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UPSC CSE Prelims 2012 Question Paper (GS Paper 1 Solved & Answer Key)

यूपीएससी सिविल सेवा प्रारंभिक परीक्षा 2012 सामान्य अध्ययन प्रश्न-पत्र 1 (हल सहित)

Union Public Service Commission Civil Services Examination (CSE) • Civil Services Examination (CSE Prelims) GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D

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विषयवार प्रश्न फिल्टर करें — अभ्यास को आसान और केंद्रित बनाएं

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Question 1History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the Revolt of 1857, consider the following statements: 1. The revolt began at Meerut on 10 May 1857. 2. Bahadur Shah Zafar was proclaimed the Emperor of India by the rebels. 3. The revolt led to the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1857 के विद्रोह के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इस विद्रोह की शुरुआत 10 मई 1857 को मेरठ से हुई थी। 2. विद्रोहियों द्वारा बहादुर शाह जफर को भारत का सम्राट घोषित किया गया था। 3. इस विद्रोह के परिणामस्वरूप ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी से ब्रिटिश क्राउन को सत्ता का हस्तांतरण हुआ। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. The rebellion broke out at Meerut on 10 May 1857 when sepoys defied British officers and marched to Delhi, where they proclaimed Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar as the Emperor of India. Following the suppression of the uprising, the British Parliament enacted the Government of India Act 1858, liquidating the East India Company and transferring sovereignty directly to the British Crown.

Question 2History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Consider the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement: 1. It was launched in 1920 in the backdrop of the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy and the Khilafat issue. 2. Mahatma Gandhi withdrew the movement after the Chauri Chaura incident of February 1922. 3. The movement directly led to the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

असहयोग आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह 1920 में जलियांवाला बाग हत्याकांड और खिलाफत के मुद्दे की पृष्ठभूमि में शुरू किया गया था। 2. महात्मा गांधी ने फरवरी 1922 की चौरी-चौरा घटना के बाद आंदोलन वापस ले लिया था। 3. यह आंदोलन सीधे तौर पर गांधी-इरविन समझौते पर हस्ताक्षर का कारण बना। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 following the Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala Bagh massacre, and Khilafat wrongs, and called it off on 12 February 1922 after a violent clash at Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur district. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in March 1931 in the context of the Civil Disobedience Movement, not the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Question 3Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Which one of the following Constitutional Articles concerning the State Governor is not correctly matched?

राज्य के राज्यपाल से संबंधित निम्नलिखित संवैधानिक अनुच्छेदों में से कौन-सा एक सही सुमेलित नहीं है?

A
Article 153 – Office of the Governor
निर्वाचन आयोग - 65
B
Article 154 – Executive Authority of the Governor
Dantwala Committee – Rural Credit
C
Article 155 – R e m o v a l o f t h e Governor
Santhanam Committee – Panchayati Raj Finances
Correct Option
D
Article 156 – Term of the Governor
Ashok Mehta Committee – P a n c h a y a t i R a j Institutions
Explanation:

Constitutional provisions regarding the Governor under Part VI (Articles 153–161):

  • Article 153: Governors of States (There shall be a Governor for each State).
  • Article 154: Executive power of the State is vested in the Governor.
  • Article 155: Appointment of the Governor by the President by warrant under his hand and seal (NOT removal!).
  • Article 156: Term of office of Governor (holds office during the pleasure of the President, with a normal term of 5 years).

Therefore, Article 155 – Removal of the Governor is incorrectly matched (Removal falls under the doctrine of pleasure in Article 156(1)).

Question 4History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements: 1. The Great Bath was discovered at Mohenjo-daro. 2. The Harappans used iron extensively for making tools and weapons. 3. The Harappans were among the earliest known cultivators of cotton. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. विशाल स्नानागार (द ग्रेट बाथ) की खोज मोहनजोदड़ो में हुई थी। 2. हड़प्पावासी औजार और हथियार बनाने के लिए लोहे का व्यापक उपयोग करते थे। 3. हड़प्पावासी कपास की खेती करने वाले सबसे आरंभिक ज्ञात लोगों में से थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The monumental Great Bath lined with bitumen was unearthed at Mohenjo-daro, and archaeological evidence confirms that Harappans were the earliest producers of cotton in the world, known to the Greeks as Sindon. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age culture; iron was unknown to them and appeared in India only during the later Vedic period.

Question 5Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the Indian monsoon, consider the following statements: 1. The south-west monsoon accounts for about 75 per cent of India's annual rainfall. 2. The retreating monsoon brings rainfall to the Coromandel coast. 3. The monsoon normally arrives over the Kerala coast around 1 June. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारतीय मानसून के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. दक्षिण-पश्चिम मानसून भारत की वार्षिक वर्षा का लगभग 75 प्रतिशत हिस्सा प्रदान करता है। 2. लौटता हुआ मानसून कोरोमंडल तट पर वर्षा कराता है। 3. मानसून सामान्यतः 1 जून के आसपास केरल तट पर पहुंचता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. The south-west monsoon (June to September) delivers nearly 75% of India's total annual precipitation, and its normal onset date over the southern tip of the Kerala mainland is 1 June according to the India Meteorological Department. During October and November, retreating north-east winds collect moisture over the Bay of Bengal and yield substantial rainfall across the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu.

Question 6Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Consider the following pairs: River — Tributary of 1. Gandak — Ganga 2. Tungabhadra — Godavari 3. Teesta — Ganga Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: नदी — किसकी सहायक नदी 1. गंडक — गंगा 2. तुंगभद्रा — गोदावरी 3. तीस्ता — गंगा उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Pair 1 is correctly matched because the Gandak river originates in the central Himalayas of Nepal and enters the Ganga near Patna. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because the Tungabhadra is the chief right-bank tributary of the Krishna river, not the Godavari. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched because the Teesta river originates in Sikkim and empties directly into the Brahmaputra (Jamuna) in Bangladesh.

Question 7Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the Mediterranean type of climate, consider the following statements: 1. It is characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters. 2. It is found on the eastern margins of continents in the mid-latitudes. 3. Regions with this climate receive rainfall uniformly throughout the year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भूमध्यसागरीय प्रकार की जलवायु के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसकी विशेषता गर्म, शुष्क ग्रीष्म ऋतु और सौम्य, आर्द्र शीत ऋतु है। 2. यह मध्य अक्षांशों में महाद्वीपों के पूर्वी किनारों पर पाई जाती है। 3. इस जलवायु वाले क्षेत्रों में वर्ष भर एक समान वर्षा होती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because the Mediterranean climate (Köppen Cs) features warm-to-hot dry summers under subtropical high pressure and mild, rainy winters driven by poleward shifts of westerly storm tracks. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because this climate is confined strictly to the western margins of continents between 30° and 45° latitudes and receives virtually no summer rainfall, exhibiting marked seasonal precipitation rather than uniform year-round rain.

