of the Presidents of India by tenure:
- Neelam Sanjiva Reddy: Served from 25 July 1977 to 25 July 1982 (6th President of India, only President elected unopposed).
- R. Venkataraman: Served from 25 July 1987 to 25 July 1992 (8th President of India, worked with 4 Prime Ministers).
- K. R. Narayanan: Served from 25 July 1997 to 25 July 2002 (10th President of India, first Dalit President).
- Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam: Served from 25 July 2002 to 25 July 2007 (11th President of India, the 'People's President' and missile scientist).
Correct chronological sequence: Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (1, 1977) → R. Venkataraman (4, 1987) → K.R. Narayanan (2, 1997) → A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (3, 2002), which is 1, 4, 2, 3.
With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements: 1. It was launched in the backdrop of the partition of Bengal in 1905. 2. The partition of Bengal was annulled in 1911. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
स्वदेशी आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसे 1905 में बंगाल विभाजन की पृष्ठभूमि में शुरू किया गया था। 2. 1911 में बंगाल का विभाजन रद्द कर दिया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Swadeshi Movement was formally launched in August 1905 in response to Lord Curzon's announcement of the partition of Bengal. In the face of intense and prolonged agitation, King George V and Viceroy Lord Hardinge officially annulled the partition of Bengal at the Delhi Durbar in December 1911.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Nuclear Power List-II (State) Plant) A. Kudankulam 1. Karnataka B. Kakrapar 2. Tamil Nadu C. Kaiga 3. Rajasthan D. Rawatbhata 4. Gujarat Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र) A. कैगा B. काकरापार C. कलपक्कम D. नरौरा सूची-II (राज्य) 1. उत्तर प्रदेश 2. कर्नाटक 3. तमिलनाडु 4. गुजरात कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between Nuclear Power Plants and their States:
| List-I (Nuclear Plant) | List-II (State) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Kudankulam | 2. Tamil Nadu |
| B. Kakrapar | 4. Gujarat |
| C. Kaiga | 1. Karnataka |
| D. Rawatbhata (RAPS) | 3. Rajasthan |
- Kudankulam: India's highest-capacity nuclear power plant (VVER-1000 reactors built in technical collaboration with Russia), located in Tirunelveli district, Tamil Nadu.
- Kakrapar: Located near Surat along the Tapi River in Gujarat (home to India's first indigenous 700 MWe PHWR).
- Kaiga: Located along the Kali River in Uttara Kannada district, Karnataka.
- Rawatbhata (Rajasthan Atomic Power Station): Located near Kota on the Chambal River in Rajasthan (constructed originally with Canadian CANDU reactor assistance).
Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 4, 1, 3.
Which one of the following is correctly matched? Constitutional Body Constitutional Article
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित है?सांविधानिक निकाय सांविधानिक अनुच्छेद
Evaluation of Constitutional Bodies and their corresponding Constitutional Articles:
- Election Commission – 165: Incorrect! The Election Commission of India is established under Article 324. Article 165 provides for the Advocate-General for the State.
- National Commission for Scheduled Castes – 148: Incorrect! The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is established under Article 338. Article 148 provides for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
- Finance Commission – 263: Incorrect! The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280. Article 263 deals with the Inter-State Council.
- National Commission for Backward Classes – 340: Correctly matched according to the UPPSC official key. Article 340 of the Constitution provides for the 'Appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes' (under which the Kaka Kalelkar and Mandal Commissions were appointed). Note: While the permanent National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was conferred constitutional status under Article 338B by the 102nd Amendment Act in 2018, Article 340 remains the foundational constitutional article providing for backward classes commissions.
Therefore, option (d) is the correctly matched pair.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List - I (Iron-ore List - II (State) Mines) A. Gurumahisani 1. Jharkhand B. Bailadila 2. Karnataka C. Noamundi 3. Odisha D. Kudremukh 4. Chhattisgarh Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (लौह-अयस्क क्षेत्र) A. कुद्रेमुख B. बादामपहाड़ C. बैलाडिला D. नोआमुंडी सूची-II (राज्य) 1. ओडिशा 2. छत्तीसगढ़ 3. कर्नाटक 4. झारखंड कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between Famous Iron-ore Mines and their States:
| List-I (Iron-ore Mine) | List-II (State) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Gurumahisani | 3. Odisha |
| B. Bailadila | 4. Chhattisgarh |
| C. Noamundi | 1. Jharkhand |
| D. Kudremukh | 2. Karnataka |
- Gurumahisani: Historic haematite iron-ore deposit located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha (which historically fed the Tata Iron and Steel plant at Jamshedpur).
- Bailadila: High-grade massive haematite deposit located in the Dantewada/Bastar district of Chhattisgarh (ore exported via Visakhapatnam port to Japan).
- Noamundi: Major open-cast iron-ore mine operated by Tata Steel in the West Singhbhum district of Jharkhand.
- Kudremukh: Famous magnetite deposit in the Western Ghats in Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka (transported as slurry pipeline to Mangalore port).
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 4, 1, 2.
With reference to 'International Solar Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is the first treaty-based inter-governmental organisation headquartered in India with 38 member countries. 2. World Solar Bank and One Sun One World One Grid Initiative were initiated under it. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
'अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सौर गठबंधन' (ISA) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. यह भारत में मुख्यालय वाला पहला संधि-आधारित अंतर-सरकारी संगठन है जिसमें 38 सदस्य देश हैं। 2. इसके तहत विश्व सौर बैंक (WSB) और वन सन वन वर्ल्ड वन ग्रिड पहल शुरू की गई थी। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Analysis of the International Solar Alliance (ISA):
- Statement 1 is incorrect: While ISA is indeed the first treaty-based inter-governmental international organisation headquartered in India (National Institute of Solar Energy campus, Gurugram, Haryana), it has over 120 signatory countries and 100+ full ratified member countries, NOT merely 38. (Stating only 38 member countries is grossly incorrect).
- Statement 2 is correct: Flagship multilateral initiatives launched under the aegis of the ISA include the One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative (conceptualized by India to interconnect regional solar grids globally) and deliberations for creating a dedicated World Solar Bank to catalyze $1 trillion of investment in solar infrastructure across developing countries.
Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.
Joint special forces exercise 'KHANJAR-XII' was held in March 2025 between India and which of the following countries? 1. Russia 2. Turkmenistan 3. Kyrgyzstan 4. Mongolia Select the correct answer from the code given below:
संयुक्त विशेष बल अभ्यास 'खंजर-XII' (KHANJAR-XII) मार्च 2025 में भारत और निम्नलिखित में से किस देश के बीच आयोजित किया गया था? 1. रूस 2. तुर्कमेनिस्तान 3. किर्गिस्तान 4. मंगोलिया नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Joint Special Forces Exercise KHANJAR-XII:
- Exercise KHANJAR is an annual bilateral joint special forces military exercise conducted between the special forces of the Indian Army and the Kyrgyzstan Armed Forces.
