UPSC CSE Prelims 2009 Question Paper (GS Paper 1 Solved & Answer Key)
यूपीएससी सिविल सेवा प्रारंभिक परीक्षा 2009 सामान्य अध्ययन प्रश्न-पत्र 1 (हल सहित)
Union Public Service Commission Civil Services Examination (CSE) • Civil Services Examination (CSE Prelims) GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D
100 MCQs
of 100 Total200 Marks
GS Paper120 Mins
Timed Arena-0.66 marks per wrong answer (1/3rd penalty)
per wrong MCQ| Parameterविवरण | Commission Standardआयोग मानक |
|---|---|
| Conducting Bodyपरीक्षा नियंत्रक आयोग | Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) संघ लोक सेवा आयोग सिविल सेवा परीक्षा आयोग |
| Examination Nameपरीक्षा का नाम | UPSC CSE Prelims 2009 Solved Paper संघ लोक सेवा आयोग सिविल सेवा परीक्षा (UPSC CSE Prelims 2009) |
| Paper & Booklet Seriesप्रश्न-पत्र एवं बुकलेट सीरीज | General Studies Paper-I (GS) • Civil Services Examination (CSE Prelims) GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D सामान्य अध्ययन प्रश्न-पत्र 1 • Civil Services Examination (CSE Prelims) GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D |
| Total Questionsकुल प्रश्नों की संख्या | 100 Objective MCQs (Four Options A, B, C, D) 100 वस्तुनिष्ठ बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न |
| Total Maximum Marksअधिकतम कुल अंक (पूर्णांक) | 200 Marks (2 Marks per correct MCQ) 200 अंक (प्रत्येक सही प्रश्न पर 2 अंक) |
| Negative Marking Penaltyऋणात्मक अंकन प्रणाली (नेगेटिव मार्किंग) | -0.66 marks per wrong answer (1/3rd penalty) प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर -0.66 अंक (1/3 नकारात्मक अंकन) |
| Examination Durationपरीक्षा की कुल समयावधि | 120 Minutes (2.0 Hours) 120 मिनट (2.0 घंटे) |
| Medium & Languageपरीक्षा एवं प्रश्नों का माध्यम | 100% Bilingual (English and Hindi) द्विभाषी (अंग्रेजी एवं हिंदी - पूर्ण व्याख्या सहित) |
| Answer Key Authorityउत्तर कुंजी की प्रामाणिकता | Verified with Commission Final Master Key आयोग की अंतिम उत्तर कुंजी द्वारा शत-प्रतिशत सत्यापित |
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Authentic Questions & Verified Answers
Displaying 100 authentic questions with subject categorization and detailed explanations.
With reference to the Revolt of 1857, consider the following statements: 1. The revolt began at Meerut on 10 May 1857. 2. Mangal Pandey was associated with the incident at Barrackpore in March 1857. 3. The revolt led to the transfer of the government of India from the East India Company to the British Crown by the Act of 1858. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1857 के विद्रोह के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह विद्रोह 10 मई 1857 को मेरठ से शुरू हुआ था। 2. मंगल पांडे मार्च 1857 में बैरकपुर की घटना से जुड़े थे। 3. इस विद्रोह के परिणामस्वरूप 1858 के अधिनियम द्वारा भारत का शासन ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी से ब्रिटिश क्राउन को हस्तांतरित कर दिया गया। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The rebellion officially broke out among the sepoys at Meerut on 10 May 1857, following Mangal Pandey's revolt at Barrackpore on 29 March 1857 against the greased Enfield cartridges. In the aftermath of the rebellion, the British Parliament enacted the Government of India Act 1858, which abolished Company rule and transferred direct sovereign authority over India to the British Crown.
Consider the following pairs of newspapers/journals and the persons associated with them: 1. Kesari : Bal Gangadhar Tilak 2. Young India : Mahatma Gandhi 3. The Hindu : Annie Besant Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
समाचार-पत्रों/पत्रिकाओं और उनसे जुड़े व्यक्तियों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. केसरी : बाल गंगाधर तिलक 2. यंग इंडिया : महात्मा गांधी 3. द हिंदू : एनी बेसेंट उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं?
Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Kesari was a Marathi newspaper started by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1881, and Young India was a weekly journal published by Mahatma Gandhi from 1919 to 1931. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched because The Hindu was founded in 1878 by G. Subramania Aiyer and M. Veeraraghavachariar; Annie Besant published New India and Commonweal.
With reference to the early movements led by Mahatma Gandhi, consider the following statements: 1. The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, concerning indigo cultivators, was Gandhi's first satyagraha in India. 2. The Dandi March of 1930 covered a distance of about 240 miles from Sabarmati Ashram to the coastal village of Dandi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
महात्मा गांधी द्वारा चलाए गए प्रारंभिक आंदोलनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. नील की खेती करने वाले किसानों से संबंधित 1917 का चंपारण सत्याग्रह, भारत में गांधीजी का पहला सत्याग्रह था। 2. 1930 की दांडी यात्रा में साबरमती आश्रम से तटीय गांव दांडी तक लगभग 240 मील की दूरी तय की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Champaran Satyagraha in Bihar (1917) against the exploitative tinkathia system of European indigo planters marked Gandhi's first civil disobedience and satyagraha in India. In 1930, Gandhi embarked on the historic 24-day Dandi March with 78 followers from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, traversing 240 miles to break the salt law and inaugurate the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Arrange the following events of the Indian National Movement in chronological order: 1. Jallianwala Bagh massacre 2. Launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement 3. Launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement 4. Launch of the Quit India Movement Select the correct answer using the code given below:
भारतीय राष्ट्रीय आंदोलन की निम्नलिखित घटनाओं को कालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 1. जलियांवाला बाग हत्याकांड 2. असहयोग आंदोलन का प्रारंभ 3. सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन का प्रारंभ 4. भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन का प्रारंभ नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The chronological sequence is 1-2-3-4. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on 13 April 1919 in Amritsar; the Non-Cooperation Movement was formally launched on 1 August 1920; the Civil Disobedience Movement began with the Dandi Salt March on 12 March 1930; and the Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942 at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.
With reference to the physiography of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Deccan Plateau is bounded by the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats. 2. The Western Ghats are, on average, higher and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats. 3. Anai Mudi is the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के भू-आकृति विज्ञान के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. दक्कन का पठार पश्चिमी घाट और पूर्वी घाट से घिरा हुआ है। 2. पश्चिमी घाट, औसत रूप से, पूर्वी घाट की तुलना में अधिक ऊंचे और निरंतर हैं। 3. अनाईमुडी पूर्वी घाट की सबसे ऊंची चोटी है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The triangular Deccan Plateau is flanked by the Western Ghats in the west and the discontinuous Eastern Ghats in the east, with the Western Ghats having an average elevation of 900–1600 metres compared to 600 metres for the Eastern Ghats. Statement 3 is incorrect because Anai Mudi (2,695 m), located in the Anaimalai Hills of Kerala, is the highest peak of the Western Ghats and Peninsular India, whereas Jindhagada / Arma Konda is the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats.
Consider the following pairs of major ports and the states in which they are located: 1. Kandla : Gujarat 2. Paradip : Odisha 3. Tuticorin : Tamil Nadu 4. Haldia : West Bengal Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
प्रमुख बंदरगाहों और जिन राज्यों में वे स्थित हैं, उनके निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कांडला : गुजरात 2. पारादीप : ओडिशा 3. तूतीकोरिन : तमिलनाडु 4. हल्दिया : पश्चिम बंगाल उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. Kandla (Deendayal Port) is a tidal port in the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat; Paradip is a deep-water artificial port in Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha; Tuticorin (V.O. Chidambaranar Port) is an all-weather port in Tamil Nadu; and Haldia is a riverine port complex on the Hooghly River in West Bengal.
With reference to the soils of India, consider the following statements: 1. Black (regur) soil, derived from the basalt of the Deccan Trap, is ideal for cotton cultivation. 2. Alluvial soils are the most widespread soils in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की मृदा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. दक्कन ट्रैप के बेसाल्ट से निर्मित काली (रेगुर) मिट्टी कपास की खेती के लिए आदर्श होती है। 2. जलोढ़ मिट्टी भारत में सर्वाधिक विस्तृत भूभाग पर पाई जाने वाली मिट्टी है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Black or regur soil is formed by the weathering of Deccan lava basalt, possesses high moisture-retentive capacity, and is traditionally renowned for cotton cultivation ('black cotton soil'). Alluvial soil, deposited by major Himalayan and peninsular river systems, covers over 40% of India's total land area, making it the most widespread soil group in the country.
Consider the following pairs of deserts and the continents in which they are located: 1. Sahara : Africa 2. Atacama : South America 3. Gobi : Asia 4. Great Victoria : Australia Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
रेगिस्तानों और जिन महाद्वीपों में वे स्थित हैं, उनके निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सहारा : अफ्रीका 2. अटाकामा : दक्षिण अमेरिका 3. गोबी : एशिया 4. ग्रेट विक्टोरिया : ऑस्ट्रेलिया उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. The Sahara is the largest hot subtropical desert spanning North Africa; the Atacama is an hyper-arid rain-shadow plateau desert in South America (northern Chile); the Gobi is a cold mid-latitude rain-shadow desert in East Asia (Mongolia and northern China); and the Great Victoria Desert is the largest desert in Western and South Australia.
With reference to the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, consider the following statements: 1. The Act was enacted by Parliament in 2009. 2. It guarantees free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years. 3. It was enabled by the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which inserted Article 21A into the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
बच्चों के निःशुल्क और अनिवार्य शिक्षा का अधिकार अधिनियम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह अधिनियम संसद द्वारा 2009 में पारित किया गया था। 2. यह 6 से 14 वर्ष के आयु वर्ग के सभी बच्चों के लिए निःशुल्क और अनिवार्य शिक्षा की गारंटी देता है। 3. यह 86वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा सक्षम बनाया गया था, जिसने संविधान में अनुच्छेद 21A को अंतःस्थापित किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002 inserted Article 21A, conferring the fundamental right to free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 years of age. To operationalize this constitutional mandate, Parliament enacted the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act in August 2009, which came into force on 1 April 2010.
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following statements: 1. The CAG is appointed by the President and holds office for a term of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. 2. The CAG can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. The CAG is appointed by the President and holds office for a term of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. 2. The CAG can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Correct Option: Option (C) — Both 1 and 2 is the correct answer.
- All given statements are correct:
- 1. The CAG is appointed by the President and holds office for a term of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
- 2. The CAG can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
With reference to elections in India, consider the following statements: 1. The general elections to the 15th Lok Sabha were held in five phases during April-May 2009. 2. The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Constitution. 3. Electronic Voting Machines were used for the first time in an Indian election in 2009. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में चुनावों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 15वीं लोकसभा के आम चुनाव अप्रैल-मई 2009 के दौरान पांच चरणों में आयोजित किए गए थे। 2. भारत का निर्वाचन आयोग संविधान के अनुच्छेद 324 के तहत स्थापित एक संवैधानिक निकाय है। 3. भारत के किसी चुनाव में पहली बार इलेक्ट्रॉनिक वोटिंग मशीनों (EVMs) का उपयोग 2009 में किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 2009 general election to the 15th Lok Sabha took place in five phases between 16 April and 13 May 2009, conducted by the Election Commission of India, which is vested with superintendence, direction, and control of elections under Article 324. Statement 3 is incorrect because EVMs were first used experimentally in the 1982 by-election in Paravur, Kerala, and nationwide in all parliamentary constituencies beginning with the 2004 Lok Sabha elections.
Consider the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India and their subject matter: 1. Article 370 : Special provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir 2. Article 356 : Proclamation of President's Rule in a State 3. Article 368 : Procedure for amendment of the Constitution 4. Article 32 : Right to Constitutional Remedies Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेदों और उनकी विषय-वस्तु के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अनुच्छेद 370 : जम्मू और कश्मीर राज्य के संबंध में विशेष उपबंध 2. अनुच्छेद 356 : किसी राज्य में राष्ट्रपति शासन की उद्घोषणा 3. अनुच्छेद 368 : संविधान में संशोधन करने की प्रक्रिया 4. अनुच्छेद 32 : संवैधानिक उपचारों का अधिकार उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. Article 370 contained temporary provisions conferring special status upon Jammu and Kashmir; Article 356 empowers the President to assume functions of a state government upon failure of constitutional machinery; Article 368 delineates Parliament's constituent power to amend the Constitution; and Article 32 guarantees the fundamental right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of rights through prerogative writs.