Question 8Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

Consider the following pairs: Pass — State/Region 1. Zoji La — Jammu and Kashmir 2. Shipki La — Himachal Pradesh 3. Nathu La — Arunachal Pradesh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: दर्रा — राज्य/क्षेत्र 1. जोजिला — जम्मू और कश्मीर 2. शिपकी ला — हिमाचल प्रदेश 3. नाथू ला — अरुणाचल प्रदेश उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Zoji La connects Srinagar with Kargil and Leh in the Greater Himalayas, and Shipki La connects Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh with Tibet through the Sutlej gorge. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched because Nathu La is situated in Sikkim on the Indo-China border, not in Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 9Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Article 21 guarantees protection of life and personal liberty. 2. The Right to Education was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. 3. Fundamental Rights are enforceable by the courts through writs under Article 32. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारतीय संविधान के अंतर्गत मूल अधिकारों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अनुच्छेद 21 प्राण और दैहिक स्वतंत्रता के संरक्षण की गारंटी देता है। 2. शिक्षा का अधिकार 86वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 2002 द्वारा अंतःस्थापित किया गया था। 3. अनुच्छेद 32 के तहत रिट जारी कर न्यायालयों द्वारा मूल अधिकारों को प्रवर्तित कराया जा सकता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, conferring free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14, and Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the direct judicial enforcement of Part III rights.

Question 10Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

L.B.S is one of the economic measures taken by the Goverment of India for financial inclusion. What is L.B.S in this context?

एल.बी.एस. एक वित्तीय समावेशन के लिये भारत सरकारद्वारा उठाये गये आर्थिक उपायों में से एक हैं। इस परिप्रेक्ष्यएल.बी.एस. क्या हें?

A
Lead Breaking System
अग्रणी विभक्ति प्रणाली
B
Lead Banking Scheme
अग्रणी बैंक योजना (Lead Bank Scheme)
Correct Option
C
Loan Banking System
ऋण बैंकिंग प्रणाली (Loan Banking System)
D
Land Banking Scheme
भूमि बैंकिंग योजना
Explanation:

Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) for Financial Inclusion:

  • In Indian banking and economics, L.B.S. stands for the Lead Bank Scheme.
  • The scheme was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in December 1969 based on the recommendations of the Gadgil Study Group (National Credit Council) and the F.K.F. Nariman Committee.
  • Under the Lead Bank Scheme, each commercial bank is assigned a designated district where it acts as the 'Lead Bank' to coordinate credit planning, expand branch networks, mobilize deposits, and channel agricultural and priority sector credit to achieve comprehensive financial inclusion.

Therefore, L.B.S. refers to the Lead Banking Scheme (Option B).

Question 11Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves. 2. The Speaker vacates his/her office as soon as the Lok Sabha is dissolved. 3. The Speaker's decision on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

लोकसभा अध्यक्ष के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अध्यक्ष का चुनाव लोकसभा के सदस्यों द्वारा अपने में से ही किया जाता है। 2. लोकसभा के भंग होते ही अध्यक्ष अपना पद तत्काल खाली कर देता/देती है। 3. कोई विधेयक धन विधेयक है या नहीं, इस पर अध्यक्ष का निर्णय अंतिम होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Under Article 93 of the Constitution, the Lok Sabha elects the Speaker from among its members, and Article 110(3) explicitly stipulates that if any question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker thereon shall be final. Statement 2 is incorrect because the second proviso to Article 94 provides that whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha.

Question 12Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

Which of the following is/are the features of the parliamentary system of government in India? 1. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha. 2. Independence of the executive from the legislature. 3. Fixed tenure of the executive. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

भारत में सरकार की संसदीय प्रणाली की निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी विशेषता/विशेषताएं है/हैं? 1. मंत्रिपरिषद का लोकसभा के प्रति सामूहिक उत्तरदायित्व। 2. कार्यपालिका का विधायिका से पूर्ण अलगाव (स्वतंत्रता)। 3. कार्यपालिका का निश्चित कार्यकाल। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the lower house (Lok Sabha per Article 75(3)) constitutes the bedrock of the parliamentary system. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because a parliamentary system is characterized by the fusion of executive and legislative powers rather than strict independence, and the executive possesses no fixed tenure, surviving in office only so long as it commands the confidence of the legislature.

Question 13Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to inflation measurement in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures price changes at the wholesale level. 2. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) reflects the retail prices paid by consumers. 3. In India, the WPI is compiled and released by the Ministry of Finance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में मुद्रास्फीति मापन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. थोक मूल्य सूचकांक (WPI) थोक स्तर पर वस्तुओं के मूल्यों में परिवर्तन को मापता है। 2. उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक (CPI) उपभोक्ताओं द्वारा भुगतान किए जाने वाले खुदरा मूल्यों को दर्शाता है। 3. भारत में WPI वित्त मंत्रालय द्वारा संकलित और जारी किया जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Wholesale Price Index tracks headline inflationary pressures at the first point of bulk trade before retail markups, whereas the Consumer Price Index measures changes in the price level of a representative basket of goods and services purchased by retail end-consumers. Statement 3 is incorrect because WPI is compiled and published by the Office of the Economic Adviser under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Finance.

Question 14General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Consider the following statements about the New Economic Policy of 1991: 1. It comprised measures of liberalization, privatization and globalization. 2. It abolished industrial licensing for most industries. 3. It was introduced when P.V. Narasimha Rao was the Prime Minister and Dr. Manmohan Singh was the Finance Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1991 की नई आर्थिक नीति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसमें उदारीकरण, निजीकरण और वैश्वीकरण के उपाय शामिल थे। 2. इसने अधिकांश उद्योगों के लिए औद्योगिक लाइसेंसिंग प्रणाली को समाप्त कर दिया। 3. इसे तब शुरू किया गया था जब पी.वी. नरसिम्हा राव प्रधानमंत्री और डॉ. मनमोहन सिंह वित्त मंत्री थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. In July 1991, India launched structural economic reforms anchored on Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG). The Statement on Industrial Policy of 1991 dismantled the License Raj by abolishing industrial licensing for all but a handful of strategic sectors, steered under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.