- Initiated in 2011, this premier exercise focuses on high-altitude warfare, counter-terrorism, and mountain special operations in built-up and rural environments under Chapter VII of the United Nations charter.
- The 12th edition (KHANJAR-XII) was conducted in March 2025 with elite paratroopers and special forces from both nations.
Therefore, the joint exercise was held between India and Kyrgyzstan (Only 3).
Which of the following Departments prepares the National Indicator Framework Progress Report related to Sustainable Development Goals in Uttar Pradesh? 1. Department of Finance 2. Department of Education 3. Department of Planning Select the correct answer from the code given below:
उत्तर प्रदेश में सतत विकास लक्ष्यों (SDGs) से संबंधित राष्ट्रीय संकेतक फ्रेमवर्क प्रगति रिपोर्ट निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विभाग तैयार करता है? 1. वित्त विभाग 2. शिक्षा विभाग 3. नियोजन विभाग नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Institutional framework for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in Uttar Pradesh:
- The Department of Planning (योजना विभाग), Government of Uttar Pradesh, is the nodal state agency entrusted with coordinating, tracking, and monitoring progress across all 17 Sustainable Development Goals.
- The Planning Department's specialized economic wing prepares and publishes the comprehensive National Indicator Framework (NIF) Progress Report and the UP SDG Indicator Framework Report, aligning district-level administrative data with NITI Aayog's SDG India Index benchmarks.
Therefore, the responsible department is the Department of Planning (Only 3).
With reference to 'Isotopes', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Atoms with identical atomic numbers but different atomic mass numbers are known as isotopes. 2. Protium, Deuterium and Tritium are isotopes of carbon. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
'समस्थानिकों' (Isotopes) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. समान परमाणु क्रमांक लेकिन भिन्न परमाणु द्रव्यमान संख्या वाले परमाणुओं को समस्थानिक कहा जाता है। 2. प्रोटियम, ड्यूटेरियम और ट्रिटियम कार्बन के समस्थानिक हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Chemical principles regarding Isotopes:
- Statement 1 is correct: Isotopes are atoms of the same chemical element that possess the identical atomic number (Z, same number of protons) and identical chemical properties, but have different mass numbers (A, different number of neutrons) in their atomic nuclei (e.g., ¹²₆C and ¹⁴₆C).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Protium (¹₁H, 0 neutrons), Deuterium (²₁H, 1 neutron), and Tritium (³₁H, 2 neutrons) are the three well-known isotopes of HYDROGEN, NOT carbon! (The common isotopes of carbon are Carbon-12, Carbon-13, and radioactive Carbon-14).
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists. List-I (Schedule) List - II (Subject) A. 7th Schedule 1. Languages B. 8th Schedule 2. Disqualification on ground of defection C. 9th Schedule 3. Union, State and Concurrent lists D. 10th Schedule 4. Validation of certain Acts/Regulations Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (अनुसूची) A. तृतीय अनुसूची B. चतुर्थ अनुसूची C. सातवीं अनुसूची D. आठवीं अनुसूची सूची-II (विषय) 1. शपथ या प्रतिज्ञान के प्रारूप 2. राज्य सभा में स्थानों का आवंटन 3. संघ, राज्य और समवर्ती सूचियाँ 4. भाषाएँ कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between Schedules of the Indian Constitution and their Subjects:
| List-I (Schedule) | List-II (Subject) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. 7th Schedule | 3. Union, State and Concurrent lists (Article 246) |
| B. 8th Schedule | 1. Languages (22 recognized official languages) |
| C. 9th Schedule | 4. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations (Article 31B) |
| D. 10th Schedule | 2. Disqualification on ground of defection (Anti-Defection Law) |
- 7th Schedule: Delineates legislative competence across List I (Union), List II (State), and List III (Concurrent).
- 8th Schedule: Enumerates 22 constitutionally recognized languages.
- 9th Schedule: Added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect land reform legislations from judicial review.
- 10th Schedule: Added by the 52nd Amendment (1985) containing provisions as to disqualification on grounds of defection.
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 1, 4, 2.
Which of the following sites were obtained by the British East India Company under the Treaty of Sugauli in 1816? 1. Kathmandu 2. Shimla 3. Ranikhet 4. Nainital Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
1816 में सुगौली की संधि के तहत ब्रिटिश ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी द्वारा निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से स्थल प्राप्त किए गए थे? 1. कुमाऊं 2. गढ़वाल 3. शिमला नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Territorial gains under the Treaty of Sugauli (March 1816) (ending the Anglo-Nepalese / Gurkha War, 1814–1816):
- Under the treaty signed between the British East India Company (Lord Hastings) and the Kingdom of Nepal, Nepal was forced to surrender its western territories between the Kali and Sutlej rivers, comprising the regions of Garhwal, Kumaon, and the Himachal hill tracts.
- Through this treaty, the British acquired control over the strategic hill stations of Shimla (2), Ranikhet (3), and Nainital (4), along with Almora and Mussoorie.
- Kathmandu (1) was and remained the sovereign capital of the Kingdom of Nepal; Britain merely established a British Resident in Kathmandu, but never annexed or obtained Kathmandu as British territory.
Therefore, the sites obtained by the British were Shimla (2), Ranikhet (3), and Nainital (4).
"Swavalambini", a women entrepreneurship programme for the North-East, is launched by which of the following ministries? 1. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship 2. Ministry of Women and Child Development 3. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Select the correct answer from the code given below:
पूर्वोत्तर के लिए एक महिला उद्यमिता कार्यक्रम "स्वावलंबिनी" (Swavalambini) निम्नलिखित में से किस मंत्रालय द्वारा शुरू किया गया है? 1. कौशल विकास और उद्यमिता मंत्रालय 2. महिला एवं बाल विकास मंत्रालय 3. सूक्ष्म, लघु और मध्यम उद्यम मंत्रालय नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Swavalambini is a specialized women entrepreneurship development initiative launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), Government of India.
- Conceptualized specifically for the North Eastern Region (NER), Swavalambini aims to nurture and scale women-led micro-enterprises, traditional handlooms, handicrafts, food processing, and rural artisan clusters across the eight northeastern states.
- It provides targeted entrepreneurship awareness programmes, market access linkages, credit guarantees, and capacity building for self-employed women.
Therefore, the initiative was launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (Only 3).
Which of the following rivers fall into the Arabian Sea? 1. Periyar 2. Pennar 3. Palar Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी नदी अरब सागर में गिरती है? 1. पेरियार 2. पेन्नार 3. पालार नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Drainage systems of South Indian Peninsular Rivers:
- Periyar River: The longest river in Kerala (244 km), originating in the Sivagiri Hills of the Western Ghats; it flows westward and falls into the Arabian Sea (via Vembanad Lake / Kodungallur).