With reference to India's policy response to the global financial crisis, consider the following statements: 1. The Reserve Bank of India cut the repo rate and the Cash Reserve Ratio to inject liquidity into the system. 2. The Government of India announced fiscal stimulus packages in late 2008 and early 2009. 3. India's GDP growth rate in 2008-09 fell below 3 per cent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
वैश्विक वित्तीय संकट के प्रति भारत की नीतिगत प्रतिक्रिया के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक ने प्रणाली में तरलता डालने के लिए रेपो दर और नकद आरक्षित अनुपात (CRR) में कटौती की। 2. भारत सरकार ने 2008 के अंत और 2009 की शुरुआत में राजकोषीय प्रोत्साहन पैकेजों की घोषणा की। 3. वर्ष 2008-09 में भारत की जीडीपी विकास दर गिरकर 3 प्रतिशत से नीचे आ गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In response to the 2008 global financial meltdown, the RBI eased monetary conditions by slashing the policy repo rate and reducing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to enhance domestic liquidity, while the government rolled out three fiscal stimulus packages involving excise duty cuts and expanded public spending. Statement 3 is incorrect because India's resilient domestic demand maintained a robust GDP growth rate of 6.7% in 2008-09, well above 3 per cent.
With reference to committees and commissions in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Sachar Committee examined the social, economic and educational status of the Muslim community in India. 2. The Tendulkar Committee was constituted to review the methodology for the official estimation of poverty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में समितियों और आयोगों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सच्चर समिति ने भारत में मुस्लिम समुदाय की सामाजिक, आर्थिक और शैक्षणिक स्थिति की जांच की थी। 2. तेंदुलकर समिति का गठन गरीबी के आधिकारिक आकलन की कार्यप्रणाली की समीक्षा के लिए किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Rajindar Sachar Committee was appointed by the Prime Minister in 2005 and submitted its landmark report in November 2006 on the socio-economic and educational backwardness of Muslims in India. The Suresh Tendulkar Committee was appointed by the Planning Commission in 2005 and submitted its report in December 2009, moving away from uniform calorie intake anchors to include private expenditure on health and education for poverty line determination.
With reference to taxation in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented across India in 2009. 2. Service tax was introduced in India in the Union Budget of 1994-95. 3. Value Added Tax (VAT) was introduced at the state level in India from April 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में कराधान के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. वस्तु एवं सेवा कर (GST) पूरे भारत में वर्ष 2009 में लागू किया गया था। 2. भारत में सेवा कर (Service Tax) 1994-95 के केंद्रीय बजट में शुरू किया गया था। 3. भारत में राज्य स्तर पर मूल्य वर्धित कर (VAT) अप्रैल 2005 से लागू किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Service tax was first introduced under Chapter V of the Finance Act 1994 on three services (telephone services, non-life insurance, and stockbroking), and state-level VAT replacing general sales taxes came into operation on 1 April 2005 across most Indian states. Statement 1 is incorrect because the nationwide Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented on 1 July 2017 via the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act.
Consider the following pairs of institutions and their functions: 1. SEBI : Regulation of the securities market 2. IRDA : Regulation of the insurance sector 3. NABARD : Refinance for agriculture and rural development Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
संस्थानों और उनके कार्यों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. SEBI : प्रतिभूति बाजार का विनियमन 2. IRDA : बीमा क्षेत्र का विनियमन 3. NABARD : कृषि और ग्रामीण विकास के लिए पुनर्वित्त उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All three pairs are correctly matched. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the statutory regulator of the Indian securities market under the SEBI Act 1992; the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) regulates and promotes the insurance and reinsurance industries under the IRDA Act 1999; and NABARD acts as the apex development bank providing refinance facilities for agricultural and rural credit under the NABARD Act 1981.
With reference to international climate change negotiations, consider the following statements: 1. The 15th Conference of the Parties (COP15) to the UNFCCC was held at Copenhagen in December 2009. 2. The first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol ran from 2008 to 2012. 3. Under the Kyoto Protocol, India accepted legally binding emission reduction targets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
अंतर्राष्ट्रीय जलवायु परिवर्तन वार्ताओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. UNFCCC के पक्षकारों का 15वां सम्मेलन (COP15) दिसंबर 2009 में कोपेनहेगन में आयोजित किया गया था। 2. क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल की पहली प्रतिबद्धता अवधि 2008 से 2012 तक थी। 3. क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल के तहत, भारत ने कानूनी रूप से बाध्यकारी उत्सर्जन कटौती लक्ष्यों को स्वीकार किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. COP15 took place in Copenhagen, Denmark in December 2009, resulting in the Copenhagen Accord, and the first commitment period of the 1997 Kyoto Protocol spanned 2008 to 2012. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Kyoto Protocol differentiated responsibilities under Annex I and Non-Annex I; India, being a developing Non-Annex I country, had no binding quantified emission limitation or reduction obligations.
With reference to wetland conservation, consider the following statements: 1. The Ramsar Convention of 1971 relates to the conservation and wise use of wetlands. 2. Chilika Lake and Keoladeo National Park are designated Ramsar sites in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
आर्द्रभूमि (वेटलैंड) संरक्षण के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 1971 का रामसर अभिसमय आर्द्रभूमियों के संरक्षण और उनके विवेकपूर्ण उपयोग से संबंधित है। 2. चिल्का झील और केवलादेव राष्ट्रीय उद्यान भारत में निर्दिष्ट रामसर स्थल हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Convention on Wetlands was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 to provide the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands. Chilika Lake in Odisha and Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan were designated in October 1981 as the first two Ramsar sites in India.
Consider the following pairs of biosphere reserves and their locations: 1. Nilgiri : Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala 2. Sundarbans : West Bengal 3. Nanda Devi : Uttarakhand 4. Gulf of Mannar : Tamil Nadu Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
जैवमंडल आरक्षित क्षेत्रों (बायोस्फीयर रिजर्व) और उनकी अवस्थिति के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. नीलगिरि : तमिलनाडु, कर्नाटक और केरल 2. सुंदरबन : पश्चिम बंगाल 3. नंदा देवी : उत्तराखंड 4. मन्नार की खाड़ी : तमिलनाडु उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. Nilgiri was India's first biosphere reserve (established 1986) spread across Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka; the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve covers the deltaic mangrove region in West Bengal; Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve encompasses Chamoli, Pithoragarh, and Bageshwar districts in Uttarakhand; and the Gulf of Mannar Marine Biosphere Reserve lies along the southern coast of Tamil Nadu.
With reference to the H1N1 influenza outbreak of 2009, consider the following statements: 1. The outbreak was caused by a novel strain of the influenza A virus. 2. The World Health Organization declared it a pandemic (Phase 6) in June 2009. 3. H1N1 influenza is commonly referred to as 'bird flu'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2009 के H1N1 इन्फ्लूएंजा प्रकोप के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह प्रकोप इन्फ्लूएंजा ए वायरस के एक नए स्ट्रेन के कारण हुआ था। 2. विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन ने जून 2009 में इसे एक महामारी (चरण 6) घोषित किया था। 3. H1N1 इन्फ्लूएंजा को आमतौर पर 'बर्ड फ्लू' कहा जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 2009 outbreak was triggered by a novel triple-reassortant influenza A (H1N1) virus containing genes from swine, avian, and human influenza viruses, leading WHO to declare Phase 6 global pandemic status on 11 June 2009. Statement 3 is incorrect because H1N1 is commonly known as 'swine flu', whereas 'bird flu' (avian influenza) is primarily caused by H5N1 strains.
With reference to nuclear energy in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) is located at Kalpakkam. 2. India's first nuclear power station was established at Tarapur in 1969. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में परमाणु ऊर्जा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इंदिरा गांधी परमाणु अनुसंधान केंद्र (IGCAR) कलपक्कम में स्थित है। 2. भारत का पहला परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र 1969 में तारापुर में स्थापित किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), established in 1971 primarily for fast breeder reactor R&D, is situated at Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu. The Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS) in Maharashtra, commissioned in October 1969 with boiling water reactors built in collaboration with the United States, was the first commercial nuclear power station in India.
With reference to developments in Indian science and technology in 2009, consider the following statements: 1. The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) was established in 2009, with Nandan Nilekani as its first chairman. 2. ISRO's Oceansat-2 satellite was launched in September 2009. 3. India's first dedicated astronomy satellite, Astrosat, was launched in 2009. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2009 में भारतीय विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी के विकास के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारतीय विशिष्ट पहचान प्राधिकरण (UIDAI) की स्थापना 2009 में की गई थी, जिसके पहले अध्यक्ष नंदन नीलेकणि थे। 2. इसरो का ओशनसैट-2 उपग्रह सितंबर 2009 में प्रक्षेपित किया गया था। 3. भारत का पहला समर्पित खगोल विज्ञान उपग्रह, एस्ट्रोसैट, 2009 में प्रक्षेपित किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. UIDAI was constituted as an attached office under the Planning Commission in January 2009, with IT entrepreneur Nandan Nilekani appointed as its first Chairman in July 2009; ISRO successfully launched the oceanographic satellite Oceansat-2 aboard PSLV-C14 on 23 September 2009. Statement 3 is incorrect because Astrosat was launched six years later, on 28 September 2015, aboard PSLV-C30.
With reference to the G20 summits of 2009, consider the following statements: 1. G20 leaders' summits were held in London in April 2009 and in Pittsburgh in September 2009. 2. At the Pittsburgh summit, the G20 was designated as the premier forum for international economic cooperation. 3. India is not a member of the G20. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2009 के G20 सम्मेलनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. G20 नेताओं के शिखर सम्मेलन अप्रैल 2009 में लंदन और सितंबर 2009 में पिट्सबर्ग में आयोजित किए गए थे। 2. पिट्सबर्ग शिखर सम्मेलन में, G20 को अंतर्राष्ट्रीय आर्थिक सहयोग का प्रमुख मंच नामित किया गया था। 3. भारत G20 का सदस्य नहीं है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In response to the global economic slowdown, G20 leaders convened in London in April 2009 to pledge $1.1 trillion in financial support, and in Pittsburgh in September 2009, where they officially designated the G20 as the premier forum for international economic cooperation, replacing the G8's economic primacy. Statement 3 is incorrect because India is a founding member of the G20 since its creation in 1999.
With reference to notable events of 2009, consider the following statements: 1. Barack Obama was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for 2009. 2. Dr. Manmohan Singh was sworn in as Prime Minister of India for a second consecutive term in May 2009. 3. The Satyam Computer Services accounting fraud came to light in January 2009. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
वर्ष 2009 की प्रमुख घटनाओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. बराक ओबामा को 2009 के नोबेल शांति पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया था। 2. डॉ. मनमोहन सिंह ने मई 2009 में लगातार दूसरे कार्यकाल के लिए भारत के प्रधानमंत्री पद की शपथ ली थी। 3. सत्यम कंप्यूटर सर्विसेज का लेखा धोखाधड़ी मामला जनवरी 2009 में सामने आया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the 2009 Nobel Peace Prize to US President Barack Obama for extraordinary efforts to strengthen international diplomacy and cooperation; following the victory of UPA in the 15th Lok Sabha elections, Dr. Manmohan Singh was sworn in for a second term on 22 May 2009; and on 7 January 2009, Satyam chairman B. Ramalinga Raju confessed to inflating company accounts by over $1 billion, precipitating India's largest corporate governance scandal.
With reference to international affairs in 2009, consider the following statements: 1. The Lisbon Treaty, reforming the institutional structure of the European Union, entered into force in December 2009. 2. The 2010 Commonwealth Games were awarded to London. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2009 के अंतर्राष्ट्रीय घटनाक्रम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यूरोपीय संघ की संस्थागत संरचना में सुधार करने वाली लिस्बन संधि दिसंबर 2009 में लागू हुई। 2. 2010 के राष्ट्रमंडल खेलों की मेजबानी लंदन को सौंपी गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the Treaty of Lisbon, amending the Maastricht Treaty and Treaty of Rome to streamline EU decision-making and establish a permanent President of the European Council, entered into force on 1 December 2009. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2010 Commonwealth Games were awarded to and hosted by Delhi, India; London hosted the 2012 Summer Olympic Games.
With reference to the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements: 1. The Great Bath was discovered at Harappa. 2. Lothal was a major port town with a dockyard. 3. The Harappans were familiar with the use of bronze. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. विशाल स्नानागार की खोज हड़प्पा में हुई थी। 2. लोथल एक प्रमुख बंदरगाह नगर था जिसमें एक गोदी (डॉकयार्ड) था। 3. हड़प्पावासी कांस्य (ब्रॉन्ज) के उपयोग से भली-भांति परिचित थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Lothal in Gujarat featured a massive tidal brick basin identified as a dockyard for maritime commerce, and the Harappan culture belonged to the Bronze Age, mastering copper-tin alloying and lost-wax casting (such as the 'Dancing Girl'). Statement 1 is incorrect because the Great Bath was excavated at Mohenjo-daro in Sindh by John Marshall, not at Harappa.