Question 15History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), consider the following statements: 1. It guarantees 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work. 2. It was enacted in 2009. 3. At least one-third of the beneficiaries under the Act are required to be women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

महात्मा गांधी राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण रोजगार गारंटी अधिनियम (MGNREGA) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह प्रत्येक ग्रामीण परिवार को, जिसके वयस्क सदस्य अकुशल शारीरिक श्रम के लिए तैयार हों, एक वित्तीय वर्ष में 100 दिनों के मजदूरी रोजगार की गारंटी देता है। 2. यह अधिनियम 2009 में अधिनियमित किया गया था। 3. अधिनियम के तहत कुल लाभार्थियों में से कम से कम एक-तिहाई महिलाएं होना अनिवार्य है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. MGNREGA legally guarantees 100 days of unskilled manual wage employment per financial year to registered rural households, and Schedule II explicitly provides that priority shall be given to women such that at least one-third of workers are women. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Act was passed by Parliament in September 2005 (initially as NREGA); it was merely renamed in honor of Mahatma Gandhi on 2 October 2009.

Question 16Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Consider the following statements regarding the debate on Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in retail in India during 2011-12: 1. The Union Government announced a decision to permit 51 per cent FDI in multi-brand retail. 2. The decision left it to the state governments to permit or prohibit such retail stores within their jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2011-12 के दौरान भारत में खुदरा क्षेत्र में प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश (FDI) पर हुई बहस के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. केंद्र सरकार ने मल्टी-ब्रांड खुदरा क्षेत्र में 51 प्रतिशत FDI की अनुमति देने के निर्णय की घोषणा की थी। 2. इस निर्णय में अपने अधिकार क्षेत्र में ऐसे खुदरा स्टोरों को अनुमति देने या प्रतिबंधित करने का फैसला राज्य सरकारों पर छोड़ दिया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
Correct Option
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Both statements are correct. In late 2011 and 2012, the Union Cabinet approved 51% Foreign Direct Investment in multi-brand retail trading under the government approval route, subject to minimum investment and domestic sourcing norms. Recognizing India's federal structure, the policy was designed as an enabling framework where individual State Governments and Union Territories retained the sovereign discretion to implement or reject multi-brand retail FDI within their territories.

Question 17Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the biodiversity hotspots of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka together constitute one biodiversity hotspot. 2. The Himalaya is recognized as a biodiversity hotspot. 3. India's biodiversity hotspots also include the Indo-Burma region and Sundaland. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. पश्चिमी घाट और श्रीलंका मिलकर एक जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट का निर्माण करते हैं। 2. हिमालय को एक जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के रूप में मान्यता प्राप्त है। 3. भारत के जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट में इंडो-बर्मा क्षेत्र और सुंदरलैंड भी शामिल हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. According to Conservation International, India encompasses regions belonging to four global biodiversity hotspots: the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka hotspot, the Himalaya hotspot covering the entire Indian Himalayan range, the Indo-Burma hotspot which includes parts of Northeast India, and the Sundaland hotspot which encompasses the Nicobar group of islands.

Question 18Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the Rio+20 United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, consider the following statements: 1. It was held at Rio de Janeiro in June 2012. 2. Its outcome document was titled 'The Future We Want'. 3. It produced a legally binding treaty on greenhouse gas emission reductions for all countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

सतत विकास पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र रियो+20 सम्मेलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह जून 2012 में रियो डी जनेरियो में आयोजित किया गया था। 2. इसके परिणामी दस्तावेज का शीर्षक 'द फ्यूचर वी वांट' था। 3. इसने सभी देशों के लिए ग्रीनहाउस गैस उत्सर्जन में कमी पर एक कानूनी रूप से बाध्यकारी संधि तैयार की। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) took place in Rio de Janeiro in June 2012, commemorating twenty years since the 1992 Earth Summit, and world leaders adopted the non-binding outcome declaration titled 'The Future We Want'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the summit did not produce a legally binding emissions treaty; rather, it launched intergovernmental processes leading to the formulation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Question 19Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements: 1. It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. 2. Its principal bench is located in Mumbai. 3. Appeals against its orders lie directly with the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

राष्ट्रीय हरित अधिकरण (NGT) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसकी स्थापना राष्ट्रीय हरित अधिकरण अधिनियम, 2010 के तहत की गई थी। 2. इसकी प्रधान पीठ (प्रिंसिपल बेंच) मुंबई में स्थित है। 3. इसके आदेशों के विरुद्ध अपील सीधे भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय में की जा सकती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The NGT was constituted in October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection, and Section 22 of the Act provides that appeals against any award, decision, or order of the Tribunal lie directly to the Supreme Court within 90 days. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Principal Bench of the NGT is located in New Delhi, with regional benches in Pune, Bhopal, Kolkata, and Chennai.

Question 20Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Malthus argued that the population grows in a _______ progression, while agricultural production/food supply grows in a ______ progression. From the following options, choose the correct answer to fill in the blanks:

माल्थस ने तर्क दिया कि जनसंख्या प्रगति मेंबढ़ती है, जबकि कृषि उत्पादन/खाद्य आपूर्ति प्रगति मेंबढ़ती है। निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति केलिये सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Lincar, Exponential
रैखिक, घातांकीय
B
Exponential, Linear
Exponential, Linear
C
Arithmetic, Geometric
Arithmetic, Geometric
D
Geometric, Arithmetic
Geometric, Arithmetic
Correct Option
Explanation:

Thomas Robert Malthus, in his landmark work An Essay on the Principle of Population (1798), postulated his classical demographic law:

  • Population increases in a GEOMETRIC progression (multiplying exponentially: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64...), doubling approximately every 25 years if unchecked.
  • Food supply / Agricultural production increases only in an ARITHMETIC progression (increasing additively: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7...) due to the operation of the law of diminishing returns on land.

This disparity leads inevitably to a 'Malthusian Catastrophe' (famines, wars, pestilence as positive checks) unless preventive checks (moral restraint, delayed marriage) are exercised.

Therefore, population grows in a Geometric progression, while food supply grows in an Arithmetic progression.