- Pennar River (Uttara Pinakini): Originates in the Nandi Hills of Chikkaballapura district, Karnataka, flows eastward across Andhra Pradesh, and drains into the Bay of Bengal near Nellore.
- Palar River: Originates in the Nandi Hills of Karnataka, flows eastward through Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, and drains into the Bay of Bengal near Vayalur.
Therefore, the only river among the given choices that falls into the Arabian Sea is Only 1 (Periyar).
Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies. 1. Gamma rays 2. Ultraviolet rays 3. Radio waves 4. X-rays Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code?
निम्नलिखित विद्युतचुम्बकीय विकिरण को उनकी आवृत्तियों के घटते क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए। 1. गामा किरणें 2. पराबैंगनी किरणें 3. रेडियो तरंगें 4. ग्-किरणें नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट: (a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (c) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 2, 3 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2?
Ordering of the Electromagnetic Spectrum by decreasing order of frequency ($
u) [or increasing order of wavelength\lambda$]:
- The electromagnetic spectrum in descending order of frequency (energy $E = h
u): 1. **Gamma rays**: Frequency> 10^{19}\text{ Hz}(highest frequency, highest photon energy, shortest wavelength<10^{-11}\text{ m}). 2. **X-rays**: Frequency10^{16}to10^{19}\text{ Hz}. 3. **Ultraviolet (UV) rays**: Frequency7.5 \times 10^{14}to10^{16}\text{ Hz}. 4. **Visible light**: Frequency4 \times 10^{14}to7.5 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}. 5. **Infrared (IR) waves**: Frequency3 \times 10^{11}to4 \times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}. 6. **Microwaves**: Frequency10^9to3 \times 10^{11}\text{ Hz}. 7. **Radio waves**: Frequency< 10^9\text{ Hz}$ (lowest frequency, longest wavelength).
Decreasing order of frequencies: Gamma rays (1) → X-rays (4) → Ultraviolet rays (2) → Radio waves (3), which is 1, 4, 2, 3.
Confusing frequency with wavelength; frequency is inversely proportional to wavelength ($
u = c/\lambda$). Highest frequency means lowest wavelength.
- Highest frequency: Gamma rays
- Lowest frequency: Radio waves
- Energy equation: $E = h
u = hc/\lambda$
- Mnemonic: GXUVIMR (Gamma, X-ray, UV, Visible, Infrared, Micro, Radio)
Gamma rays are 1st (highest frequency) and Radio waves are last (lowest frequency). X-rays precede UV. Hence 1, 4, 2, 3 (Option C) is the exact order.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Food security is necessary even in surplus food production years. Reason (R): Starvation can still occur due to unequal distribution and lack of accessibility. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): खाद्यान्न अधिशेष उत्पादन के वर्षों में भी खाद्य सुरक्षा आवश्यक है। कारण (R): असमान वितरण और पहुँच की कमी के कारण भुखमरी तब भी हो सकती है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Food security is imperative even during agricultural bumper years and surplus food production cycles because aggregate national grain production does not guarantee individual household access, nor does it shield against sudden price shocks, logistical bottlenecks, or seasonal lean periods.
and provides the correct explanation: As Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen established in his entitlement theory (Poverty and Famines), famines and starvation are primarily driven by failures of exchange entitlements, unequal wealth distribution, loss of purchasing power, and lack of physical/economic accessibility, rather than a mere physical shortage of food. Therefore, maintaining institutional food security mechanisms (buffer stocks, Public Distribution System, price stabilization) is vital even in surplus years to counter distribution failures. Thus, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
With reference to 'Vice-President of India', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
'भारत के उपराष्ट्रपति' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. उपराष्ट्रपति राज्य सभा का पदेन सभापति होता है। 2. उपराष्ट्रपति राज्य सभा का सदस्य होता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Constitutional provisions regarding the Vice-President of India:
- Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 64 and Article 89(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 66(2), the Vice-President shall NOT be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State. If a member of Parliament or a State Legislature is elected Vice-President, he is deemed to have vacated his seat on the date he enters upon his office. While he presides over the Rajya Sabha, he is NOT a member of it and does not cast a normal vote (except a casting vote in the event of an equality of votes under Article 100).
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): India's success is critical for the global success of Sustainable Development Goals. Reason (R): India accounts for nearly Bone-sixth of the total world population. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): सतत विकास लक्ष्यों (SDGs) की वैश्विक सफलता के लिए भारत की सफलता अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण है। कारण (R): भारत में विश्व की कुल जनसंख्या का लगभग छठा भाग निवास करता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The international community and the United Nations have repeatedly emphasized that achieving the global Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by 2030 is mathematically impossible without India's success. As the UN Deputy Secretary-General noted, 'India's success on the SDGs will determine the world's success'.
and provides the correct explanation: India is home to approximately 1.43 billion people, which constitutes nearly one-sixth (over 17.7%) of the entire human population. Given this immense demographic weight, any progress—or setback—in India on poverty eradication (SDG 1), hunger (SDG 2), health (SDG 3), clean water/sanitation (SDG 6), and renewable energy directly shifts global statistical indicators by nearly 18 percentage points. This sheer scale is the precise reason why India's success is critical for the planet. Thus, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Ruler) A. Mahendravarman I B. Kadungon C. Amoghavarsha I D. Rajaraja I List-II (Dynasty) 1. Rashtrakuta 2. Pallava 3. Chola 4. Pandya
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (शासक) A. महेंद्रवर्मन प्रथम B. कडुंगों C. अमोघवर्ष प्रथम D. राजराज प्रथम सूची-II (राजवंश) 1. राष्ट्रकूट 2. पल्लव 3. चोल 4. पांड्य
Detailed match between Early Medieval Rulers and their Dynasties:
| List-I (Ruler) | List-II (Dynasty) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Mahendravarman I | 2. Pallava |
| B. Kadungon | 4. Pandya |
| C. Amoghavarsha I | 1. Rashtrakuta |
| D. Rajaraja I | 3. Chola |
- Mahendravarman I (c. 600–630 CE): Great Pallava king of Kanchipuram; pioneer of rock-cut cave temple architecture (Mandagapattu) and author of the satirical Sanskrit farce Mattavilasa Prahasana.
- Kadungon (c. 590–620 CE): First historic ruler of the First Pandya Empire; credited with liberating the Tamil country from the dark age of the Kalabhras.
- Amoghavarsha I (Nrupathunga) (814–878 CE): Renowned Rashtrakuta emperor; patron of Jainism (disciple of Jinasena), author of the classic Kannada poetics treatise Kavirajamarga, and founder of Manyakheta capital.
- Rajaraja I (Rajaraja Chola) (985–1014 CE): Legendary Chola emperor who consolidated naval supremacy across South India and Sri Lanka and built the magnificent Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur.
Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 4, 1, 3.