Arrange the following conquests of Alauddin Khilji in chornological order. 1. Ranthambor 2. Gujarat 3. Warangal 4. Chittor Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:
अलाउद्दीन खिलजी की निम्नलिखित विजयों कोकालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिये।L, रण्थम्बौर
Chronological Order of Alauddin Khilji's Military Conquests:
- 2. Conquest of Gujarat (1299 CE): Army commanded by Ulugh Khan and Nusrat Khan defeated Rai Karan Baghela II of Gujarat; Malik Kafur was captured from Khambhat.
- 1. Siege and Conquest of Ranthambore (1301 CE): Alauddin personally marched against Hammiradeva of Chauhan dynasty; captured Ranthambore fort in July 1301 after Nusrat Khan was killed.
- 4. Siege and Conquest of Chittor (1303 CE): Alauddin laid siege to Chittor fort ruled by Rawal Ratan Singh (Guhila dynasty); Rani Padmini performed Jauhar; captured in August 1303 and renamed Khizrabad.
- 3. Conquest of Warangal (1309–1310 CE): Southern expedition led by Malik Kafur besieged Kakatiya ruler Prataparudra II at Warangal; Kakatiya king submitted and surrendered the Koh-i-Noor diamond.
Chronological sequence: Gujarat (1299) → Ranthambore (1301) → Chittor (1303) → Warangal (1310).
Therefore, the correct code is 2, 1, 4, 3 (Option C).
Consider the following pairs of Bhakti saints and the regions associated with them: 1. Kabir : Varanasi 2. Guru Nanak : Punjab 3. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu : Bengal 4. Tukaram : Maharashtra Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
भक्ति संतों और उनसे जुड़े क्षेत्रों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कबीर : वाराणसी 2. गुरु नानक : पंजाब 3. चैतन्य महाप्रभु : बंगाल 4. तुकाराम : महाराष्ट्र उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. Sant Kabir was a 15th-century Nirguna poet-saint who spent most of his life in Varanasi (Kashi); Guru Nanak Dev, the founder of Sikhism, was born at Nankana Sahib in the Punjab region; Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a 16th-century Gaudiya Vaishnava mystic born in Nabadwip, Bengal; and Sant Tukaram was a prominent Varkari Bhakti poet-saint from Dehu near Pune in Maharashtra.
With reference to the Mansabdari system of the Mughals, consider the following statements: 1. It was introduced by Akbar. 2. The 'zat' rank determined the personal pay and status of the mansabdar, while the 'sawar' rank indicated the cavalry contingent to be maintained. 3. Mansabdars were always paid in cash and were never assigned jagirs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
मुगलों की मनसबदारी प्रणाली के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह प्रणाली अकबर द्वारा शुरू की गई थी। 2. 'जात' पद मनसबदार के व्यक्तिगत वेतन और पद-स्थिति को निर्धारित करता था, जबकि 'सवार' पद उसके द्वारा रखे जाने वाले घुड़सवारों की संख्या को दर्शाता था। 3. मनसबदारों को हमेशा नकद वेतन दिया जाता था और उन्हें कभी जागीरें नहीं सौंपी जाती थीं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Akbar institutionalized the Mansabdari system around 1571 to organize the Mughal military and civil bureaucracy, structuring ranks into dual designations: 'zat' denoting personal hierarchical status and remuneration, and 'sawar' specifying the contingent of cavalry and war-horses the noble was required to maintain. Statement 3 is incorrect because mansabdars were commonly compensated through assignments of revenue-yielding land rights known as jagirs (making them jagirdars), as well as cash salaries (naqdi).
Consider the following pairs of leaders of the Revolt of 1857 and the centres associated with them: 1. Rani Lakshmibai : Jhansi 2. Kunwar Singh : Jagdishpur 3. Nana Saheb : Lucknow 4. Bahadur Shah Zafar : Delhi Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1857 के विद्रोह के नेताओं और उनसे जुड़े केंद्रों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. रानी लक्ष्मीबाई : झांसी 2. कुंवर सिंह : जगदीशपुर 3. नाना साहेब : लखनऊ 4. बहादुर शाह जफर : दिल्ली उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं?
Pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correctly matched. Rani Lakshmibai led the rebellion at Jhansi, Kunwar Singh spearheaded the revolt in Jagdishpur (Arrah, Bihar), and the octogenarian Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar was proclaimed the symbolic head of the uprising at Delhi. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched because Nana Saheb led the revolt at Kanpur along with Tatya Tope, whereas Lucknow was led by Begum Hazrat Mahal.
With reference to the Partition of Bengal and the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements: 1. The Partition of Bengal was announced in 1905 during the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon. 2. The Swadeshi Movement saw the establishment of the Bengal National College, with Aurobindo Ghosh as its principal. 3. The Partition of Bengal was annulled in 1911. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
बंगाल विभाजन और स्वदेशी आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. बंगाल विभाजन की घोषणा 1905 में लॉर्ड कर्जन के वायसराय काल में की गई थी। 2. स्वदेशी आंदोलन के दौरान बंगाल नेशनल कॉलेज की स्थापना हुई, जिसके प्राचार्य अरविंद घोष बने। 3. बंगाल का विभाजन 1911 में रद्द कर दिया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Lord Curzon proclaimed the partition of Bengal on administrative pretexts in July 1905 (implemented 16 October 1905), sparking the Swadeshi and Boycott movement. Under the National Council of Education set up in August 1906, the Bengal National College was established with Aurobindo Ghosh as its first principal, and strong sustained popular agitation compelled the British Crown to annul the partition at the Delhi Durbar in December 1911 under Lord Hardinge.
With reference to the early movements led by Mahatma Gandhi in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was launched against the tinkathia system imposed by indigo planters. 2. The Kheda Satyagraha (1918) sought remission of land revenue owing to crop failure. 3. Vallabhbhai Patel assisted Gandhi in all three movements — Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में महात्मा गांधी द्वारा चलाए गए प्रारंभिक आंदोलनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. चंपारण सत्याग्रह (1917) नील बगान मालिकों द्वारा थोपी गई तिनकठिया प्रणाली के खिलाफ शुरू किया गया था। 2. खेड़ा सत्याग्रह (1918) फसल खराब होने के कारण भू-राजस्व में छूट की मांग के लिए किया गया था। 3. वल्लभभाई पटेल ने तीनों आंदोलनों - चंपारण, खेड़ा और अहमदाबाद में गांधीजी की सहायता की थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In Champaran (1917), Gandhi intervened against the European planters' rule compelling peasants to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of their holdings (tinkathia), and in Kheda (1918), he supported Gujarat peasants demanding revenue exemption following severe crop failure under the Revenue Code. Statement 3 is incorrect because Vallabhbhai Patel joined Gandhi during the Kheda campaign; he was not associated with the Champaran Satyagraha in Bihar, where Rajendra Prasad, J.B. Kripalani, and Mazharul Haq assisted Gandhi.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II A. Planting Hearth 1. Hungary B. Cryophyte Steppe 2. Adolf Engler C. World Floral Regions 3. C.O. Sauer D. Puszta Grassland 4. Arctic Tundra 7 Codes: A B C D
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी त्रि-स्तरीय पंचायती राज व्यवस्था में एक स्तर नहीं है?
Match between Geographical Concepts/Regions and their Pioneers/Locations:
| List-I | List-II |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Planting Hearth | 3. Carl O. Sauer |
| B. Cryophyte Steppe | 4. Arctic Tundra |
| C. World Floral Regions | 2. Adolf Engler |
| D. Puszta Grassland | 1. Hungary |
- Carl O. Sauer: American geographer who proposed the concept of 'Agricultural Hearths' (Planting and Seed agriculture hearths in Southeast Asia and the Americas) in Agricultural Origins and Dispersals (1952).
- Cryophyte Steppe: Vegetation adapted to extreme cold and dry permafrost environments, characteristic of the Arctic Tundra and high alpine plateaus.
- Adolf Engler: German botanist who classified the world into comprehensive Phytogeographical / Floral kingdoms and regions (Holartic, Paleotropic, Neotropic, Capensis, Australian, Antarctic).
- Puszta: Famous temperate grassland/steppe biome situated in the Pannonian Basin of Hungary.
Hence, the correct matching code is A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (Option b).
With reference to the developments of the early 1930s, consider the following statements: 1. Mahatma Gandhi attended the Second Round Table Conference in London. 2. The Communal Award of 1932 was announced by the British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald. 3. The Poona Pact provided for joint electorates with reserved seats for the Depressed Classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1930 के दशक के प्रारंभ के घटनाक्रम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. महात्मा गांधी ने लंदन में आयोजित दूसरे गोलमेज सम्मेलन में भाग लिया था। 2. 1932 के सांप्रदायिक पंचाट (कम्यूनल अवॉर्ड) की घोषणा ब्रिटिश प्रधानमंत्री रैमसे मैकडोनाल्ड ने की थी। 3. पूना पैक्ट में दलित वर्गों के लिए संयुक्त निर्वाचन मंडल के साथ आरक्षित सीटों का प्रावधान किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Mahatma Gandhi attended the Second Round Table Conference in late 1931 as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. In August 1932, British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald announced the Communal Award creating separate electorates for minority communities including the Depressed Classes, which led Gandhi to fast unto death in Yerwada Jail and culminated in the Poona Pact (September 1932) with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, establishing joint electorates with significantly enhanced reserved seats.
With reference to the Quit India Movement, consider the following statements: 1. The movement was launched in August 1942 after the failure of the Cripps Mission. 2. Mahatma Gandhi gave the call of 'Do or Die'. 3. The Muslim League actively participated in the movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह आंदोलन क्रिप्स मिशन की विफलता के बाद अगस्त 1942 में शुरू किया गया था। 2. महात्मा गांधी ने 'करो या मरो' का नारा दिया था। 3. मुस्लिम लीग ने इस आंदोलन में सक्रिय रूप से भाग लिया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The failure of Stafford Cripps' mission to offer immediate self-government prompted the All India Congress Committee to pass the historic Quit India resolution at Bombay on 8 August 1942, where Gandhi gave his famous clarion call 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Muslim League, under Muhammad Ali Jinnah, vehemently opposed the movement, boycotted it, and urged Muslims to remain aloof, fearing Congress domination.
With reference to the Indian National Army (INA), consider the following statements: 1. The INA was formed largely from Indian prisoners of war captured by the Japanese in South-East Asia. 2. Subhas Chandra Bose travelled from Germany to Japan by air in 1943. 3. The INA trials were held at the Red Fort in Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
आजाद हिंद फौज (INA) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. आजाद हिंद फौज का गठन मुख्य रूप से दक्षिण-पूर्व एशिया में जापानी सेना द्वारा बंदी बनाए गए भारतीय युद्धबंदियों से हुआ था। 2. सुभाष चंद्र बोस 1943 में जर्मनी से जापान की यात्रा हवाई मार्ग से करके पहुंचे थे। 3. आजाद हिंद फौज के सैनिकों पर मुकदमे (INA Trials) दिल्ली के लाल किले में चलाए गए थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The INA was initially organized in Malaya and Singapore from British Indian Army soldiers captured by the Japanese, spearheaded by Mohan Singh, and the historic joint public trials of officers Prem Sahgal, Gurbaksh Dhillon, and Shahnawaz Khan took place at the Red Fort in late 1945. Statement 2 is incorrect because Subhas Chandra Bose undertook an unprecedented clandestine voyage from Kiel, Germany to Madagascar aboard a German submarine (U-180), where he transferred in open sea to a Japanese submarine (I-29) to reach Tokyo in 1943.
With reference to the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, consider the following statements: 1. It proposed a three-tier federation for India. 2. It rejected the demand for a separate sovereign Pakistan. 3. The Muslim League initially boycotted the Constituent Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1946 के कैबिनेट मिशन प्लान के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसने भारत के लिए त्रि-स्तरीय परिसंघ का प्रस्ताव रखा था। 2. इसने एक अलग संप्रभु पाकिस्तान की मांग को खारिज कर दिया था। 3. मुस्लिम लीग ने प्रारंभ में संविधान सभा का बहिष्कार किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Cabinet Mission (Pethick-Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, A.V. Alexander) presented its plan in May 1946, envisaging a three-tier structure (Union, Sections/Groups, and Provinces) with weak centre, and explicitly turned down Jinnah's demand for a sovereign Pakistan as geographically and demographically non-viable. When disagreements arose over grouping clauses, the Muslim League withdrew its acceptance and boycotted the opening session of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946.