Question 21General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Consider the following statements about nuclear power in India: 1. The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is located in Tamil Nadu. 2. The Kudankulam project is being set up with Russian collaboration. 3. Tarapur was India's first commercial nuclear power station. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में परमाणु ऊर्जा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कुडनकुलम परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र तमिलनाडु में स्थित है। 2. कुडनकुलम परियोजना रूसी सहयोग से स्थापित की जा रही है। 3. तारापुर भारत का पहला वाणिज्यिक परमाणु ऊर्जा केंद्र था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is situated in Tirunelveli district, Tamil Nadu, constructed with VVER-1000 water-cooled reactors under an intergovernmental partnership with Russia's Rosatom. Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS), commissioned in Maharashtra in October 1969 with American boiling water reactors, was India's very first commercial nuclear electricity generating station.

Question 22General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

With reference to the human digestive system, consider the following statements: 1. Salivary amylase begins the digestion of starch in the mouth. 2. Bile is produced by the pancreas. 3. Most of the nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

मानव पाचन तंत्र के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. लार में उपस्थित एमाइलेज मुख में स्टार्च का पाचन शुरू करता है। 2. पित्त (बाइल) का निर्माण अग्न्याशय (पैंक्रियाज) द्वारा किया जाता है। 3. अधिकांश पोषक तत्वों का अवशोषण बड़ी आंत में होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because chemical digestion of carbohydrates initiates in the oral cavity through salivary amylase (ptyalin), which breaks down dietary starch into maltose. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because bile is synthesized continuously by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and the vast majority of nutrient digestion and absorption occurs across the vast surface area of the small intestine (jejunum and ileum), whereas the large intestine primarily absorbs water and electrolytes.

Question 23General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to the London Olympic Games, 2012, consider the following statements: 1. London became the first city to host the modern Olympic Games three times. 2. India won six medals at London 2012, its best Olympic performance till then. 3. Sushil Kumar won a gold medal in wrestling at London 2012. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

लंदन ओलंपिक खेल, 2012 के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. लंदन आधुनिक ओलंपिक खेलों की तीन बार मेजबानी करने वाला पहला शहर बना। 2. भारत ने लंदन 2012 में छह पदक जीते, जो उस समय तक ओलंपिक में उसका सर्वश्रेष्ठ प्रदर्शन था। 3. सुशील कुमार ने लंदन 2012 में कुश्ती में स्वर्ण पदक जीता था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Having previously staged the Games in 1908 and 1948, London became the first city in modern history to host the Summer Olympic Games three times, and India achieved its then-highest medal tally of six medals (two silver and four bronze). Statement 3 is incorrect because Sushil Kumar clinched the silver medal in the men's 66 kg freestyle wrestling, losing in the final to Japan's Tatsuhiro Yonemitsu.

Question 24General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Consider the following statements about recent international developments: 1. South Sudan became an independent country and a member of the United Nations in July 2011. 2. The 'Arab Spring' uprisings began in Tunisia in late 2010. 3. The 2011 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded jointly to three women, including Ellen Johnson Sirleaf. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

हाल के अंतरराष्ट्रीय घटनाक्रमों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. दक्षिण सूडान जुलाई 2011 में एक स्वतंत्र देश बना और संयुक्त राष्ट्र का सदस्य बना। 2. 'अरब स्प्रिंग' जनविद्रोह की शुरुआत 2010 के अंत में ट्यूनीशिया से हुई थी। 3. 2011 का नोबेल शांति पुरस्कार संयुक्त रूप से एलेन जॉनसन सरलीफ सहित तीन महिलाओं को दिया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Following a January 2011 referendum, South Sudan declared independence on 9 July 2011 and was admitted as the 193rd member state of the UN. The pro-democracy Arab Spring wave was triggered in Tunisia in December 2010 following Mohamed Bouazizi's self-immolation, and the Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the 2011 Nobel Peace Prize jointly to Liberian President Ellen Johnson Sirleaf, Leymah Gbowee, and Yemeni activist Tawakkol Karman for their non-violent struggle for women's safety and rights.

Question 25Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

With reference to the BIMSTEC, which of the following statements is/are true? 1. P. M. Nrendra Modi addressed the 5th BIMSTEC Summit on 30th March, 2022, 2. 5th Summit of BIMSTEC had been chaired by India. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

बिम्सटेक (BIMSTEC) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं? 1. पीएम नरेंद्र मोदी ने 5वें बिम्सटेक शिखर सम्मेलन को 30 मार्च 2022 को संबोधित किया था। 2. 5वें बिम्सटेक शिखर सम्मेलन की अध्यक्षता भारत ने की थी। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:

A
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
B
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
C
Only 2
केवल 2
D
Only 1 24
Only 1 24
Correct Option
Explanation:

5th BIMSTEC Summit (March 2022):

  1. Statement 1 is true: Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the 5th BIMSTEC Summit virtually on 30 March 2022 from New Delhi, announcing a $1 million financial contribution to revive the BIMSTEC secretariat.
  2. Statement 2 is false: The 5th BIMSTEC Summit was hosted and chaired by Sri Lanka (the outgoing chair, hosted from Colombo in hybrid mode), NOT by India. During this summit, the landmark BIMSTEC Charter was signed, and Thailand took over the chairmanship.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is true (Option D).

Question 26Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to Western Uttar Pradesh, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Western region of U.P is much more developed compared to other regions. 2. The region has witnessed the Green Revolution. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

पश्चिमी उत्तर प्रदेश के सामाजिक-आर्थिक परिदृश्य का विश्लेषण:

A
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
B
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
Correct Option
C
Only 2
केवल 2
D
Only 1
केवल 1
Explanation:

Socio-Economic Dynamics of Western Uttar Pradesh:

  1. Statement 1 is correct: Western Uttar Pradesh (Paschimanchal) is significantly more developed in terms of per-capita income, industrialization, road connectivity, urbanization, and agricultural productivity compared to other regions of the state (Purvanchal and Bundelkhand). Its proximity to the National Capital Region (NCR) and fertile upper doab soils drive strong industrial and service economies.
  2. Statement 2 is correct: Western Uttar Pradesh was one of the core epicenters of India's Green Revolution in the late 1960s and 1970s (along with Punjab and Haryana). The introduction of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) Mexican wheat seeds, extensive tube-well and canal irrigation (Upper Ganga Canal), chemical fertilizers, and farm mechanization radically transformed agriculture in Meerut, Saharanpur, Muzaffarnagar, Bulandshahr, and Aligarh.

Therefore, both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct (Option B).