The Appiko Movement is associated with which of the following Indian States? 1. Uttarakhand 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Kerala 4. Karnataka Select the correct answer from the code given below:
अप्पिको आंदोलन (Appiko Movement) निम्नलिखित में से किस भारतीय राज्य से संबंधित है? 1. उत्तराखंड 2. उत्तर प्रदेश 3. केरल 4. कर्नाटक नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Geographical and environmental analysis of the Appiko Movement:
- The Appiko Movement was launched in September 1983 in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka (specifically in Salkani village in the Western Ghats).
- Directly inspired by the legendary Chipko Movement of the Garhwal Himalayas, local villagers led by environmentalist Pandurang Hegde hugged trees ('Appiko' means 'to embrace / hug' in the local Kannada language) to prevent commercial contractors from felling natural evergreen tropical forests in the Kalase forest range.
- Its primary motto in Kannada was 'Ubsu' (save), 'Belesu' (grow), and 'Balasu' (use rationally).
Therefore, the Appiko Movement is associated exclusively with Karnataka (Only 4).
Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana comes under which of the following? 1. Ministry of Corporate Affairs 2. Ministry of Rural Development 3. Ministry of Finance Select the correct answer from the code given below:
प्रधानमंत्री मुद्रा योजना (PMMY) निम्नलिखित में से किस मंत्रालय के अंतर्गत आती है? 1. कॉर्पोरेट कार्य मंत्रालय 2. ग्रामीण विकास मंत्रालय 3. वित्त मंत्रालय नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Institutional administration of Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY):
- Launched on 8 April 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, PMMY is a flagship initiative to provide non-corporate, non-farm micro and small enterprises with collateral-free loans up to Rs. 10 lakh (enhanced to Rs. 20 lakh under Budget 2024–25 for Tarun Plus category).
- The scheme is administered under the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
- Loans are extended through Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks (SFBs), Microfinance Institutions (MFIs), and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), refinanced by MUDRA (Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd, a subsidiary of SIDBI).
Therefore, PMMY comes under the Ministry of Finance (Only 3).
Consider the following Election Reforms in India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the latest: 1. Voters photo identity card (EPIC) 2. Electronic voting machine (EVM) 3. Voter verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT) 4. NOTA (None of the Above) Select the correct answer from the code given below:
भारत में निम्नलिखित चुनावी सुधारों पर विचार कीजिए तथा उन्हें आरंभ से अंत तक सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 1. मतदाता फोटो पहचान पत्र (EPIC) 2. इलेक्ट्रॉनिक वोटिंग मशीन (EVM) 3. वोटर वेरिफिएबल पेपर ऑडिट ट्रेल (VVPAT) 4. नोटा (NOTA) नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Chronological order of Election Reforms and Technologies in India:
- Electronic Voting Machines (EVM): First introduced experimentally in May 1982 in 50 polling stations of the Paravur Assembly Constituency in Kerala; legalized via Section 61A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in 1989 and rolled out nationwide in the 2004 General Elections. [Event 2]
- Voters Photo Identity Cards (EPIC): Formally introduced in 1993 under Chief Election Commissioner T. N. Seshan to eliminate bogus voting and impersonation. [Event 1]
- NOTA (None of the Above): Introduced by the Election Commission in September/October 2013 following the historic Supreme Court ruling in PUCL v. Union of India (2013). [Event 4]
- Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT): First introduced experimentally on 4 September 2013 in the Noksen Assembly constituency of Nagaland, followed by mandatory 100% implementation in the 2019 General Elections. [Event 3]
Correct chronological sequence: EVM (2, 1982) → Voter Photo ID Card (1, 1993) → NOTA (4, 2013) → VVPAT (3, 2013), which is 2, 1, 4, 3.
With reference to Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Special Economic Zones Act was passed in 2005. 2. SEZs are prohibited from exporting goods and services. 3. The first SEZ in India was set up at Kandla in 1965. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में विशेष आर्थिक क्षेत्रों (SEZs) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. विशेष आर्थिक क्षेत्र अधिनियम 2005 में पारित किया गया था। 2. SEZs को वस्तुओं और सेवाओं का निर्यात करने से प्रतिबंधित किया गया है। 3. भारत में पहला SEZ वर्ष 1965 में कांडला में स्थापित किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Special Economic Zones Act was passed by Parliament in May 2005 to provide comprehensive fiscal and regulatory incentives, and Asia's first Export Processing Zone (the precursor of SEZs) was established at Kandla in Gujarat in 1965. Statement 2 is incorrect because the primary objective of SEZs is precisely to generate additional economic activity and boost exports of goods and services.
'BHARATPOL', an online portal for International Police Co-operation, has been developed by which of the following? 1. Central Bureau of Investigation 2. Research and Analysis Wing 3. Intelligence Bureau 4. Enforcement Directorate Select the correct answer from the code given below:
अंतर्राष्ट्रीय पुलिस सहयोग के लिए एक ऑनलाइन पोर्टल 'भारतपोल' (BHARATPOL) निम्नलिखित में से किसके द्वारा विकसित किया गया है? 1. केंद्रीय जांच ब्यूरो (CBI) 2. अनुसंधान और विश्लेषण विंग (RAW) 3. खुफिया ब्यूरो (IB) 4. प्रवर्तन निदेशालय (ED) नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Development of the BHARATPOL portal:
- BHARATPOL is a specialized online platform and operational coordination portal for International Police Cooperation developed and operated by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
- Under Indian law, the CBI is officially designated as the National Central Bureau (NCB - New Delhi) for INTERPOL in India. It coordinates all international investigative inquiries, Red Corner Notices, extraditions, and transnational organized crime intelligence sharing between Indian state police forces, central agencies, and foreign law enforcement bodies.
- To seamlessly integrate state police forces with INTERPOL's global databases (e.g., I-24/7 global police communications system), the CBI developed BHARATPOL.
Therefore, BHARATPOL was developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (Only 1).
Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order: 1. Acquisition of Awadh by the British 2. Ilbert Bill Controversy 3. Indigo Revolt 4. Second Anglo-Afghan War Select the correct answer from the code given below:
निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार कीजिए तथा उन्हें सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 1. अंग्रेजों द्वारा अवध का अधिग्रहण 2. इल्बर्ट बिल विवाद 3. नील विद्रोह (इंडिगो रिवोल्ट) 4. द्वितीय आंग्ल-अफगान युद्ध नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Chronological order of British Colonial Events in India:
- Acquisition of Awadh by the British (February 1856): Governor-General Lord Dalhousie formally annexed the Kingdom of Awadh by deposing Nawab Wajid Ali Shah on the controversial pretext of 'maladministration' (misgovernance) based on James Outram's report.
- Indigo Revolt (Nil Vidroha) (1859–1860): Militant peasant uprising in Bengal against European indigo planters, famously dramatized in Dinabandhu Mitra's play Nil Darpan.
- Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–1880): Launched during Viceroy Lord Lytton's administration following the forward policy, ending with the Treaty of Gandamak (1879) and Abdur Rahman Khan on the Kabul throne.
- Ilbert Bill Controversy (1883–1884): Intense racial controversy during Lord Ripon's viceroyalty over Sir C.P. Ilbert's bill which sought to allow Indian district magistrates and sessions judges to try European offenders in criminal cases.
Correct chronological sequence: Awadh Annexation (1, 1856) → Indigo Revolt (3, 1859) → Second Anglo-Afghan War (4, 1878) → Ilbert Bill (2, 1883), which is 1, 3, 4, 2.
As per the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of Uttar Pradesh, Moonj products are associated with which of the following districts? 1. Amethi 2. Sultanpur 3. Sant Kabir Nagar Select the correct answer from the code given below:
उत्तर प्रदेश की 'एक जिला एक उत्पाद' (ODOP) योजना के अनुसार, मूंज उत्पाद निम्नलिखित में से किस जिले से संबंधित हैं? 1. अमेठी 2. सुल्तानपुर 3. संत कबीर नगर नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Evaluation of Uttar Pradesh's One District One Product (ODOP) scheme:
- The flagship ODOP scheme, launched on UP Diwas (24 January 2018), promotes specialized indigenous handicraft and industrial products across all 75 districts.
- Moonj Products (मूंज उत्पाद): Wild moonj reed (Saccharum munja) growing in the riverine floodplains of the Ganga and Gomti is crafted by rural women into exquisite eco-friendly baskets, decorative household items, mats, and containers. Under the ODOP list, Moonj products are officially assigned to:
- Amethi (Moonj craft)
- Sultanpur (Moonj craft)
(And also Prayagraj for Moonj craft).
- Sant Kabir Nagar's designated ODOP is Brassware / Metal Crafts (बर्तन उद्योग / फूल के बर्तन), NOT Moonj.
Therefore, Moonj products are associated with Amethi (1) and Sultanpur (2).
With reference to the COP26 climate conference, consider the following statements: 1. COP26 was held in Glasgow, United Kingdom, in November 2021. 2. At COP26, India announced a target of achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. 3. The Glasgow Climate Pact called for the complete elimination of coal power generation by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
COP26 जलवायु शिखर सम्मेलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. COP26 नवंबर 2021 में ग्लासगो, यूनाइटेड किंगडम में आयोजित किया गया था। 2. COP26 में भारत ने वर्ष 2070 तक शुद्ध शून्य (नेट-ज़ीरो) उत्सर्जन प्राप्त करने के लक्ष्य की घोषणा की थी। 3. ग्लासगो जलवायु समझौते में 2030 तक कोयला ऊर्जा उत्पादन को पूरी तरह से समाप्त करने का आह्वान किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct because COP26 took place in Glasgow, Scotland in November 2021, where Prime Minister Narendra Modi committed India to reaching net-zero carbon emissions by 2070. Statement 3 is incorrect because developing nations led by India and China successfully negotiated to replace the phrase 'phase-out' of coal with 'phase-down' of unabated coal power, without establishing an absolute global deadline of complete elimination by 2030.
Iron dome missile defence system belongs to which of the following countries? 1. France 2. United States of America 3. Israel Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
Iron dome m ss le defence system belongs to which of the following countr es? 1. France 2. Un ted States of Amer ca 3. Isrकूटl Select the correct answer from the code g ven below: Code:
The Iron Dome missile defence system:
- Iron Dome (כיפת ברזל) is an advanced, all-weather, land-based mobile air defence system designed and manufactured by Israel (developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries, with financial and co-production backing from the United States).
- Operational since March 2011, Iron Dome intercepts and destroys incoming short-range rockets, artillery shells, and unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) fired from a range of 4 km to 70 km targeting Israeli population centres.
- It employs Tamir interceptor missiles equipped with electro-optic sensors and steering fins to neutralize threats mid-air.
Therefore, the Iron Dome missile defence system belongs to Israel (Only 3).
While the US financially funded and co-manufactures parts of the system, Iron Dome was created, owned, and deployed operationally by Israel.
- Origin & Operator: Israel (Rafael Defense)
- Interceptor missile: Tamir
- Role: Intercepting short-range rockets and artillery (4–70 km)
- Other Israeli air defence tiers: David's Sling (medium range), Arrow-2 & Arrow-3 (exo-atmospheric ballistic missile defence)
Iron Dome is internationally synonymous with Israel's military defense shield. Hence Only 3 (Option B) is correct.
Consider the following pairs of Indian National Congress sessions and the events associated with them: 1. Bombay (1885) — First session presided over by W.C. Bonnerjee 2. Surat (1907) — Split between Moderates and Extremists 3. Lahore (1929) — Adoption of the Purna Swaraj resolution 4. Ramgarh (1940) — Launch of the Quit India Movement Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के अधिवेशनों और उनसे जुड़ी घटनाओं के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. बंबई (1885) — डब्ल्यू.सी. बनर्जी की अध्यक्षता में प्रथम अधिवेशन 2. सूरत (1907) — नरमपंथियों और गरमपंथियों के बीच विभाजन 3. लाहौर (1929) — पूर्ण स्वराज संकल्प को स्वीकार करना 4. रामगढ़ (1940) — भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन का आरंभ उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. The INC's first session met at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay in 1885 under W.C. Bonnerjee, the 1907 Surat session presided over by Rash Behari Ghosh witnessed the ideological split between Moderates and Extremists, and the 1929 Lahore session under Jawaharlal Nehru proclaimed Purna Swaraj. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because the Quit India resolution was ratified and launched at the Gowalia Tank Maidan session in Bombay in August 1942, not at the Ramgarh session of 1940.
With reference to the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements: 1. The Great Bath was discovered at Mohenjo-daro. 2. Lothal was a port settlement with a dockyard. 3. The Harappans were familiar with the use of iron. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. विशाल स्नानागार (ग्रेट बाथ) की खोज मोहनजोदड़ो में हुई थी। 2. लोथल गोदीबाड़ा (डॉकयार्ड) वाला एक बंदरगाह नगर था। 3. हड़प्पावासी लोहे के उपयोग से परिचित थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct because the monumental public Great Bath lined with bitumen waterproofing was unearthed at Mohenjo-daro, and the coastal Harappan site of Lothal on the Bhogava River in Gujarat contained a sophisticated tidal brick dockyard for maritime commerce. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age civilization; iron technology was completely unknown to Harappans and only emerged in the Indian subcontinent during the later Vedic period around 1000 BCE.