With reference to the Indian monsoon, consider the following statements: 1. The differential heating of land and sea is a primary cause of the monsoon. 2. The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts northward over the Gangetic plains during summer. 3. The retreating monsoon brings rainfall mainly to the Malabar coast. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारतीय मानसून के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. स्थल और जल का विभेदी तापन मानसून का एक प्रमुख प्राथमिक कारण है। 2. ग्रीष्म ऋतु के दौरान अंतःउष्णकटिबंधीय अभिसरण क्षेत्र (ITCZ) उत्तर की ओर गंगा के मैदानों की तरफ खिसक जाता है। 3. लौटता हुआ (निवर्तनीय) मानसून मुख्य रूप से मालाबार तट पर वर्षा लाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Classical monsoon circulation is generated by the differential rate of solar heating between the massive Asian landmass and the Indian Ocean, and the summer northward migration of the ITCZ over the Indo-Gangetic plain creates the low-pressure monsoon trough that draws in moist south-westerly maritime winds. Statement 3 is incorrect because the retreating (north-east) monsoon picks up moisture over the Bay of Bengal and sheds rainfall along the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu and southern Andhra Pradesh, while the Malabar coast in Kerala receives its deluge during the onset of the south-west monsoon.
With reference to the Himalayan rivers, consider the following statements: 1. The Indus rises near Lake Mansarovar in Tibet. 2. The Brahmaputra enters India in Arunachal Pradesh, where it is known as the Dihang. 3. The Ganga is formed at Devprayag by the confluence of the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
हिमालयी नदियों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सिंधु नदी तिब्बत में मानसरोवर झील के निकट से निकलती है। 2. ब्रह्मपुत्र नदी अरुणाचल प्रदेश से भारत में प्रवेश करती है, जहाँ इसे दिहांग के नाम से जाना जाता है। 3. गंगा नदी देवप्रयाग में अलकनंदा और भागीरथी के संगम से बनती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Indus originates in the Tibetan plateau near Lake Mansarovar from the Bokhar Chu glacier; the Tsangpo river cuts across the Himalayas at the Namcha Barwa gorge to enter Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang or Dihang; and the sacred river Ganga is officially constituted at Devprayag by the union of the Bhagirathi from Gangotri and the Alaknanda from Satopanth glacier.
With reference to the soils of India, consider the following statements: 1. Black soil, also called regur soil, is ideal for cotton cultivation. 2. Alluvial soil is the most fertile soil and covers the northern plains. 3. Laterite soil is rich in humus content. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की मृदा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. काली मिट्टी, जिसे रेगुर मिट्टी भी कहा जाता है, कपास की खेती के लिए आदर्श होती है। 2. जलोढ़ मिट्टी सर्वाधिक उपजाऊ मिट्टी है और यह उत्तरी मैदानों में विस्तृत है। 3. लैटेराइट मिट्टी में ह्यूमस की प्रचुर मात्रा पाई जाती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Regur or black soil possesses high clay content and moisture retention, making it exceptionally suited for rainfed cotton, while transportable alluvial soil enriched with silt and potash blankets the Indo-Gangetic-Brahmaputra plain, forming India's agricultural heartland. Statement 3 is incorrect because laterite soil develops under alternate wet and dry spells with intense leaching, washing away silica and bases while high tropical temperatures foster bacteria that rapidly consume organic matter, leaving laterites poor in humus, nitrogen, and phosphate.
With reference to agriculture in India, consider the following statements: 1. India is the largest producer of sugarcane in the world. 2. West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India. 3. Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में कृषि के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत विश्व में गन्ने का सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक देश है। 2. पश्चिम बंगाल भारत में चावल का सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक राज्य है। 3. गुजरात भारत में मूंगफली का सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक राज्य है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. West Bengal consistently leads Indian states in paddy production (accounting for over 13% of national rice output), and Gujarat's Saurashtra belt ranks first nationally in groundnut cultivation. Statement 1 is incorrect because Brazil is historically and consistently the world's largest producer of sugarcane, with India ranking second.
With reference to ocean currents, consider the following statements: 1. The Gulf Stream is a warm current of the North Atlantic Ocean. 2. The Peru (Humboldt) Current is a warm current. 3. The Kuroshio Current is a cold current. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
महासागरीय धाराओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. गल्फ स्ट्रीम उत्तरी अटलांटिक महासागर की एक गर्म जलधारा है। 2. पेरू (हम्बोल्ट) धारा एक गर्म जलधारा है। 3. कुरोशियो धारा एक ठंडी जलधारा है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the Gulf Stream is an intense, warm western boundary current flowing from the Gulf of Mexico along the eastern coast of the United States towards north-western Europe. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the Peru (Humboldt) Current is a cold eastern boundary current flowing northward along the western coast of South America, and the Kuroshio (Japan Current) is a warm western boundary current of the North Pacific Ocean, analogous to the Gulf Stream.
With reference to the Mediterranean type of climate, consider the following statements: 1. It is characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters. 2. It is found on the eastern margins of continents between 30° and 40° latitudes. 3. It is well known for viticulture and the cultivation of citrus fruits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भूमध्यसागरीय प्रकार की जलवायु के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसकी विशेषता गर्म, शुष्क ग्रीष्मकाल और हल्की, आर्द्र शीत ऋतु है। 2. यह 30° और 40° अक्षांशों के बीच महाद्वीपों के पूर्वी किनारों पर पाई जाती है। 3. यह अंगूर की खेती (विटिकल्चर) और खट्टे (सिट्रस) फलों के उत्पादन के लिए प्रसिद्ध है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Mediterranean climate (Cs in Köppen classification) experiences prominent dry summers dominated by subtropical high-pressure cells and rainy winters brought by on-shore westerlies, and this distinct seasonality fosters specialized horticulture, especially olives, citrus fruits, and commercial viticulture (wine production). Statement 2 is incorrect because Mediterranean climatic belts occur strictly on the western margins of continents between 30° and 45° north and south latitudes (such as central Chile, California, Cape Province, and south-western Australia).
With reference to plate tectonics and seismic activity, consider the following statements: 1. The Himalayas were formed by the collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate. 2. The Pacific 'Ring of Fire' is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. 3. The Deccan Plateau is the most seismically active region of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
प्लेट विवर्तनिकी और भूकंपीय गतिविधि के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. हिमालय का निर्माण भारतीय प्लेट और यूरेशियन प्लेट के टकराव से हुआ था। 2. प्रशांत महासागर का 'रिंग ऑफ फायर' बारंबार भूकंपों और ज्वालामुखीय उद्गारों से जुड़ा हुआ है। 3. दक्कन का पठार भारत का सर्वाधिक भूकंपीय रूप से सक्रिय क्षेत्र है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Himalayas are young fold mountains produced by the ongoing convergent continent-continent collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, and the circum-Pacific 'Ring of Fire' is a horse-shoe-shaped subduction belt accounting for about 80% of global earthquakes and most active stratovolcanoes. Statement 3 is incorrect because peninsular India (the Deccan Plateau) constitutes a rigid, ancient crystalline Precambrian shield representing a low-to-moderate seismic hazard zone, whereas the collision boundary in the Himalayas and north-eastern India falls in the highest seismic risk Zone V.
Consider the following pairs of Himalayan passes and their locations: 1. Zoji La : Jammu and Kashmir 2. Nathu La : Sikkim 3. Shipki La : Himachal Pradesh 4. Bomdi La : Arunachal Pradesh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
हिमालयी दरों और उनकी अवस्थिति के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जोजिला : जम्मू और कश्मीर 2. नाथूला : सिक्किम 3. शिपकी ला : हिमाचल प्रदेश 4. बोमडिला : अरुणाचल प्रदेश उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. Zoji La connects Srinagar with Kargil and Leh on the Great Himalayan range; Nathu La is an ancient trading mountain pass on the Indo-China border in Sikkim; Shipki La is a Himalayan mountain pass in Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh through which the Sutlej River enters India; and Bomdi La connects western Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa, Tibet.
With reference to protected areas in India, consider the following statements: 1. Jim Corbett National Park is located in Uttarakhand. 2. Kaziranga National Park is famous for the one-horned rhinoceros. 3. Gir National Park is famous for its tiger population. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में संरक्षित क्षेत्रों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जिम कॉर्बेट राष्ट्रीय उद्यान उत्तराखंड में स्थित है। 2. काजीरंगा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान एक सींग वाले गैंडे के लिए प्रसिद्ध है। 3. गिर राष्ट्रीय उद्यान अपनी बाघों की आबादी के लिए प्रसिद्ध है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Jim Corbett National Park, established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, is situated in the Nainital and Pauri Garhwal districts of Uttarakhand, and Kaziranga National Park in the floodplains of Assam holds over two-thirds of the world's great one-horned rhinoceroses. Statement 3 is incorrect because Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat is the sole surviving natural habitat of the Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica), not tigers.
With reference to the location and time of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight Indian states. 2. Indian Standard Time is based on the 82.5°E longitude. 3. Indian Standard Time is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की अवस्थिति और मानक समय के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कर्क रेखा भारत के आठ राज्यों से होकर गुजरती है। 2. भारतीय मानक समय (IST) 82.5° पूर्वी देशांतर पर आधारित है। 3. भारतीय मानक समय ग्रीनविच माध्य समय (GMT) से 5 घंटे 30 मिनट आगे है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30' N) bisects India across eight states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Indian Standard Time is determined by the standard meridian of 82°30' E longitude passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh, which computes to exactly UTC+05:30 (5.5 hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time at 0° longitude).
With reference to the geography of Africa, consider the following statements: 1. The Great Rift Valley extends from Syria in the north to Mozambique in the south. 2. Lake Tanganyika is the largest lake of Africa by surface area. 3. The Sahara is the largest hot desert in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
अफ्रीका के भूगोल के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. महान भ्रंश घाटी (ग्रेट रिफ्ट वैली) उत्तर में सीरिया से लेकर दक्षिण में मोज़ाम्बिक तक विस्तृत है। 2. सतह के क्षेत्रफल की दृष्टि से तांगानिका झील अफ्रीका की सबसे बड़ी झील है। 3. सहारा विश्व का सबसे बड़ा उष्ण मरुस्थल है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The East African Rift system is a divergent tectonic boundary extending over 6,000 kilometres from the Beqaa Valley in Lebanon/Syria through the Red Sea down to central Mozambique, and the Sahara Desert spanning over 9 million square kilometres is the earth's largest subtropical hot desert. Statement 2 is incorrect because Lake Victoria is Africa's largest lake by surface area (around 68,800 sq km), whereas Lake Tanganyika is the longest freshwater lake and second deepest in the world.
Consider the following pairs of straits and the regions they connect or separate: 1. Bering Strait : separates Asia and North America 2. Strait of Gibraltar : connects the Mediterranean Sea with the Atlantic Ocean 3. Strait of Malacca : lies between Malaysia and Sumatra 4. Palk Strait : lies between India and Sri Lanka Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
जलडमरूमध्यों (जलसंधियों) और उनके द्वारा जोड़े या अलग किए जाने वाले क्षेत्रों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. बेरिंग जलडमरूमध्य : एशिया और उत्तरी अमेरिका को अलग करता है 2. जिब्राल्टर जलडमरूमध्य : भूमध्य सागर को अटलांटिक महासागर से जोड़ता है 3. मलक्का जलडमरूमध्य : मलेशिया और सुमात्रा के बीच स्थित है 4. पाक जलडमरूमध्य : भारत और श्रीलंका के बीच स्थित है उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. The Bering Strait separates Russia (Chukchi Peninsula) in Asia from Alaska (Seward Peninsula) in North America; the Strait of Gibraltar links the Mediterranean Sea with the Atlantic Ocean between southern Spain and Morocco; the Strait of Malacca is the crucial maritime bottleneck between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra; and Palk Strait links the Bay of Bengal with Palk Bay between Tamil Nadu in India and the Jaffna peninsula of Sri Lanka.
With reference to Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements: 1. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under Article 32 of the Constitution. 2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. 3. Fundamental Rights are absolute and cannot be suspended under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
मौलिक अधिकारों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. संवैधानिक उपचारों का अधिकार संविधान के अनुच्छेद 32 के तहत प्रदान किया गया है। 2. डॉ. बी.आर. अंबेडकर ने अनुच्छेद 32 को संविधान का 'हृदय और आत्मा' बताया था। 3. मौलिक अधिकार निरपेक्ष (असीमित) हैं और इन्हें किसी भी परिस्थिति में निलंबित नहीं किया जा सकता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 32 gives citizens the right to petition the Supreme Court directly through prerogative writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto, Certiorari) for the enforcement of Part III rights, leading Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to famously call it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. Statement 3 is incorrect because Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified by reasonable state restrictions in the interests of public order, morality, and sovereignty, and their enforcement can be suspended during a National Emergency under Articles 358 and 359 (except Articles 20 and 21).