Question 27History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the Buddhist Councils, consider the following statements: 1. The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajgriha under the patronage of Ajatashatru. 2. The Second Buddhist Council was held at Vaishali about a century after the death of the Buddha. 3. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

बौद्ध संगीतियों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. प्रथम बौद्ध संगीति अजातशत्रु के संरक्षण में राजगृह में आयोजित की गई थी। 2. द्वितीय बौद्ध संगीति बुद्ध के महापरिनिर्वाण के लगभग एक शताब्दी बाद वैशाली में आयोजित हुई थी। 3. चतुर्थ बौद्ध संगीति कनिष्क के शासनकाल में कश्मीर में आयोजित की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. The First Buddhist Council met at the Sattapanni cave in Rajgriha under King Ajatashatru shortly after Buddha's death, where Upali and Ananda recited the Vinaya Pitaka and Sutta Pitaka. The Second Council was convened at Vaishali under King Kalashoka in 383 BCE, and the Fourth Council was held at Kundalvana in Kashmir under Kushan ruler Kanishka, which marked the formal split into Mahayana and Hinayana sects.

Question 28History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the edicts of Ashoka, consider the following statements: 1. The Ashokan edicts were deciphered by James Prinsep. 2. All the Ashokan edicts were composed in the Sanskrit language. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

अशोक के अभिलेखों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अशोक के अभिलेखों को जेम्स प्रिंसेप द्वारा पढ़ा गया था। 2. अशोक के सभी अभिलेख संस्कृत भाषा में रचित थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because British antiquarian and mint official James Prinsep deciphered the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts of the Ashokan edicts in 1837. Statement 2 is incorrect because the inscriptions were composed in Prakrit dialects, with Greek and Aramaic used in the north-western frontier regions like Kandahar, rather than Sanskrit.

Question 29History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the Gupta period, consider the following statements: 1. The Allahabad Pillar Inscription of Samudragupta was composed by Harisena. 2. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II. 3. Kalidasa's works belong to the post-Gupta period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

गुप्त काल के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. समुद्रगुप्त की इलाहाबाद स्तंभ प्रशस्ति की रचना हरिषेण द्वारा की गई थी। 2. चीनी यात्री फाह्यान ने चंद्रगुप्त द्वितीय के शासनकाल में भारत की यात्रा की थी। 3. कालिदास की कृतियाँ उत्तर-गुप्त काल से संबंधित हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Prayag Prashasti on the Allahabad Pillar was penned by Samudragupta's court poet Harisena in lyrical Sanskrit, and Chinese Buddhist monk Fa-Hien toured India between 399 and 412 CE during the reign of Chandragupta II Vikramaditya. Statement 3 is incorrect because Kalidasa lived during the classical Gupta period as one of the nine gems (Navaratnas) of Chandragupta II's court, not in the post-Gupta period.

Question 30History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the Bhakti and Sufi movements, consider the following statements: 1. Verses of Kabir are included in the Guru Granth Sahib. 2. The Chishti and Suhrawardi were prominent Sufi orders in medieval India. 3. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu popularised congregational singing (kirtans) in Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भक्ति और सूफी आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. संत कबीर के पद गुरु ग्रंथ साहिब में शामिल हैं। 2. चिश्ती और सुहरावर्दी मध्यकालीन भारत में प्रमुख सूफी सिलसिले थे। 3. चैतन्य महाप्रभु ने बंगाल में सामूहिक संकीर्तन (कीर्तन) को लोकप्रिय बनाया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Several hundred verses of Kabir were incorporated into the holy scripture Adi Granth (Guru Granth Sahib) by Guru Arjan Dev in 1604. The Chishti and Suhrawardi orders flourished as major spiritual lineages in the Delhi Sultanate, and Chaitanya Mahaprabhu promoted ecstatic love for Krishna through community kirtan across Bengal and Odisha.

Question 31History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the Mansabdari system of the Mughals, consider the following statements: 1. The system was introduced by Akbar. 2. The 'zat' rank determined the personal status and salary of a mansabdar. 3. Mansabdars were paid only in cash and were never assigned jagirs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

मुगलों की मनसबदारी प्रणाली के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इस प्रणाली की शुरुआत अकबर द्वारा की गई थी। 2. 'जात' पद मनसबदार की व्यक्तिगत स्थिति और उसके वेतन को निर्धारित करता था। 3. मनसबदारों को केवल नकद वेतन दिया जाता था और उन्हें कभी जागीरें आवंटित नहीं की जाती थीं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Akbar instituted the Mansabdari system around 1571 to structure Mughal civil and military bureaucracy, using 'zat' to determine personal status and basic remuneration and 'sawar' to specify the cavalry strength required. Statement 3 is incorrect because mansabdars were widely compensated through revenue assignments called jagirs (jagirdars), in addition to direct cash payments (naqdis).

Question 32Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

Consider the following statements regarding G-20 summits: 1. The 12th G-20 summit was held in Germany. 2. The 13th G-20 summit will be held in China. 3. The 14th G-20 summit will be held in Japan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

जी-20 शिखर सम्मेलनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 12वां जी-20 शिखर सम्मेलन जर्मनी में आयोजित किया गया था। 2. 13वां जी-20 शिखर सम्मेलन चीन में आयोजित किया जाएगा। 3. 14वां जी-20 शिखर सम्मेलन जापान में आयोजित किया जाएगा। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The 12th G-20 summit was hosted in Hamburg, Germany in July 2017, and the 14th G-20 summit took place in Osaka, Japan in June 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 13th G-20 summit took place in Buenos Aires, Argentina in 2018; China hosted the 11th summit in Hangzhou in 2016.

Question 33General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order. I. The foundation of Gadar Party II. Chittagaon Armoury Raid III. Set up of the 'Indian Independence Committe' at Berlin IV. Central Assembly Bomb Case Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार कीजिये तथा उनकोकालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिये।[. गदर पार्टी की स्थापनाIl. चिटरगाँव शास्त्रागार छापाIl. बर्लिन में 'इंडियन इंडिपेनूडेंस कमेटी ' की स्थापनाIV. केन्द्रीय एसेम्बली बम काण्डनीचे दिये गये कूट से सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिये।:कूट:

A
III, I, IV and II
LL IV anil (b) IMI, IV a2 I
B
I, III, IV and II
I, III, IV and II
Correct Option
C
I, III, II and IV
I, I, Wav (d) गा, I, Waattv
D
III, I, II and IV
III, I, II and IV
Explanation:

Chronological Order of Revolutionary Nationalist Events:

  1. I. The foundation of Ghadar Party: Founded in July 1913 in San Francisco (USA) by Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, and Kanshi Ram.
  2. III. Set up of the 'Indian Independence Committee' at Berlin: Established in late 1914 during World War I by Virendranath Chattopadhyaya, Bhupendranath Dutta, and Lala Har Dayal with the help of the German Foreign Office under the 'Zimmermann Plan'.
  3. IV. Central Assembly Bomb Case: Carried out on 8 April 1929 in New Delhi by Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt of the HSRA, protesting the Trade Disputes Bill and Public Safety Bill.
  4. II. Chittagong Armoury Raid: Executed on 18 April 1930 under the leadership of Masterda Surya Sen in Chittagong, Bengal.