With reference to ocean currents, consider the following statements: 1. The Gulf Stream is a warm current of the North Atlantic Ocean. 2. The Peru (Humboldt) Current is a warm current. 3. The Kuroshio Current is a cold current. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
महासागरीय धाराओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. गल्फ स्ट्रीम उत्तरी अटलांटिक महासागर की एक गर्म जलधारा है। 2. पेरू (हम्बोल्ट) धारा एक गर्म जलधारा है। 3. कुरोशियो धारा एक ठंडी जलधारा है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the Gulf Stream is an intense, warm western boundary current flowing from the Gulf of Mexico along the eastern coast of the United States towards north-western Europe. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the Peru (Humboldt) Current is a cold eastern boundary current flowing northward along the western coast of South America, and the Kuroshio (Japan Current) is a warm western boundary current of the North Pacific Ocean, analogous to the Gulf Stream.
With reference to mangroves, consider the following statements: 1. The Sundarbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world. 2. Mangroves grow naturally in the freshwater lakes of the Himalayas. 3. Mangroves accelerate coastal erosion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
मैंग्रोव के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सुंदरवन विश्व का सबसे बड़ा मैंग्रोव वन है। 2. मैंग्रोव हिमालय की मीठे पानी की झीलों में प्राकृतिक रूप से उगते हैं। 3. मैंग्रोव तटीय क्षरण को तेज करते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the Sundarbans delta spanning India and Bangladesh is the largest contiguous halophytic mangrove tract globally. Statement 2 is incorrect because mangroves are halophytes specialized to survive in saline and brackish intertidal marine and estuarine environments, not freshwater high-altitude alpine lakes. Statement 3 is incorrect because dense mangrove stilt and prop root systems trap tidal sediments and dissipate wave energy, protecting coastlines against erosion and storm surges.
Who among the following resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council, saddened by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre? 1. Chettur Sankaran Nair 2. Ishwari Prasad 3. Muhammad Shafi 4. Iqbal Narain Gurtu Select the correct answer from the code given below:
जलियांवाला बाग नरसंहार से व्यथित होकर निम्नलिखित में से किसने वायसराय की कार्यकारिणी परिषद से इस्तीफा दे दिया था? 1. चेट्टूर संकरन नायर 2. ईश्वरी प्रसाद 3. मुहम्मद शफी 4. इकबाल नारायण गुर्टू नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Historical reaction to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919):
- Following the horrific butchery of hundreds of unarmed men, women, and children at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar by Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer under the draconian Rowlatt regime, Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair resigned in profound protest from the Viceroy's Executive Council.
- A former President of the Indian National Congress (Amraoti session, 1897) and judge of the Madras High Court, Sankaran Nair's resignation stripped the British administration of judicial and moral credibility and compelled the government to appoint the Hunter Disorders Inquiry Committee.
- (Simultaneously, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his British Knighthood, and Mahatma Gandhi later returned his Kaiser-i-Hind medal during the Non-Cooperation Movement).
Therefore, the person who resigned from the Viceroy's Executive Council was Chettur Sankaran Nair (Only 1).
With reference to "Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme" (MATES), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. This is a bilateral framework between India and Australia. 2. In this scheme Indian graduates (aged 18-30) with knowledge and skills in specific fields of study will be offered to live and work in Australia for up to two years. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
“प्रतिभाशाली प्रारम्भिक पेशेवरों के लिये गतिशीलता व्यवस्थायोजना” (MATES), के सन्दर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही हे/हैं?L. यह भारत और ऑस्ट्रेलिया के बीच एक द्विपक्षीय ढाँचा है।
Analysis of the MATES (Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme):
- Statement 1 is correct: MATES is a bilateral framework established between the Government of India and the Government of Australia, finalized under the India-Australia Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement (MMPA) signed in May 2023.
- Statement 2 is correct: Under the MATES scheme, up to 3,000 Indian university graduates and early-career professionals (aged 18 to 30 years) with specialized knowledge and skills in targeted fields (STEM, renewable energy, AI, fintech) are granted temporary visas to live and work in Australia for up to two years without requiring employer sponsorship.
Therefore, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
Jal Jeevan Mission' Scheme was declared in the Union Budget fo which Financial Year?
'जल जीवन मिशन' (JJM) योजना की घोषणा केंद्रीय बजट में किस वित्तीय वर्ष के लिए की गई थी?
Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) Budget Declaration:
- The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day address from the ramparts of the Red Fort on 15 August 2019, and was formally declared in the Union Budget for the Financial Year 2019-20 presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on 5 July 2019.
- Under the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (Ministry of Jal Shakti), JJM aims to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) with a potable water supply of 55 liters per capita per day (lpcd) to every rural household ('Har Ghar Jal') by 2024.
- The total outlay of the mission was estimated at ₹3.60 lakh crore.
Therefore, the scheme was declared in the Union Budget for 2019-20 (Option D).
Suez Canal connects which of the following? 1. Atlantic Ocean 2. Red Sea 3. Mediterranean Sea 4. Indian Ocean Select the correct answer from the code given below:
स्वेज नहर निम्नलिखित में से किन्हें जोड़ती है? 1. अटलांटिक महासागर 2. लाल सागर 3. भूमध्य सागर 4. हिंद महासागर नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Geographical connectivity of the Suez Canal:
- Opened in November 1869 (engineered by French diplomat Ferdinand de Lesseps), the Suez Canal is a 193.3-km artificial sea-level waterway cutting across the Isthmus of Suez in Egypt.
- It directly connects the Mediterranean Sea (at Port Said in the north) with the Red Sea (at Port Tewfik / Suez in the south).
- By connecting the Mediterranean and the Red Sea, it eliminates the need for maritime navigation around the Cape of Good Hope, drastically shortening the sea voyage between Europe and Asia by approximately 7,000 kilometres.
Therefore, the Suez Canal connects the Red Sea (2) and the Mediterranean Sea (3).
The atmosphere of Saturn contains which one of the following gas in large quantity?
शनि ग्रह (Saturn) के वायुमंडल का संघटन:
Atmospheric Composition of Saturn:
- Saturn is a gas giant planet whose overall bulk atmosphere consists primarily of Molecular Hydrogen ($H_2$, ~96.3%) and Helium ($He$, ~3.25%).
- Among the secondary / trace hydrocarbon atmospheric constituents, Methane ($CH_4$) is present in significant quantity (~0.45% or 4,500 ppm), alongside ammonia and phosphine, producing the characteristic hazy yellowish tint and spectroscopic absorption bands of Saturn's upper cloud layers.
- Furthermore, Saturn's largest moon, Titan, has a dense nitrogen-methane atmosphere where methane forms clouds, rain, and liquid hydrocarbon lakes.
- Among the four specific options provided (Sulphur dioxide, Carbon monoxide, Methane, Nitrogen), Methane is the predominant organic atmospheric gas.
Therefore, Saturn's atmosphere contains Methane (Option C).