With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following statements: 1. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution. 2. They are enforceable by the courts. 3. They have been borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
राज्य के नीति निर्देशक तत्वों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. ये संविधान के भाग IV में सन्निहित हैं। 2. ये न्यायालयों द्वारा प्रवर्तनीय हैं। 3. इन्हें आयरलैंड के संविधान से लिया गया है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are enshrined in Articles 36 to 51 under Part IV of the Constitution, inspired directly by the 1937 Constitution of Ireland. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 37 explicitly declares that the Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country but are non-justiciable and cannot be enforced by any court.
With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. 2. Nominated members of both Houses of Parliament participate in the election. 3. Members of State Legislative Councils participate in the election. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के राष्ट्रपति के चुनाव के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह चुनाव एकल संक्रमणीय मत के माध्यम से आनुपातिक प्रतिनिधित्व प्रणाली के अनुसार आयोजित किया जाता है। 2. संसद के दोनों सदनों के मनोनीत सदस्य इस चुनाव में भाग लेते हैं। 3. राज्यों की विधान परिषदों के सदस्य इस चुनाव में भाग लेते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because Article 55(3) of the Constitution mandates that the presidential election shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote through secret ballot. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because under Article 54, the electoral college consists strictly of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories; nominated members and members of State Legislative Councils (MLCs) are entirely excluded.
With reference to a Money Bill, consider the following statements: 1. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. 2. The decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final. 3. The Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
धन विधेयक के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसे केवल लोकसभा में ही प्रस्तुत किया जा सकता है। 2. कोई विधेयक धन विधेयक है या नहीं, इस पर लोकसभा अध्यक्ष का निर्णय अंतिम होता है। 3. राज्य सभा किसी धन विधेयक में संशोधन कर सकती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under Article 109(1), a Money Bill can be introduced solely in the Lok Sabha on the prior recommendation of the President, and Article 110(3) provides that if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill; it can only make non-binding recommendations within 14 days under Article 109(2).
With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements: 1. It has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more States under Article 131. 2. Its advisory jurisdiction is provided under Article 143. 3. It is a court of record under Article 129. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अनुच्छेद 131 के तहत इसे भारत सरकार और एक या अधिक राज्यों के बीच विवादों में मूल क्षेत्राधिकार प्राप्त है। 2. इसका परामर्शदात्री (सलाहकारी) क्षेत्राधिकार अनुच्छेद 143 के तहत प्रदान किया गया है। 3. अनुच्छेद 129 के तहत यह एक अभिलेख न्यायालय है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Under Article 131, the Supreme Court exercises exclusive original jurisdiction in federal disputes involving the Union and States; Article 143 empowers the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance; and Article 129 designates the Supreme Court as a court of record with the power to punish for contempt of itself.
With reference to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements: 1. It added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. 2. The Eleventh Schedule contains 18 subjects devolved to the Panchayats. 3. It provides for reservation of not less than one-third of the seats for women in Panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
73वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसने संविधान में भाग IX और ग्यारहवीं अनुसूची को जोड़ा। 2. ग्यारहवीं अनुसूची में पंचायतों को हस्तांतरित 18 विषय शामिल हैं। 3. यह पंचायतों में महिलाओं के लिए कम से कम एक-तिहाई सीटों के आरक्षण का प्रावधान करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 constitutionalized Panchayati Raj by inserting Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, and Article 243D(3) mandates that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Eleventh Schedule contains 29 functional subjects for Panchayats (Article 243G), whereas 18 subjects are listed under the Twelfth Schedule for Municipalities under the 74th Amendment Act.
With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements: 1. It is a constitutional body provided under Article 324. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. 3. Other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के निर्वाचन आयोग के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह अनुच्छेद 324 के तहत प्रदान किया गया एक संवैधानिक निकाय है। 2. मुख्य निर्वाचन आयुक्त को उसी रीति से पद से हटाया जा सकता है जैसे उच्चतम न्यायालय के न्यायाधीश को। 3. अन्य निर्वाचन आयुक्तों को मुख्य निर्वाचन आयुक्त की सिफारिश पर राष्ट्रपति द्वारा हटाया जा सकता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Article 324 creates the permanent constitutional Election Commission of India. Proviso 1 to Article 324(5) safeguards the Chief Election Commissioner from executive whim by providing tenure protection equivalent to a Supreme Court judge (removal only on proven misbehaviour or incapacity by special majority of Parliament), and Proviso 2 mandates that any other Election Commissioner or Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
With reference to the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, consider the following statements: 1. It provides for free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years. 2. It came into force on 1 April 2009. 3. It permits corporal punishment in schools as a disciplinary measure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
बच्चों के निःशुल्क और अनिवार्य शिक्षा का अधिकार अधिनियम, 2009 के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह 6 से 14 वर्ष की आयु के सभी बच्चों के लिए निःशुल्क और अनिवार्य शिक्षा का प्रावधान करता है। 2. यह 1 अप्रैल 2009 को लागू हुआ था। 3. यह अनुशासनात्मक उपाय के रूप में स्कूलों में शारीरिक दंड की अनुमति देता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the RTE Act 2009 gives effect to Article 21A, conferring a statutory entitlement to 8 years of free and compulsory elementary education to every child between the ages of 6 and 14. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the Act officially came into force across India on 1 April 2010 (not 2009), and Section 17 of the Act strictly prohibits all forms of physical punishment and mental harassment in schools, making them punishable offences.
With reference to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Defence is a subject in the Union List. 2. Agriculture is a subject in the State List. 3. Education is a subject in the State List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
संविधान की सातवीं अनुसूची के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. रक्षा (डिफेंस) संघ सूची का एक विषय है। 2. कृषि राज्य सूची का एक विषय है। 3. शिक्षा राज्य सूची का एक विषय है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Defence of India and naval, military, and air forces are listed as Entry 1 and Entry 2 of the Union List (List I), and Agriculture (including agricultural education and research) is placed as Entry 14 of the State List (List II). Statement 3 is incorrect because Education was transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List (List III, Entry 25) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
With reference to the amendment of the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Article 368 deals with the power and procedure of Parliament to amend the Constitution. 2. Every constitutional amendment requires ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States. 3. A constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament but not in a State Legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
संविधान संशोधन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अनुच्छेद 368 संविधान में संशोधन करने की संसद की शक्ति और प्रक्रिया से संबंधित है। 2. प्रत्येक संविधान संशोधन के लिए कम से कम आधे राज्यों के विधानमंडलों के अनुसमर्थन की आवश्यकता होती है। 3. संविधान संशोधन विधेयक संसद के किसी भी सदन में पेश किया जा सकता है, किंतु राज्य विधानमंडल में नहीं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Article 368 in Part XX specifies Parliament's constituent power to amend any provision of the Constitution, and such a bill may be initiated exclusively in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, never in a state legislature. Statement 2 is incorrect because state legislative ratification (by at least half of the states by simple majority) is required solely for amendments altering entrenched federal provisions enumerated in the proviso to Article 368(2), whereas the majority of amendments require only a special majority of each House of Parliament.
Who among the following has been chosen ‘Person of the Year 2015’ by Times Magazine?
टाइम पत्रिका (Time Magazine) द्वारा वर्ष 2015 का 'पर्सन ऑफ द ईयर' किसे चुना गया था?
Correct Option: Option (D) — 1, 2 and 3 is the correct answer.
- All given statements are correct:
- 1. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
- 2. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
- 3. The value of votes of MLAs and MPs is determined using population figures of the 1971 Census.
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves. 2. The Speaker is required to resign from his or her political party upon election. 3. The Speaker vacates his or her office as soon as the Lok Sabha is dissolved. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
लोकसभा अध्यक्ष के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अध्यक्ष का चुनाव लोकसभा के सदस्यों द्वारा अपने में से ही किया जाता है। 2. चुनाव के बाद अध्यक्ष के लिए अपने राजनीतिक दल से त्यागपत्र देना अनिवार्य होता है। 3. लोकसभा के भंग होते ही अध्यक्ष अपना पद तुरंत रिक्त कर देता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because Article 93 specifies that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because under Indian parliamentary practice, the Speaker does not formally resign from party membership (unlike the British convention), and by virtue of the second proviso to Article 94, whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha.
With reference to the global financial crisis of 2008, consider the following statements: 1. The crisis originated in the subprime mortgage market of the United States. 2. Lehman Brothers was bailed out by the United States government. 3. The crisis prompted coordinated fiscal stimulus packages by major economies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2008 के वैश्विक वित्तीय संकट के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह संकट संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका के सबप्राइम बंधक (मॉर्टगेज) बाजार से उत्पन्न हुआ था। 2. लेहमैन ब्रदर्स को संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका की सरकार द्वारा बेलआउट (आर्थिक सहायता) दिया गया था। 3. इस संकट के समाधान हेतु प्रमुख अर्थव्यवस्थाओं द्वारा समन्वित राजकोषीय प्रोत्साहन पैकेजों की घोषणा की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The crisis was ignited by high default rates on US subprime residential mortgages and the subsequent collapse of mortgage-backed securities, which led the G20 to coordinate unprecedented synchronous monetary easing and expansionary fiscal stimulus packages worldwide. Statement 2 is incorrect because the US Federal Reserve and Treasury permitted investment banking giant Lehman Brothers to collapse into Chapter 11 bankruptcy on 15 September 2008 without extending a public bailout, accelerating global contagion.
With reference to India's response to the global economic slowdown of 2008-09, consider the following statements: 1. The Government announced fiscal stimulus packages that included cuts in excise duty and service tax. 2. The Reserve Bank of India reduced the repo rate and the Cash Reserve Ratio to inject liquidity. 3. India raised interest rates sharply to attract foreign capital inflows during the crisis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2008-09 की वैश्विक आर्थिक मंदी के प्रति भारत की प्रतिक्रिया के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सरकार ने राजकोषीय प्रोत्साहन पैकेजों की घोषणा की जिसमें उत्पाद शुल्क और सेवा कर में कटौती शामिल थी। 2. भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक ने तरलता बढ़ाने के लिए रेपो दर और नकद आरक्षित अनुपात (CRR) में कटौती की। 3. भारत ने संकट के दौरान विदेशी पूंजी आकर्षित करने के लिए ब्याज दरों में भारी वृद्धि की थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. To insulate the domestic economy from contagion, the Union Government enacted three fiscal stimulus packages totaling over 3% of GDP, featuring across-the-board 4% cuts in central excise duty and a 2% cut in service tax, while the RBI reduced the repo rate from 9.0% to 4.75% and the CRR from 9.0% to 5.0% between October 2008 and April 2009. Statement 3 is incorrect because India implemented counter-cyclical aggressive rate cuts to stimulate credit demand and economic activity rather than raising interest rates.
With reference to the monetary policy tools of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements: 1. The repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks. 2. The Cash Reserve Ratio is maintained by banks with the RBI. 3. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio is maintained by banks in the form of liquid assets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक के मौद्रिक नीति उपकरणों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. रेपो दर वह दर है जिस पर आरबीआई वाणिज्यिक बैंकों को अल्पकालिक ऋण प्रदान करता है। 2. नकद आरक्षित अनुपात (CRR) बैंकों द्वारा आरबीआई के पास बनाए रखा जाता है। 3. वैधानिक तरलता अनुपात (SLR) बैंकों द्वारा तरल परिसंपत्तियों के रूप में बनाए रखा जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The repo (repurchase) rate is the benchmark policy rate at which the RBI lends short-term money to commercial banks against government securities under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility; the CRR is the specified percentage of net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that banks must deposit in cash with the RBI under Section 42(1) of the RBI Act 1934; and the SLR is the statutory reserve that banks must maintain within themselves in unencumbered liquid assets (cash, gold, or approved securities) under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949.
Arrange the following battles in chronological order: 1. Battle of Plassey 2. Battle of Buxar 3. Third Battle of Panipat 4. Battle of Haldighati Select the correct answer using the code given below:
निम्नलिखित युद्धों को कालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिए: 1. प्लासी का युद्ध 2. बक्सर का युद्ध 3. पानीपत की तीसरी लड़ाई 4. हल्दीघाटी का युद्ध नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
The correct chronological sequence is: Battle of Haldighati in 1576 between Maharana Pratap and the Mughal army, Battle of Plassey in 1757 where Robert Clive defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah, Third Battle of Panipat in January 1761 between the Marathas and Ahmad Shah Abdali, and Battle of Buxar in October 1764.