Chronological sequence: I (1913) → III (1914) → IV (1929) → II (1930).

Therefore, the correct code is I, III, IV and II (Option B).

Question 34State Special GK (राज्य विशेष सामान्य ज्ञान)
Answer Key

With reference to the early Gandhian movements, consider the following statements: 1. The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Gandhi's first satyagraha in India. 2. The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 sought remission of land revenue following crop failure. 3. The Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918 witnessed Gandhi's first use of the hunger strike. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

गांधीजी के प्रारंभिक आंदोलनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 1917 का चंपारण सत्याग्रह भारत में गांधीजी का पहला सत्याग्रह था। 2. 1918 के खेड़ा सत्याग्रह में फसल खराब होने के बाद भू-राजस्व में छूट की मांग की गई थी। 3. 1918 की अहमदाबाद मिल हड़ताल में गांधीजी ने भारत में पहली बार भूख हड़ताल का प्रयोग किया। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. In 1917 at Champaran, Gandhi led his first civil disobedience movement in India against the coercive tinkathia system. At Kheda in 1918, he guided peasants demanding revenue suspension after famine and crop failure, and during the Ahmedabad textile mill strike of March 1918 over the plague bonus, he undertook his first fast unto death in India.

Question 35General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to the revolutionary movement in India, consider the following statements: 1. Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929. 2. The Chittagong Armoury Raid was led by Khudiram Bose. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में क्रांतिकारी आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भगत सिंह और बटुकेश्वर दत्त ने 1929 में केंद्रीय विधानसभा में बम फेंके थे। 2. चटगांव शस्त्रागार छापे का नेतृत्व खुदीराम बोस ने किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt hurled low-intensity bombs and leaflets into the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi on 8 April 1929 to protest the repressive Public Safety and Trade Disputes bills. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Chittagong Armoury Raid of April 1930 was planned and led by Surya Sen (Masterda); Khudiram Bose was executed in 1908 following the Muzaffarpur bomb incident.

Question 36General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

Consider the following statements regarding the performance of Mithali Raj in women’s One Day International Cricket: 1. She is the first ever to score more than 6000 runs. 2. She scored a century on her debut. 3. She holds the record for scoring 7 consecutive half centuries. 4. She holds the world record for scoring highest number of centuries. Which of the statements given above are correct?

महिला एकदिवसीय अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में मिताली राज के प्रदर्शन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. वह 6000 से अधिक रन बनाने वाली पहली महिला क्रिकेटर हैं। 2. उन्होंने अपने पदार्पण मैच में शतक बनाया था। 3. उनके नाम लगातार 7 अर्द्धशतक बनाने का रिकॉर्ड है। 4. उनके नाम सर्वाधिक शतक बनाने का विश्व रिकॉर्ड है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
केवल 1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
B
2, 3 and 4 only
केवल 2, 3 और 4
C
1, 2 and 4 only
केवल 1, 2 और 4
D
3 and 4 only
केवल 3 और 4
Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Mithali Raj was the first woman cricketer in history to surpass 6,000 ODI runs, scored an unbeaten 114 against Ireland on debut in 1999, and registered seven consecutive half-centuries in 2017. Statement 4 is incorrect because Australia's Meg Lanning held the world record for the highest number of centuries in women's ODIs.

Question 37History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to constitutional developments under British rule, consider the following statements: 1. The Regulating Act of 1773 created the office of the Governor-General of Bengal. 2. Pitt's India Act of 1784 established a system of dual control over Indian affairs. 3. The Charter Act of 1853 ended the commercial functions of the East India Company. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

ब्रिटिश शासन के अंतर्गत संवैधानिक विकास के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 1773 के रेगुलेटिंग एक्ट ने बंगाल के गवर्नर-जनरल का पद सृजित किया। 2. 1784 के पिट्स इंडिया एक्ट ने भारतीय मामलों पर दोहरे नियंत्रण की प्रणाली स्थापित की। 3. 1853 के चार्टर एक्ट ने ईस्ट इंडिया कंपनी के व्यापारिक कार्यों को समाप्त कर दिया। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Regulating Act of 1773 designated the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-General of Bengal with Warren Hastings as the first, and Pitt's India Act of 1784 set up the Board of Control alongside the Court of Directors. Statement 3 is incorrect because the commercial privileges and monopoly of the East India Company were completely terminated by the Charter Act of 1833, not the 1853 Act.

Question 38Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the Narmada river, consider the following statements: 1. It flows westwards and drains into the Arabian Sea. 2. It flows through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges. 3. The Tapi is a tributary of the Narmada. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

नर्मदा नदी के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह पश्चिम की ओर बहती है और अरब सागर में गिरती है। 2. यह विंध्य और सतपुड़ा पर्वत श्रेणियों के बीच एक भ्रंश घाटी से होकर बहती है। 3. तापी नदी नर्मदा की एक सहायक नदी है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Narmada rises near Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh, traverses a tectonic rift valley bounded by the Vindhyan range to the north and the Satpura range to the south, and discharges westwards into the Arabian Sea at the Gulf of Khambhat. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Tapi is an independent west-flowing peninsular river that rises in the Multai reserve forest in Betul district, not a tributary of the Narmada.

Question 39Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the Indian monsoon, consider the following statements: 1. The differential heating of land and sea is a primary cause of the monsoon. 2. The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) shifts northwards over the Indian subcontinent during summer. 3. The retreating monsoon brings rainfall to the Tamil Nadu coast during October-November. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारतीय मानसून के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. स्थल और जल का विभेदी तापन मानसून का एक प्राथमिक कारण है। 2. ग्रीष्म ऋतु में अंतःउष्णकटिबंधीय अभिसरण क्षेत्र (ITCZ) भारतीय उपमहाद्वीप पर उत्तर की ओर खिसक जाता है। 3. लौटता हुआ मानसून अक्टूबर-नवंबर के दौरान तमिलनाडु तट पर वर्षा कराता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. The thermal contrast between the warming Indian landmass and the Indian Ocean generates critical seasonal pressure gradients. During the summer solstice, the ITCZ migrates northwards over the northern plains, and in October-November the retreating north-east winds gather moisture from the Bay of Bengal to produce copious rainfall across the Tamil Nadu coastline.