With reference to World Bank and International Monetary Fund, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The World Bank and International Monetary Fund were set up together and are popularly known as Bretton Wood Twins. 2. Headquarters of International Monetary Fund and World Bank are located at Washington D.C. and New York respectively. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
W th reference to World Bank and Internat onal Monetary Fund, wh ch of the follow ng statements s/are correct? 1. The World Bank and Internat onal Monetary Fund were set up toसूची-IIher and are popularly known as Bretton Wood Tw ns. 2. कूटadquarters of Internat onal Monetary Fund and World Bank are located at Wash ngton D.C. and New York respect vely. Select the correct answer from the code g ven below: Code:
Analysis of the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF):
- Statement 1 is correct: The World Bank (initially the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development - IBRD) and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) were conceived and established together at the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference held in July 1944 at Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, USA. Consequently, they are universally known as the 'Bretton Woods Twins'.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The headquarters of BOTH the IMF and the World Bank are located in Washington, D.C., USA, situated right across the street from each other on Pennsylvania Avenue. Neither is located in New York (New York City houses the Headquarters of the United Nations, NOT the Bretton Woods institutions).
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the 'Joint Sitting of Parliament', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Article 109 of the Constitution of India provides for the Joint Sitting of Parliament. 2. A Joint Sitting of Parliament may be called to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
'संसद की संयुक्त बैठक' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. भारत के संविधान का अनुच्छेद 109 संसद की संयुक्त बैठक का प्रावधान करता है। 2. संविधान संशोधन विधेयक को पारित करने के लिए संसद की संयुक्त बैठक बुलाई जा सकती है। नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Constitutional provisions regarding the Joint Sitting of Parliament:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The constitutional provision for a Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a legislative deadlock is contained in Article 108, NOT Article 109. (Article 109 specifically lays down the 'Special procedure in respect of Money Bills').
- Statement 2 is incorrect: A Joint Sitting CANNOT be summoned to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill. Under Article 368, a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed independently by each House of Parliament by a special majority (a majority of total membership and a 2/3rd majority of members present and voting). There is no constitutional mechanism for a joint sitting in the case of a disagreement on an amendment bill (nor for a Money Bill under Article 110).
Therefore, neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List - I (Sustainable Development Goals) List - II (Area of Goal) A. Goal 1 1. Clean water and sanitation B. Goal 3 2. Quality education C. Goal 4 3. To end poverty in all forms D. Goal 6 4. Good health and well- being Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए: सूची-I (सतत विकास लक्ष्य) A. लक्ष्य 1 B. लक्ष्य 3 C. लक्ष्य 4 D. लक्ष्य 6 सूची-II (लक्ष्य क्षेत्र) 1. स्वच्छ जल और स्वच्छता 2. गुणवत्तापूर्ण शिक्षा 3. सभी रूपों में गरीबी समाप्त करना 4. अच्छा स्वास्थ्य और खुशहाली कूट: A B C D
Detailed match between Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and their Target Areas:
| List-I (SDG) | List-II (Target Area) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Goal 1 | 3. End poverty in all its forms everywhere |
| B. Goal 3 | 4. Good health and well-being |
| C. Goal 4 | 2. Quality education |
| D. Goal 6 | 1. Clean water and sanitation |
- SDG 1: No Poverty (end poverty in all its forms everywhere by 2030).
- SDG 3: Good Health and Well-being for all at all ages.
- SDG 4: Quality Education and lifelong learning opportunities.
- SDG 6: Clean Water and Sanitation for all.
(SDG 2 is Zero Hunger, and SDG 5 is Gender Equality).
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 4, 2, 1.
With reference to 'Operation Olivia', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of Indian Coast Guard to protect Olive Ridley turtles along the coast of Odisha. 2. Operation Olivia is carried out during the month of August which is the nesting time of Olive Ridley turtles. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
'ऑपरेशन ओलिविया' (Operation Olivia) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. यह ओडिशा के तट पर ओलिव रिडले कछुओं की सुरक्षा के लिए भारतीय तटरक्षक बल (ICG) की एक पहल है। 2. ऑपरेशन ओलिविया अगस्त के महीने में चलाया जाता है जो ओलिव रिडले कछुओं के घोंसले बनाने का समय है। नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Evaluation of Operation Olivia:
- Statement 1 is correct: Operation Olivia was initiated in the early 1980s by the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) to protect endangered *Olive Ridley sea turtles (Lepidochelys olivacea) as they congregate for mass nesting (Arribada*) along the shallow coastal waters of Odisha (particularly at Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary, Devi river mouth, and Rushikulya rookery).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Operation Olivia is conducted round-the-clock from November to May each year (the turtle breeding and nesting season). August is NOT the nesting time; mass nesting occurs between late winter and early spring (February–April). Conducting it in August is factually erroneous.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? (Biosphere Reserve) - (State) 1. Nokrek - Manipur 2. Manas - Assam 3. Agasthyamalai - Kerala Select the correct answer from the code given below:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से युग्म सही सुमेलित नहीं है/हैं? (बायोस्फीयर रिजर्व) - (राज्य) 1. नोकरेक - मणिपुर 2. मानस - असम 3. अगस्त्यमलाई - केरल नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Evaluation of Biosphere Reserves and their States:
- Nokrek Biosphere Reserve: Located in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya (centered on the Nokrek National Park, famous for the preservation of wild varieties of Citrus such as Citrus indica / Indian wild orange), NOT Manipur. Therefore, pair 1 is NOT correctly matched.
- Manas Biosphere Reserve: Located in the foothills of the Himalayas in Assam (contiguous with Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan; home to Golden Langur, Pygmy Hog, and One-horned Rhinoceros). Correctly matched.
- Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve: Located at the southern tip of the Western Ghats straddling Kerala and Tamil Nadu (home to the indigenous Kanikaran tribe and rich medicinal plants). Correctly matched.
Therefore, only pair 1 is NOT correctly matched.
With reference to Global Environment Facility, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was established in 1991. 2. Only the developed countries are donors to it. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
वैश्विक पर्यावरण सुविध के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं? 1. इसकी स्थापना 1991 में हुई थी। 2. केवल विकसित देश ही इसके दाता (डोनर) हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: कूट:
Analysis of the Global Environment Facility (GEF):
- Statement 1 is correct: The GEF was established in October 1991 as a pilot programme in the World Bank to assist in the protection of the global environment and promote sustainable development, later restructured on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit as a permanent, separate multilateral financial institution.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: It is completely false that only developed countries are donors. The GEF is a multilateral trust partnership with 39 donor countries, which include numerous developing and transition nations (such as India, China, Brazil, Mexico, Egypt, Nigeria, and Pakistan) that contribute financially alongside developed countries to the GEF replenishment trust funds.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
India is both a donor and a major recipient of GEF grants for biodiversity conservation, climate change mitigation, and land degradation projects.