With reference to the Suresh Tendulkar Committee, consider the following statements: 1. It was constituted to estimate poverty in India. 2. It recommended continuing with the purely calorie-based poverty line without any change. 3. It estimated poverty in India at 37.2 per cent for the year 2004-05. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
सुरेश तेंदुलकर समिति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसका गठन भारत में गरीबी के आकलन के लिए किया गया था। 2. इसने बिना किसी बदलाव के विशुद्ध रूप से कैलोरी-आधारित गरीबी रेखा को जारी रखने की सिफारिश की थी। 3. इसने वर्ष 2004-05 के लिए भारत में गरीबी 37.2 प्रतिशत आकलित की थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The expert group headed by Prof. Suresh Tendulkar was appointed by the Planning Commission to review the methodology for poverty estimation, reporting in December 2009 that under its revised Mixed Reference Period consumption methodology, national poverty head-count ratio in 2004-05 was 37.2% (41.8% rural and 25.7% urban). Statement 2 is incorrect because the committee explicitly recommended moving away from the rigid calorie intake norm (2400 kcal rural, 2100 kcal urban) to an inclusive basket accommodating private household spending on education and healthcare.
With reference to the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), consider the following statements: 1. It was enacted in 2005. 2. It guarantees 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work. 3. By April 2008, the scheme had been extended to all districts of the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण रोजगार गारंटी अधिनियम (NREGA) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसे 2005 में पारित किया गया था। 2. यह प्रत्येक ग्रामीण परिवार को, जिसके वयस्क सदस्य अकुशल शारीरिक श्रम करने के इच्छुक हों, एक वित्तीय वर्ष में 100 दिनों के मजदूरी रोजगार की गारंटी देता है। 3. अप्रैल 2008 तक इस योजना का विस्तार देश के सभी जिलों में कर दिया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Parliament enacted the landmark National Rural Employment Guarantee Act in September 2005 (later renamed MGNREGA in October 2009), providing a legal guarantee of at least 100 days of unskilled wage employment per financial year to every willing rural household. Initially launched in 200 backwards districts in February 2006, it was phased across 130 additional districts in 2007-08, and expanded to cover all rural districts of India on 1 April 2008.
With reference to national income accounting, consider the following statements: 1. GDP at market prices includes indirect taxes and excludes subsidies. 2. GNP is equal to GDP plus net factor income from abroad. 3. GDP at factor cost is always greater than GDP at market prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
राष्ट्रीय आय लेखांकन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. बाजार मूल्य पर जीडीपी (GDP at market prices) में अप्रत्यक्ष कर शामिल होते हैं और सब्सिडी को घटाया जाता है। 2. जीएनपी (GNP), जीडीपी में विदेशों से प्राप्त शुद्ध साधन आय जोड़ने के बराबर होता है। 3. साधन लागत पर जीडीपी (GDP at factor cost) हमेशा बाजार मूल्य पर जीडीपी से अधिक होती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. By identity, GDP at market prices equals GDP at factor cost plus Net Indirect Taxes (Indirect Taxes minus Subsidies), and Gross National Product (GNP) equals GDP plus Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Statement 3 is incorrect because GDP at factor cost is smaller than GDP at market prices whenever indirect taxes exceed government subsidies (positive Net Indirect Taxes), which is the standard fiscal situation in market economies.
With reference to the banking sector in India, consider the following statements: 1. Fourteen major commercial banks were nationalized in 1969. 2. NABARD was established in 1975. 3. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in 1935. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में बैंकिंग क्षेत्र के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. चौदह प्रमुख वाणिज्यिक बैंकों का राष्ट्रीयकरण 1969 में किया गया था। 2. नाबार्ड (NABARD) की स्थापना 1975 में हुई थी। 3. भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक का राष्ट्रीयकरण 1935 में किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because on 19 July 1969, the Government of India promulgated the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance, nationalizing 14 major commercial banks holding over 70% of nation's deposits. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because NABARD was established on 12 July 1982 on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee (Regional Rural Banks were founded in 1975), and the Reserve Bank of India commenced operations in April 1935 as a private shareholders' bank before being nationalized on 1 January 1949 under the RBI (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act 1948.
With reference to foreign investment in India, consider the following statements: 1. Foreign Direct Investment is generally considered more stable than Foreign Institutional Investment. 2. Foreign Institutional Investment involves acquiring management control of domestic companies. 3. Foreign Institutional Investment flows are recorded in the capital account of the balance of payments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में विदेशी निवेश के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश (FDI) को आमतौर पर विदेशी संस्थागत निवेश (FII) की तुलना में अधिक स्थिर माना जाता है। 2. विदेशी संस्थागत निवेश (FII) में घरेलू कंपनियों का प्रबंधन नियंत्रण प्राप्त करना शामिल होता है। 3. विदेशी संस्थागत निवेश के प्रवाह को भुगतान संतुलन के पूंजी खाते में दर्ज किया जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) involves long-term physical assets and technology transfer, making it durable and resistant to capital flight unlike short-term 'hot money' Foreign Institutional Investment (FII/FPI), and all portfolio investments are financial cross-border claims registered under the capital account of the Balance of Payments. Statement 2 is incorrect because FII/portfolio investments are passive financial positions in listed equities that deliberately do not involve active managerial control or lasting managerial stakes in Indian enterprises.
With reference to the tax structure in India, consider the following statements: 1. Income tax is a direct tax. 2. Central excise duty is an indirect tax. 3. Corporation tax is an indirect tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में कर संरचना के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. आयकर (इनकम टैक्स) एक प्रत्यक्ष कर है। 2. केंद्रीय उत्पाद शुल्क एक अप्रत्यक्ष कर है। 3. निगम कर (कॉरपोरेशन टैक्स) एक अप्रत्यक्ष कर है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Personal Income Tax is a direct tax levied on individuals where the liability to pay and the real economic incidence rest upon the same entity, and Central Excise Duty is an indirect tax levied on the manufacture of goods where the incidence is passed along to the final consumer. Statement 3 is incorrect because Corporation Tax is a direct tax levied on the net profits earned by incorporated companies, where the tax burden cannot be shifted to another party.
With reference to Five Year Plans in India, consider the following statements: 1. The First Five Year Plan (1951-56) was based on the Harrod-Domar model. 2. The Second Five Year Plan emphasized rapid industrialization based on the Mahalanobis model. 3. The Planning Commission was set up in 1950 by a resolution of the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में पंचवर्षीय योजनाओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. प्रथम पंचवर्षीय योजना (1951-56) हैरोड-डोमर मॉडल पर आधारित थी। 2. द्वितीय पंचवर्षीय योजना में महालनोबिस मॉडल पर आधारित तीव्र औद्योगीकरण पर बल दिया गया था। 3. योजना आयोग की स्थापना 1950 में भारत सरकार के एक प्रस्ताव द्वारा की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The First Five Year Plan (1951-56) adopted the Harrod-Domar growth formulation prioritizing agriculture, irrigation, and dam construction; the Second Plan (1956-61) was structured on P.C. Mahalanobis's two-sector capital-goods heavy industrialization model; and the Planning Commission was formed on 15 March 1950 through an executive cabinet resolution, making it a non-statutory, extra-constitutional body.
With reference to the Satyam episode of January 2009, consider the following statements: 1. It involved the falsification of accounts, confessed by its chairman B. Ramalinga Raju. 2. Satyam Computer Services was a public sector undertaking. 3. The episode led to the dissolution of the Securities and Exchange Board of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
जनवरी 2009 के सत्यम प्रकरण के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसमें खातों में हेरफेर शामिल था, जिसे इसके अध्यक्ष बी. रामलिंगा राजू ने स्वीकार किया था। 2. सत्यम कंप्यूटर सर्विसेज एक सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र का उपक्रम (PSU) था। 3. इस प्रकरण के कारण भारतीय प्रतिभूति और विनिमय बोर्ड (SEBI) को भंग कर दिया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because on 7 January 2009, B. Ramalinga Raju, Chairman of Satyam Computer Services, resigned after formally confessing to systemic inflation of cash reserves and non-existent bank balances exceeding Rs. 7,000 crore. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because Satyam was a private multinational IT services firm listed on the BSE and NYSE, and SEBI was not dissolved; instead, SEBI actively conducted extensive insider trading investigations, superseded the board, and instituted tighter corporate governance and auditing mandates.
With reference to the Copenhagen Climate Conference (COP15) of December 2009, consider the following statements: 1. It was held under the framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. 2. It produced a legally binding successor treaty to the Kyoto Protocol. 3. The Copenhagen Accord recognized the need to limit the rise in global temperature to below 2°C. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
दिसंबर 2009 के कोपेनहेगन जलवायु सम्मेलन (COP15) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह संयुक्त राष्ट्र जलवायु परिवर्तन फ्रेमवर्क अभिसमय (UNFCCC) के तहत आयोजित किया गया था। 2. इसने क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल के स्थान पर कानूनी रूप से बाध्यकारी एक नई संधि प्रस्तुत की। 3. कोपेनहेगन समझौते में वैश्विक तापमान वृद्धि को 2°C से नीचे सीमित करने की आवश्यकता को मान्यता दी गई। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. COP15 was hosted by Denmark under the UNFCCC in December 2009, brokering the landmark Copenhagen Accord drafted by the US and BASIC nations (Brazil, South Africa, India, China) that formally endorsed the scientific objective of containing global temperature rises to below 2°C above pre-industrial levels. Statement 2 is incorrect because negotiations failed to yield a legally binding treaty to succeed Kyoto; the COP only 'took note of' the political, non-binding Copenhagen Accord rather than adopting it unanimously.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Author) A. Lallanji Gopal B. Habib and Nizami C. K.S. Lal D. Dasharatha Sharma List-II (Book) 1. A Comprehensive History of India : The Delhi Sultanat 2. The Economic Life of Northern India 3. Early Chauhan Dynasties 4. History of the Khaljis Codes: A B C D
सूची- को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचेदिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:सूची-II सूची-II(लेखक) (पुस्तक)A. लललनजी गोपाल 1. a कंप्रिहेंसिव fect s teइंडिया : द दिल्ली सल्तनत
Match between renowned historians and their definitive historical monographs:
| List-I (Author / Historian) | List-II (Book) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Lallanji Gopal | *2. The Economic Life of Northern India c. A.D. 700–1200*** |
| B. Mohammad Habib and K.A. Nizami | *1. A Comprehensive History of India, Vol. 5: The Delhi Sultanat*** |
| C. K.S. Lal | *4. History of the Khaljis*** |
| D. Dasharatha Sharma | *3. Early Chauhan Dynasties*** |
- Lallanji Gopal: Eminent historian of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU); his masterwork The Economic Life of Northern India c. A.D. 700–1200 (1965) is the authoritative socioeconomic study of early medieval northern India and feudal decline in trade/coinage.
- Mohammad Habib & K.A. Nizami: Renowned historians of Aligarh Muslim University (AMU); edited the monumental Volume 5 of the Indian History Congress's A Comprehensive History of India: The Delhi Sultanat (A.D. 1206–1526).
- Kishori Saran Lal (K.S. Lal): Celebrated medieval historian; author of the seminal monograph History of the Khaljis (1290–1320) (1950), examining the military campaigns and market agrarian reforms of Alauddin Khalji.
- Dasharatha Sharma: Foremost historian of Rajasthan; author of Early Chauhan Dynasties (1959), reconstructing the political and cultural history of the Chahamana rulers from Prithviraja I to Prithviraja III.
Hence, the correct matching code is 2, 1, 4, 3.
With reference to biodiversity hotspots, consider the following statements: 1. India has four biodiversity hotspots — the Himalaya, Indo-Burma, the Western Ghats and Sundaland. 2. Biodiversity hotspots are characterized by high levels of endemism and significant habitat loss. 3. The concept of biodiversity hotspots was proposed by Norman Myers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट (तप्त स्थल) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत में चार जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट हैं — हिमालय, इंडो-बर्मा, पश्चिमी घाट और सुंडालैंड। 2. जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट उच्च स्तर की स्थानिकता (एंडेमिज्म) और आवास के गंभीर विनाश की विशेषता दर्शाते हैं। 3. जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट की अवधारणा नॉर्मन मायर्स द्वारा प्रतिपादित की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Norman Myers introduced the concept of biodiversity hotspots in 1988, requiring a region to support at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species and have lost at least 70% of its primary native habitat. Under Conservation International's global classification, India is home to parts of four designated hotspots: the Himalayas, Indo-Burma (North-East India), the Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka), and Sundaland (Nicobar Islands).