Question 40Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the mountain passes of India, consider the following statements: 1. Zoji La connects Srinagar with Leh. 2. Nathu La connects Uttarakhand with Nepal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के पर्वतीय दर्रों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जोजिला दर्रा श्रीनगर को लेह से जोड़ता है। 2. नाथू ला दर्रा उत्तराखंड को नेपाल से जोड़ता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because Zoji La in the Great Himalayas carries National Highway 1, linking the Kashmir valley at Srinagar with Kargil and Leh in Ladakh. Statement 2 is incorrect because Nathu La is situated on the Indo-China border in East Sikkim, not connecting Uttarakhand with Nepal.

Question 41Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the soils of India, consider the following statements: 1. Alluvial soils cover the northern plains and are highly fertile. 2. Black soils are well suited for cotton cultivation. 3. Laterite soils are rich in humus content. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत की मृदा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जलोढ़ मृदा उत्तरी मैदानों में फैली है और अत्यधिक उपजाऊ होती है। 2. काली मृदा कपास की खेती के लिए अत्यंत उपयुक्त होती है। 3. लैटेराइट मृदा ह्यूमस की मात्रा से भरपूर होती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Alluvial deposits brought by the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra form the immensely productive agricultural base of the northern plains, and self-ploughing black regur soils retain moisture efficiently, providing optimal conditions for cotton growth. Statement 3 is incorrect because laterite soils undergo intense leaching due to heavy tropical rainfall, leaving them severely depleted of nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic humus.

Question 42Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

Which one of the following countries joined India and USA in the Malabar naval exercise held in July 2017?

जुलाई 2017 में आयोजित मालाबार नौसैनिक अभ्यास में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा देश भारत और अमेरिका के साथ शामिल हुआ था?

A
Japan
जापान
Correct Option
B
South Korea
दक्षिण कोरिया
C
France
फ्रांस
D
Philippines
फिलीपींस
Explanation:

Japan became a permanent member of the Malabar naval exercise series in 2015 and participated alongside the Indian Navy and the United States Navy in the 21st edition held off the Chennai coast in the Bay of Bengal in July 2017. The trilateral drill demonstrated joint aircraft carrier operations and maritime domain awareness.

Question 43General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to ocean currents, consider the following statements: 1. The Gulf Stream is a warm current of the North Atlantic Ocean. 2. The Labrador Current is a cold current. 3. Regions where warm and cold currents converge are generally poor fishing grounds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

महासागरीय जलधाराओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. गल्फ स्ट्रीम उत्तरी अटलांटिक महासागर की एक गर्म जलधारा है। 2. लेब्राडोर धारा एक ठंडी जलधारा है। 3. वे क्षेत्र जहाँ गर्म और ठंडी जलधाराएँ मिलती हैं, सामान्यतः मत्स्यन के लिए अनुपयुक्त क्षेत्र होते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Gulf Stream originates in the Gulf of Mexico as a powerful warm current moving polewards, while the Labrador Current brings cold Arctic waters southwards past Newfoundland. Statement 3 is incorrect because the confluence of warm and cold currents generates dense plankton growth, creating the world's most productive commercial fishing grounds, such as the Grand Banks off Newfoundland.

Question 44Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to plate tectonics and the Himalayas, consider the following statements: 1. The Himalayas were formed by the collision of the Indian plate with the Eurasian plate. 2. The Indian plate is currently moving southwards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

प्लेट विवर्तनिकी और हिमालय के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. हिमालय का निर्माण भारतीय प्लेट और यूरेशियाई प्लेट के टकराव से हुआ था। 2. भारतीय प्लेट वर्तमान में दक्षिण की ओर गति कर रही है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because the ongoing uplift of the Himalayan mountain system is caused by continental collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates following the closure of the ancient Tethys Sea. Statement 2 is incorrect because satellite geodesy shows that the Indian plate continues to move north-northeastwards into the Eurasian plate at approximately 4 to 5 centimetres per year, not southwards.

Question 45Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to world climate types, consider the following statements: 1. The Mediterranean climate is characterised by winter rainfall. 2. Chennai receives most of its rainfall from the retreating monsoon. 3. The equatorial climate experiences a large annual range of temperature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

विश्व के जलवायु प्रकारों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भूमध्यसागरीय जलवायु की विशेषता शीतकालीन वर्षा है। 2. चेन्नई अपनी अधिकांश वर्षा लौटते हुए मानसून से प्राप्त करता है। 3. विषुवतीय (भूमध्यरेखीय) जलवायु में वार्षिक तापांतर अधिक होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Shifting westerly wind systems produce wet winters and dry summers in Mediterranean climate zones, and Chennai on the south-eastern coast of India relies primarily on north-east retreating monsoon currents for its annual rainfall. Statement 3 is incorrect because equatorial regions experience uniform year-round solar heating and heavy cloud cover, resulting in an extremely small annual temperature range of roughly 2°C to 3°C.

Question 46General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

With reference to the Quit India Movement, consider the following statements: 1. It was launched in August 1942 with Mahatma Gandhi's call of 'Do or Die'. 2. The Quit India Resolution was passed at the Gowalia Tank Maidan session in Bombay. 3. Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia played prominent roles in the underground resistance during the movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह अगस्त 1942 में महात्मा गांधी के 'करो या मरो' के आह्वान के साथ शुरू किया गया था। 2. भारत छोड़ो प्रस्ताव बॉम्बे के ग्वालिया टैंक मैदान अधिवेशन में पारित किया गया था। 3. आंदोलन के दौरान जयप्रकाश नारायण और राम मनोहर लोहिया ने भूमिगत प्रतिरोध में प्रमुख भूमिका निभाई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement on 8 August 1942 at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay with the historic slogan 'Do or Die'. Following the pre-dawn arrests of the top Congress leadership under Operation Zero Hour, socialist leaders including Jayaprakash Narayan, Ram Manohar Lohia, and Aruna Asaf Ali led the underground struggle and clandestine Congress Radio broadcasts.