- Established: October 1991
- Financial mechanism for 5 major conventions: CBD (Biodiversity), UNFCCC (Climate Change), UNCCD (Desertification), Stockholm (POPs), Minamata (Mercury)
- Donor nations: 39 countries (includes developing countries like India, China, Brazil)
- Secretariat: Washington, D.C.
India itself contributes funds to the GEF as a donor, which invalidates the extreme word 'Only' in Statement 2. Hence (d) Only 1 is correct.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Directive Principles are important for economic, social and political functions in a Modern Democratic State. Reason (R): The core objectives of Directive Principles is to establish economic and social democracy. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, जिनमें से एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है। अभिकथन (A): एक आधुनिक लोकतांत्रिक राज्य में नीति निदेशक तत्व आर्थिक, सामाजिक और राजनीतिक कार्यों के लिए महत्वपूर्ण हैं। कारण (R): नीति निदेशक तत्वों का मुख्य उद्देश्य आर्थिक और सामाजिक लोकतंत्र की स्थापना करना है। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) (enshrined in Part IV, Articles 36 to 51) are fundamental in the governance of the country (Article 37). They guide the legislative, executive, and administrative actions in a modern democratic state to build a progressive welfare state.
and provides the correct explanation: While Fundamental Rights (Part III) guarantee negative liberties and establish political democracy, the primary and core constitutional purpose of Directive Principles is to realize economic and social democracy—securing adequate livelihood, equitable distribution of resources, worker welfare, living wage, and public health (as famously emphasized by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly). Because establishing economic and social democracy is the precise functional essence that makes DPSPs vital to modern governance, (R) is the exact causal explanation of (A).
Who among the following introduced the concept of entitlements in food security? 1. M. S. Swaminathan 2. Atul Pranay 3. Samali Srikant 4. Amartya Sen Select the correct answer from the code given below:
खाद्य सुरक्षा में 'एंटाइटेलमेंट' (हकदारी) की अवधारणा निम्नलिखित में से किसने प्रस्तुत की थी? 1. एम. एस. स्वामीनाथन 2. अतुल प्रणय 3. समाली श्रीकांत 4. अमर्त्य सेन नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The concept of 'Entitlements' in food security:
- The transformative Entitlement Approach to hunger, starvation, and food security was formulated and introduced by Nobel laureate Indian economist Amartya Sen in his seminal 1981 monograph Poverty and Famines: An Essay on Entitlement and Deprivation.
- Sen revolutionized famine analysis by demonstrating that starvation is not primarily caused by a general physical decline in food availability (Food Availability Decline - FAD theory), but by a failure of an individual's exchange entitlements (their legal ability to command food through their own labor, production, trade, or social transfers).
- (Prof. M.S. Swaminathan was the father of India's Green Revolution; the theoretical entitlement paradigm is exclusively Sen's work).
Therefore, the concept of entitlements was introduced by Amartya Sen (Only 4).
With reference to Jnanpith Award, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The 58th Jnanpith Award was conferred upon Sanskrit Scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya Ji. 2. The 1st Jnanpith Award was given in 1965. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
ज्ञानपीठ पुरस्कार के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. 58वां ज्ञानपीठ पुरस्कार संस्कृत विद्वान जगद्गुरु रामभद्राचार्य जी को प्रदान किया गया। 2. पहला ज्ञानपीठ पुरस्कार 1965 में दिया गया था। नीचे दिए गए कूट में से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Evaluation of statements regarding the Jnanpith Award (ज्ञानपीठ पुरस्कार):
- Statement 1 is correct: The 58th Jnanpith Award (for the year 2023, conferred in 2024) was awarded jointly to celebrated Sanskrit scholar, polyglot, and spiritual leader Jagadguru Rambhadracharya (Chitrakoot, Uttar Pradesh) and legendary Urdu poet, lyricist, and filmmaker Gulzar (Sampooran Singh Kalra).
- Statement 2 is correct: The first-ever Jnanpith Award was presented in 1965 to celebrated Malayalam poet and writer G. Sankara Kurup for his poetry collection Odakkuzhal (The Bamboo Flute).
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Arrange the following in chronological order of their rule and select the correct answer from the code given below: 1. Baji Rao I 2. Balaji Baji Rao 3. Balaji Vishwanath 4. Madhav Rao I
निम्नलिखित को उनके शासनकाल के सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम में व्यवस्थित कीजिए तथा नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: 1. बाजीराव प्रथम 2. बालाजी बाजीराव 3. बालाजी विश्वनाथ 4. माधवराव प्रथम
Chronological order of the ruling Maratha Peshwas:
- Balaji Vishwanath (1713–1720 CE): Appointed by Chhatrapati Shahu; consolidated the Maratha state, concluded the 1719 treaty with the Sayyid brothers, and made the Peshwaship hereditary.
- Baji Rao I (1720–1740 CE): Celebrated military genius who championed Hindu Pad-Padshahi; won battles at Palkhed (1728) and Bhopal (1737), expanded Maratha power across Gujarat, Malwa, and Bundelkhand.
- Balaji Baji Rao (Nana Saheb) (1740–1761 CE): Extended Maratha supremacy over Punjab, Bengal, and Odisha; supreme authority confirmed by the Sangola Agreement (1750); his reign culminated in the Third Battle of Panipat (1761).
- Madhav Rao I (1761–1772 CE): Outstanding young Peshwa who restored Maratha fortunes and prestige post-Panipat, subduing the Nizam and Haider Ali and reinstating Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II on the Delhi throne.
Correct chronological sequence: Balaji Vishwanath (3, 1713) → Baji Rao I (1, 1720) → Balaji Baji Rao (2, 1740) → Madhav Rao I (4, 1761), which is 3, 1, 2, 4.
With reference to foreign direct investment (FDI) policy changes around 2012, consider the following statements: 1. The Government permitted 100 per cent FDI in multi-brand retail. 2. FDI up to 49 per cent by foreign airlines in Indian carriers was permitted. 3. The implementation of FDI in multi-brand retail was left to the discretion of State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2012 के आसपास प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश (FDI) नीतिगत परिवर्तनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सरकार ने मल्टी-ब्रांड खुदरा (रिटेल) में 100 प्रतिशत FDI की अनुमति दी। 2. भारतीय एयरलाइनों में विदेशी एयरलाइनों द्वारा 49 प्रतिशत तक FDI की अनुमति दी गई। 3. मल्टी-ब्रांड रिटेल में FDI का कार्यान्वयन राज्य सरकारों के विवेक पर छोड़ दिया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct because in September 2012, the Cabinet approved FDI up to 49% by foreign airline operators in domestic scheduled and non-scheduled air transport services, and also granted states sovereign discretion (an opt-in clause) to decide whether or not to permit multi-brand retail stores within their territorial jurisdictions. Statement 1 is incorrect because the government permitted FDI up to 51% (not 100%) in multi-brand retail trading under the government approval route; 100% FDI was permitted only in single-brand retail trading.
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