With reference to tiger conservation in India, consider the following statements: 1. Project Tiger was launched in 1973. 2. The tiger estimation released in 2008 placed the number of tigers in India at over 3,000. 3. The tiger is listed as 'Vulnerable' in the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में बाघ संरक्षण के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. प्रोजेक्ट टाइगर वर्ष 1973 में शुरू किया गया था। 2. 2008 में जारी बाघ गणना के आंकड़ों में भारत में बाघों की संख्या 3,000 से अधिक आंकी गई थी। 3. बाघ को आईयूसीएन (IUCN) की रेड लिस्ट में 'अतिसंवेदनशील' (Vulnerable) के रूप में सूचीबद्ध किया गया है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because Project Tiger was launched on 1 April 1973 at Corbett National Park to protect the Bengal tiger from extinction. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the scientific nationwide tiger census conducted by NTCA and WII (released in February 2008 using camera traps and pugmark tracking) revealed an alarming drop in wild tiger numbers to just 1,411 individuals, and the tiger (Panthera tigris) is classified as 'Endangered' (not Vulnerable) on the IUCN Red List.
With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements: 1. It deals with the conservation and wise use of wetlands. 2. Chilika Lake and Keoladeo National Park are Ramsar sites in India. 3. It imposes legally binding penalties on countries that degrade their wetlands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
रामसर अभिसमय के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह आर्द्रभूमियों (वेटलैंड्स) के संरक्षण और उनके विवेकपूर्ण उपयोग से संबंधित है। 2. चिल्का झील और केवलादेव राष्ट्रीय उद्यान भारत में स्थित रामसर स्थल हैं। 3. यह उन देशों पर कानूनी रूप से बाध्यकारी दंड लगाता है जो अपनी आर्द्रभूमियों को नष्ट करते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance (adopted in Iran in 1971) promotes the preservation and sustainable management of aquatic ecosystems, and Chilika Lake (Odisha) and Keoladeo Ghana National Park (Rajasthan) were declared India's first two Ramsar sites in 1981. Statement 3 is incorrect because the convention lacks punitive enforcement mechanisms or financial sanction powers, relying instead on voluntary international cooperation and the Montreux Record for endangered wetland sites.
With reference to the Montreal Protocol, consider the following statements: 1. It deals with the phasing out of ozone-depleting substances. 2. It regulates emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases. 3. It is regarded as one of the most successful environmental agreements, achieving universal ratification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
मॉन्ट्रियल प्रोटोकॉल के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह ओजोन परत को नुकसान पहुँचाने वाले पदार्थों (ODS) को चरणबद्ध तरीके से समाप्त करने से संबंधित है। 2. यह कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड और अन्य ग्रीनहाउस गैसों के उत्सर्जन को नियंत्रित करता है। 3. इसे सार्वभौमिक अनुसमर्थन प्राप्त करने वाले सबसे सफल पर्यावरण समझौतों में से एक माना जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (agreed in 1987 under the Vienna Convention) established mandatory binding phase-outs for chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), and in 2009 became the first environmental treaty in UN history to achieve universal ratification by 197 nations. Statement 2 is incorrect because the emission and mitigation of carbon dioxide and principal greenhouse gases are governed by the UNFCCC and Kyoto Protocol, not the Montreal Protocol.
With reference to electronic waste, consider the following statements: 1. E-waste contains hazardous substances such as lead, mercury and cadmium. 2. The Basel Convention deals with the transboundary movement of hazardous wastes. 3. In India, a large share of e-waste recycling takes place in the informal sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
ई-कचरा (इलेक्ट्रॉनिक अपशिष्ट) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. ई-कचरे में सीसा (लेड), पारा (मर्करी) और कैडमियम जैसे हानिकारक पदार्थ होते हैं। 2. बेसल अभिसमय खतरनाक अपशिष्टों के सीमा-पार आवागमन से संबंधित है। 3. भारत में ई-कचरे के पुनर्चक्रण (रीसाइक्लिंग) का एक बड़ा हिस्सा अनौपचारिक क्षेत्र में होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Electronic waste incorporates toxic heavy metals such as lead (in CRT screens and solder), mercury (in flat-panel switches), and cadmium (in rechargeable batteries and circuit boards); the Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal (1989) regulates cross-border export of electronic toxic scrap to developing nations; and over 90% of discarded electronics in India are handled by crude dismantling and acid leaching within unorganized informal recycling clusters.
With reference to India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), consider the following statements: 1. It was released in 2008. 2. It comprises eight national missions, including the National Solar Mission. 3. It sets legally binding emission reduction targets for India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
जलवायु परिवर्तन पर भारत की राष्ट्रीय कार्य योजना (NAPCC) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसे वर्ष 2008 में जारी किया गया था। 2. इसमें राष्ट्रीय सौर मिशन सहित आठ राष्ट्रीय मिशन शामिल हैं। 3. यह भारत के लिए कानूनी रूप से बाध्यकारी उत्सर्जन कटौती लक्ष्य निर्धारित करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Prime Minister's Council on Climate Change formally unveiled the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) in June 2008, anchoring India's mitigation and adaptation architecture around eight core national missions (such as the National Solar Mission and National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency). Statement 3 is incorrect because NAPCC is an overarching domestic voluntary policy roadmap focused on co-benefits and sustainable development, setting no legally binding greenhouse gas caps on economic sectors.
With reference to mangroves, consider the following statements: 1. Mangroves act as natural buffers against cyclones and storm surges. 2. The Sundarbans mangrove forest lies entirely within India. 3. Mangroves are salt-tolerant plants, also known as halophytes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
मैंग्रोव (कच्छ वनस्पति) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. मैंग्रोव चक्रवातों और तूफानी लहरों के विरुद्ध प्राकृतिक अवरोधक के रूप में कार्य करते हैं। 2. सुंदरबन मैंग्रोव वन पूरी तरह से भारत के भीतर स्थित है। 3. मैंग्रोव लवण-सहिष्णु पौधे होते हैं, जिन्हें लवणमृद्भिद् (हैलोफाइट्स) भी कहा जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Mangroves possess dense, complex prop root and pneumatophore systems that dissipate wave energy and anchor shorelines against destructive cyclonic storm surges and coastal erosion, surviving in saline, waterlogged littoral mudflats through specialized halophytic adaptations like salt-excreting leaves. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Sundarbans delta—the largest contiguous mangrove tract in the world—is shared between India (about 40% in West Bengal) and Bangladesh (about 60%).
With reference to the H1N1 influenza outbreak of 2009, consider the following statements: 1. H1N1 influenza is caused by a virus. 2. It is a bacterial infection that can be cured with antibiotics. 3. The World Health Organization declared it a pandemic in June 2009. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2009 के H1N1 इन्फ्लूएंजा प्रकोप के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. H1N1 इन्फ्लूएंजा वायरस (विषाणु) के कारण होता है। 2. यह एक जीवाणु (बैक्टीरियल) संक्रमण है जिसे एंटीबायोटिक दवाओं से ठीक किया जा सकता है। 3. विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन ने जून 2009 में इसे महामारी घोषित किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The 2009 pandemic was caused by an Orthomyxoviridae family influenza A virus subtype H1N1, prompting Director-General Margaret Chan of the WHO to officially raise the pandemic alert to Phase 6 on 11 June 2009 as community transmission spread across multiple continents. Statement 2 is incorrect because H1N1 is an acute viral pathogen against which antibacterial antibiotics are wholly ineffective; clinical management relies on neuraminidase inhibitor antiviral agents like oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir.
With reference to Chandrayaan-1, consider the following statements: 1. It was launched in October 2008 aboard the PSLV-C11 rocket. 2. It carried a Moon Impact Probe that impacted near the Shackleton crater at the lunar south pole. 3. Its instruments provided evidence of the presence of water molecules on the lunar surface. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
चंद्रयान-1 के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसे अक्टूबर 2008 में PSLV-C11 रॉकेट द्वारा प्रक्षेपित किया गया था। 2. यह एक मून इम्पैक्ट प्रोब (MIP) ले गया था जो चंद्रमा के दक्षिणी ध्रुव पर स्थित शैकलटन क्रेटर के पास टकराया था। 3. इसके वैज्ञानिक उपकरणों ने चंद्रमा की सतह पर जल के अणुओं की उपस्थिति के प्रमाण प्रदान किए थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. India's first lunar mission Chandrayaan-1 was successfully launched on 22 October 2008 via PSLV-C11 from Sriharikota; its Moon Impact Probe (MIP) separated and struck the lunar south polar region near Shackleton Crater on 14 November 2008 (naming the site Jawahar Point); and data gathered by payloads including NASA's Moon Mineralogy Mapper (M3) definitively confirmed hydroxyl and water molecules embedded in lunar regolith.
With reference to nanotechnology, consider the following statements: 1. One nanometre is equal to 10^-9 metre. 2. Materials at the nanoscale can exhibit properties different from their bulk counterparts. 3. Nanotechnology has applications only in materials science and none in biology or medicine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
नैनो प्रौद्योगिकी के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. एक नैनोमीटर 10^-9 मीटर के बराबर होता है। 2. नैनो पैमाने पर पदार्थ अपने स्थूल (बल्क) रूप की तुलना में भिन्न गुण प्रदर्शित कर सकते हैं। 3. नैनो प्रौद्योगिकी के अनुप्रयोग केवल पदार्थ विज्ञान में हैं और जीव विज्ञान या चिकित्सा में इसका कोई अनुप्रयोग नहीं है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. A nanometre is defined as one billionth of a metre (10^-9 m), and at dimensions between 1 and 100 nm, materials display drastically altered physical, chemical, optical, and electronic properties due to heightened quantum confinement effects and vastly increased surface-area-to-volume ratios. Statement 3 is incorrect because nanotechnology finds extensive groundbreaking applications in biology and healthcare, including targeted nanoparticle drug delivery, cancer diagnostics, biosensors, and tissue engineering.
With reference to stem cells, consider the following statements: 1. Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, that is, capable of differentiating into nearly all cell types. 2. Adult stem cells can differentiate into every cell type of the human body. 3. Stem cell research in India is conducted without any regulatory guidelines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
स्टेम सेल (मूल कोशिकाओं) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भ्रूणीय स्टेम सेल प्लूरिपोटेंट (बहुशक्त) होती हैं, अर्थात वे शरीर के लगभग सभी कोशिका प्रकारों में विभेदित होने में सक्षम होती हैं। 2. वयस्क स्टेम सेल मानव शरीर के प्रत्येक कोशिका प्रकार में विभेदित हो सकती हैं। 3. भारत में स्टेम सेल अनुसंधान बिना किसी विनियामक दिशानिर्देश के संचालित होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because embryonic stem cells derived from blastocysts are pluripotent, retaining the developmental capacity to form all three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) and generate nearly every specialized somatic cell lineage. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because adult stem cells (such as hematopoietic or mesenchymal stem cells) are multipotent and restricted to differentiating into limited cell lineages within their resident tissue, and stem cell research in India is strictly overseen under the National Guidelines for Stem Cell Research formulated jointly by the ICMR and DBT.
With reference to India's civil nuclear programme, consider the following statements: 1. The India-United States Civil Nuclear Agreement (123 Agreement) was concluded in 2008. 2. The Nuclear Suppliers Group waiver permits India to conduct nuclear tests without any consequences. 3. India's three-stage nuclear power programme aims to utilize thorium in its third stage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के असैन्य परमाणु कार्यक्रम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत-अमेरिका असैन्य परमाणु समझौता (123 समझौता) 2008 में संपन्न हुआ था। 2. परमाणु आपूर्तिकर्ता समूह (NSG) की छूट भारत को बिना किसी परिणाम के परमाणु परीक्षण करने की अनुमति देती है। 3. भारत के तीन-चरणीय परमाणु ऊर्जा कार्यक्रम का उद्देश्य अपने तीसरे चरण में थोरियम का उपयोग करना है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The historic Indo-US 123 Agreement operationalizing civil nuclear commerce was concluded and formally signed in October 2008, and Dr. Homi Bhabha's three-stage nuclear plan was explicitly formulated to transition from natural uranium PHWRs (Stage 1) to fast breeder reactors (Stage 2), ultimately utilizing India's vast monazite beach-sand thorium deposits in Advanced Heavy Water Reactors (Stage 3). Statement 2 is incorrect because the clean waiver granted by the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) in September 2008 was predicated upon India's unilateral voluntary moratorium on nuclear testing; any future nuclear explosion by India remains subject to immediate consultations and potential termination of nuclear trade agreements.
With reference to vitamins and deficiency diseases, consider the following statements: 1. Deficiency of Vitamin C causes scurvy. 2. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes night blindness. 3. Deficiency of Vitamin B12 causes rickets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
विटामिनों और उनकी कमी से होने वाले रोगों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. विटामिन C की कमी से स्कर्वी रोग होता है। 2. विटामिन D की कमी से रतौंधी (नाईट ब्लाइंडनेस) होती है। 3. विटामिन B12 की कमी से रिकेट्स (सूखा रोग) होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency impairs collagen synthesis, causing bleeding gums, skin haemorrhages, and poor wound healing known as scurvy. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because night blindness (nyctalopia) is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin A (retinol), whereas Vitamin D (calciferol) deficiency causes rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults, while Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency causes pernicious anaemia and neurological disorders.
With reference to India's space programme, consider the following statements: 1. The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) uses a cryogenic upper stage. 2. The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is used exclusively for launching geostationary satellites. 3. ISRO's principal launch site is located at Thiruvananthapuram. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के अंतरिक्ष कार्यक्रम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भू-तुल्यकालिक उपग्रह प्रक्षेपण यान (GSLV) एक क्रायोजेनिक ऊपरी चरण का उपयोग करता है। 2. ध्रुवीय उपग्रह प्रक्षेपण यान (PSLV) का उपयोग विशेष रूप से केवल भू-स्थिर उपग्रहों को प्रक्षेपित करने के लिए किया जाता है। 3. इसरो का मुख्य प्रक्षेपण स्थल तिरुवनंतपुरम में स्थित है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the GSLV is a three-stage launch vehicle that utilizes a cryogenic third stage (liquid hydrogen at -253°C and liquid oxygen at -183°C) to inject heavy communications satellites into geostationary transfer orbit. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the four-stage PSLV was engineered as a workhorse primarily for Sun-synchronous Polar Low Earth Orbits (remote sensing satellites) and interplanetary probes (such as Chandrayaan-1 and Mangalyaan), and ISRO's operational spaceport and primary satellite launch centre is the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC-SHAR) at Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh (Thiruvananthapuram hosts the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre for vehicle design).
With reference to 3G mobile technology, consider the following statements: 1. 3G enables faster data transmission and supports video calling. 2. In India, 3G services were first launched by public sector operators MTNL and BSNL in 2008-09. 3. 3G services operate exclusively through satellite communication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3G मोबाइल तकनीक के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 3G तीव्र डेटा संचरण को सक्षम बनाता है और वीडियो कॉलिंग का समर्थन करता है। 2. भारत में 3G सेवाएं सर्वप्रथम 2008-09 में सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के ऑपरेटरों MTNL और BSNL द्वारा शुरू की गई थीं। 3. 3G सेवाएं केवल उपग्रह संचार के माध्यम से ही संचालित होती हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Third Generation (3G) cellular telecommunications standards (such as UMTS/HSPA) delivered megabit data throughput speeds facilitating real-time video telephony, mobile internet, and high-speed multimedia, with state-owned telcos MTNL and BSNL pioneering commercial 3G services in Delhi, Mumbai, and selected circles in late 2008 and early 2009. Statement 3 is incorrect because commercial 3G cellular architectures function across terrestrial terrestrial cellular radio towers, base transceiver stations, and core ground optical fibre backbones rather than space satellite links.
With reference to lasers and optical fibres, consider the following statements: 1. Optical fibres transmit light on the principle of total internal reflection. 2. LASER stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. 3. Laser light is coherent, that is, its waves are in phase with one another. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
लेजर और ऑप्टिकल फाइबर के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. ऑप्टिकल फाइबर पूर्ण आंतरिक परावर्तन (Total Internal Reflection) के सिद्धांत पर प्रकाश का संचरण करते हैं। 2. लेजर (LASER) का पूर्ण रूप 'लाइट एम्प्लीफिकेशन बाई स्टिम्युलेटेड एमिशन ऑफ रेडिएशन' है। 3. लेजर प्रकाश कला-संबद्ध (सुसंगत) होता है, अर्थात इसकी तरंगें एक दूसरे के साथ समान कला में होती हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Optical fibres guide optical communication signals through a high refractive-index glass core enveloped by lower-index cladding via continuous total internal reflection; LASER is an acronym coined by Gordon Gould denoting Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation; and unlike ordinary spontaneous thermal radiation, stimulated emission generates monochromatic, highly collimated, and coherent light whose waves maintain strict spatial and temporal phase alignment.
With reference to the 2009 General Elections in India, consider the following statements: 1. Elections to the 15th Lok Sabha were held in five phases during April-May 2009. 2. The Bharatiya Janata Party emerged as the single largest party in the 15th Lok Sabha. 3. Electronic Voting Machines were used for the first time in a general election in 2009. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में 2009 के आम चुनावों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 15वीं लोकसभा के चुनाव अप्रैल-मई 2009 के दौरान पांच चरणों में संपन्न हुए थे। 2. 15वीं लोकसभा में भारतीय जनता पार्टी सबसे बड़े दल के रूप में उभरी। 3. 2009 में पहली बार किसी आम चुनाव में इलेक्ट्रॉनिक वोटिंग मशीनों (EVMs) का उपयोग किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the 15th Lok Sabha election was conducted across 543 parliamentary constituencies in five polling phases from 16 April to 13 May 2009. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the Indian National Congress (INC) emerged as the single largest party winning 206 seats (forming the UPA-II government under Dr. Manmohan Singh), while the BJP secured 116 seats, and full nationwide deployment of Electronic Voting Machines in general elections took place in the 14th Lok Sabha elections in 2004.
With reference to the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) and Aadhaar, consider the following statements: 1. UIDAI was constituted in 2009 with Nandan Nilekani as its first chairman. 2. Aadhaar serves as a proof of Indian citizenship. 3. Aadhaar is a 12-digit unique identification number. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारतीय विशिष्ट पहचान प्राधिकरण (UIDAI) और आधार के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यूआईडीएआई (UIDAI) का गठन 2009 में किया गया था और नंदन नीलेकणि इसके पहले अध्यक्ष थे। 2. आधार भारतीय नागरिकता के प्रमाण के रूप में कार्य करता है। 3. आधार 12 अंकों की एक विशिष्ट पहचान संख्या है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. UIDAI was established in January 2009 as an attached office under the Planning Commission with Nandan Nilekani taking charge in July 2009, tasked with assigning a biometric-verified 12-digit unique identity number (Aadhaar) to every resident. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Aadhaar Act and Supreme Court rulings explicitly clarify that Aadhaar is strictly a proof of identity and domestic residence, conferring no claim or proof of Indian citizenship or nationality.
In scientific data management and artificial intelligence workflows, what is the full expansion of the 'FAIR' data principles?
वैज्ञानिक डेटा प्रबंधन और कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता (AI) प्रणालियों में, 'FAIR' डेटा सिद्धांतों का पूर्ण रूप क्या है?
The FAIR principles provide guidelines for scientific data management and stewardship to enhance reuse by humans and automated computational systems.
With reference to the Lisbon Treaty, consider the following statements: 1. It entered into force on 1 December 2009. 2. It abolished the European Parliament. 3. It introduced the euro as the common currency of the European Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
लिस्बन संधि के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह 1 दिसंबर 2009 को लागू हुई थी। 2. इसने यूरोपीय संसद को समाप्त कर दिया। 3. इसने यूरोपीय संघ की साझा मुद्रा के रूप में यूरो (Euro) की शुरुआत की। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because the Treaty of Lisbon, signed by EU members in 2007, entered into force on 1 December 2009 following ratification by all 27 member states. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the treaty significantly enhanced the co-decision legislative powers of the European Parliament placing it on an equal footing with the Council, and the single European currency (the euro) was instituted much earlier by the Maastricht Treaty of 1992 (entering financial circulation in 1999 and physical circulation in 2002).
With reference to the Nobel Prizes of 2009, consider the following statements: 1. Barack Obama was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. 2. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan shared the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for studies of the structure and function of the ribosome. 3. Herta Müller was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
वर्ष 2009 के नोबेल पुरस्कारों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. बराक ओबामा को नोबेल शांति पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया था। 2. वेंकटरमन रामकृष्णन ने राइबोसोम की संरचना और कार्यप्रणाली के अध्ययन के लिए रसायन विज्ञान का नोबेल पुरस्कार साझा किया था। 3. हर्टा मुलर को साहित्य का नोबेल पुरस्कार प्रदान किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the 2009 Nobel Peace Prize to US President Barack Obama; Indian-born structural biologist Venkatraman Ramakrishnan shared the 2009 Nobel Prize in Chemistry with Thomas Steitz and Ada Yonath for mapping the atomic structure of the ribosome using X-ray crystallography; and Romanian-born German author Herta Müller was awarded the 2009 Nobel Prize in Literature for her powerful prose depicting the landscape of the dispossessed.
The Sinovac (CoronaVac) COVID-19 vaccine is developed on which microbiological platform?
सिनोवैक (CoronaVac) कोविड-19 वैक्सीन निम्नलिखित में से किस तकनीक से विकसित की गई है?
Vaccine Platform of Sinovac (CoronaVac):
- Sinovac (officially known as CoronaVac) is a COVID-19 vaccine developed by the Chinese biopharmaceutical company Sinovac Biotech.
- CoronaVac is an Inactivated Whole-Virus Vaccine (पूर्ण वायरस टीका).
- It is produced using traditional vaccine technology: the SARS-CoV-2 whole virus is cultivated in Vero cells, harvested, chemically inactivated using beta-propiolactone (which destroys the virus's ability to replicate while preserving its external structural proteins), and adjuvanted with aluminium hydroxide to stimulate neutralizing antibodies.
- Comparison with other vaccine platforms:
- mRNA vaccines: Pfizer-BioNTech, Moderna
- Non-replicating viral vector vaccines: Oxford-AstraZeneca (Covishield), Sputnik V, Johnson & Johnson
- Protein sub-unit vaccines: Novavax (Covovax), Corbevax
- Inactivated Whole Virus vaccines: Sinovac (CoronaVac), Bharat Biotech (Covaxin), Sinopharm
Therefore, Sinovac is a Whole virus vaccine (Option C).
With reference to the end of the Sri Lankan civil war in 2009, consider the following statements: 1. The war ended in May 2009 with the military defeat of the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE). 2. LTTE chief Velupillai Prabhakaran escaped to India at the end of the war. 3. The final phase of the war raised international concern over the humanitarian condition of Tamil civilians. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2009 में श्रीलंकाई गृहयुद्ध की समाप्ति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह युद्ध मई 2009 में लिबरेशन टाइगर्स ऑफ तमिल ईलम (LTTE) की सैन्य पराजय के साथ समाप्त हुआ था। 2. लिट्टे प्रमुख वेलुपिल्लई प्रभाकरन युद्ध के अंत में बचकर भारत भाग गया था। 3. युद्ध के अंतिम चरण ने तमिल नागरिकों की मानवीय स्थिति पर गंभीर अंतर्राष्ट्रीय चिंता पैदा की थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The 26-year-long Sri Lankan Civil War concluded on 18 May 2009 when Sri Lankan armed forces overran the remaining LTTE redoubt in northern Mullaitivu, and the heavy civilian casualties caught inside the designated 'No Fire Zones' sparked widespread international alarm and human rights scrutiny at the UN. Statement 2 is incorrect because LTTE supreme commander Velupillai Prabhakaran did not escape to India; he was killed in action by Sri Lankan forces near Nandikadal lagoon on 18 May 2009.
With reference to the India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement, consider the following statements: 1. The agreement on trade in goods was signed in August 2009. 2. The agreement covered trade in services from the very outset. 3. ASEAN comprises twelve member countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत-आसियान मुक्त व्यापार समझौते (FTA) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. वस्तुओं के व्यापार पर समझौता अगस्त 2009 में हस्ताक्षरित किया गया था। 2. इस समझौते में प्रारंभ से ही सेवाओं के व्यापार को शामिल किया गया था। 3. आसियान (ASEAN) में बारह सदस्य देश शामिल हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) formally signed the historic Free Trade Agreement on Trade in Goods (AIFTA) in Bangkok, Thailand on 13 August 2009 (taking effect on 1 January 2010). Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the 2009 pact restricted itself exclusively to merchandise trade (the parallel agreement on Trade in Services and Investment was negotiated and signed much later in September 2014), and ASEAN consists of ten member states (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam).
With reference to INS Arihant, consider the following statements: 1. It is India's first indigenous nuclear-powered submarine. 2. It was launched in July 2009 at Visakhapatnam. 3. It is an aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
आईएनएस अरिहंत के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह भारत की पहली स्वदेशी परमाणु-संचालित पनडुब्बी है। 2. इसे जुलाई 2009 में विशाखापत्तनम में जलावतरित (लॉन्च) किया गया था। 3. यह भारतीय नौसेना का एक विमानवाहक पोत (एयरक्राफ्ट कैरियर) है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. INS Arihant (lead ship of the Arihant-class) is India's first indigenously designed and built nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), which was formally launched into water for sea trials on Vijay Diwas (26 July 2009) by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh at the Ship Building Centre in Visakhapatnam. Statement 3 is incorrect because INS Arihant is an SSBN submarine that completes India's operational nuclear triad (land, air, and sea-based second-strike capability), not a surface aircraft carrier.
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