Question 47Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following statements: 1. Jharkhand possesses large reserves of coal and iron ore. 2. The Kolar gold fields are located in Karnataka. 3. Rajasthan has no significant mineral resources. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के खनिज संसाधनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. झारखंड में कोयले और लौह अयस्क के विशाल भंडार मौजूद हैं। 2. कोलार स्वर्ण क्षेत्र कर्नाटक में स्थित है। 3. राजस्थान में कोई महत्वपूर्ण खनिज संसाधन नहीं हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Jharkhand's Chota Nagpur plateau contains prime Gondwana coalfields at Jharia and Bokaro along with high-grade hematite deposits in West Singhbhum, and the Kolar gold fields are located in Karnataka. Statement 3 is incorrect because Rajasthan has vast mineral wealth, including near-monopoly reserves of lead, zinc, gypsum, and marble, as well as prominent copper mines at Khetri.

Question 48Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the geography of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight Indian states. 2. Indian Standard Time is based on the 75°E meridian. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के भूगोल के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कर्क रेखा आठ भारतीय राज्यों से होकर गुजरती है। 2. भारतीय मानक समय 75° पूर्वी देशांतर पर आधारित है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because the Tropic of Cancer (23°30' N) traverses eight Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Statement 2 is incorrect because Indian Standard Time (IST) is based on the 82°30' E meridian running through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh, placing it 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of GMT.

Question 49Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to protected areas in India, consider the following statements: 1. Jim Corbett National Park was the first national park established in India. 2. Project Tiger was launched in 1973. 3. Kaziranga National Park is located in West Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के संरक्षित क्षेत्रों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जिम कॉर्बेट राष्ट्रीय उद्यान भारत में स्थापित पहला राष्ट्रीय उद्यान था। 2. प्रोजेक्ट टाइगर की शुरुआत 1973 में की गई थी। 3. काजीरंगा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान पश्चिम बंगाल में स्थित है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Hailey National Park (now Jim Corbett National Park) was established in Uttarakhand in 1936 as the first national park in India and Asia, and Project Tiger was launched on 1 April 1973 to safeguard the endangered Royal Bengal tiger. Statement 3 is incorrect because Kaziranga National Park is located along the floodplains of the Brahmaputra in Assam, not in West Bengal.

Question 50Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the Fundamental Rights, consider the following statements: 1. The Right to Equality is enshrined in Articles 14 to 18 of the Constitution. 2. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under Article 32. 3. The Right to Property continues to be a Fundamental Right. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Fundamental Rights के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. The Right to Equality is enshrined in Articles 14 to 18 of the Constitution. 2. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under Article 32. 3. The Right to Property continues to be a Fundamental Right. उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Correct Option: Option (C) — 1 and 2 only is the correct answer.

  • Statement(s) 1, 2 are correct:
  • 1. The Right to Equality is enshrined in Articles 14 to 18 of the Constitution.
  • 2. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided under Article 32.
  • Statement(s) 3 is/are incorrect:
  • 3. The Right to Property continues to be a Fundamental Right.
Question 51State Special GK (राज्य विशेष सामान्य ज्ञान)
Answer Key

Consider the following statements with reference to Upper Gangetic agro-climatic region: 1. This region encompasses central and western Uttar Pradesh. 2. This region has more than 130% irrigation intensity and 140% cropping intensity. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

ऊपरी गंगा मैदानी कृषि-जलवायु क्षेत्र के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह क्षेत्र मध्य और पश्चिमी उत्तर प्रदेश को समाहित करता है। 2. इस क्षेत्र में 130% से अधिक सिंचाई तीव्रता और 140% से अधिक फसल गहनता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
Correct Option
B
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
C
Only 1
केवल 1
D
Only 2
केवल 2
Explanation:

Planning Commission's Agro-Climatic Regional Planning (1989):

  1. Statement 1 is correct: The Upper Gangetic Plains region (Zone 5) encompasses 32 districts covering the central and western parts of Uttar Pradesh. It extends between the Ghaghara and Yamuna rivers across the fertile alluvial Doab.
  2. Statement 2 is correct: Characterized by flat alluvial topography, rich soil, and extensive canal and tube-well infrastructure, this region boasts an irrigation intensity exceeding 130% and a cropping intensity exceeding 140%, representing one of the most intensively cultivated agricultural zones in India.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 52Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements: 1. It has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more States under Article 131. 2. Its advisory jurisdiction is provided under Article 143. 3. It is a court of record under Article 129. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अनुच्छेद 131 के तहत इसे भारत सरकार और एक या अधिक राज्यों के बीच विवादों में मूल क्षेत्राधिकार प्राप्त है। 2. इसका परामर्शदात्री (सलाहकारी) क्षेत्राधिकार अनुच्छेद 143 के तहत प्रदान किया गया है। 3. अनुच्छेद 129 के तहत यह एक अभिलेख न्यायालय है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Under Article 131, the Supreme Court exercises exclusive original jurisdiction in federal disputes involving the Union and States; Article 143 empowers the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on questions of law or fact of public importance; and Article 129 designates the Supreme Court as a court of record with the power to punish for contempt of itself.

Question 53Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to a Money Bill, consider the following statements: 1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. 2. The decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final. 3. The Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

धन विधेयक के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. धन विधेयक केवल लोकसभा में ही पेश किया जा सकता है। 2. कोई विधेयक धन विधेयक है या नहीं, इस पर लोकसभा अध्यक्ष का निर्णय अंतिम होता है। 3. राज्य सभा किसी धन विधेयक में संशोधन कर सकती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 109 stipulates that a Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), but only in the Lok Sabha on the prior recommendation of the President, and Article 110(3) provides that the Speaker's certificate thereon is final and non-justiciable. Statement 3 is incorrect because under Article 109(2), the Rajya Sabha has no power to amend or reject a Money Bill; it can only return it with recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject.

Question 54Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements: 1. It has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more States under Article 131. 2. Its advisory opinion under Article 143 is binding on the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अनुच्छेद 131 के तहत भारत सरकार और एक या अधिक राज्यों के बीच विवादों में इसे आरंभिक अधिकारिता प्राप्त है। 2. अनुच्छेद 143 के तहत इसका परामर्शी मत राष्ट्रपति के लिए बाध्यकारी होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because Article 131 vests exclusive original jurisdiction in the Supreme Court for federal disputes involving the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States. Statement 2 is incorrect because the advisory opinion delivered by the Supreme Court on a presidential reference under Article 143 is consultative in nature and not binding on the President of India.

Question 55Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the distribution of legislative powers in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Seventh Schedule contains the Union, State and Concurrent Lists. 2. Residuary powers of legislation rest with the Union Parliament. 3. Education was transferred to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में विधायी शक्तियों के वितरण के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सातवीं अनुसूची में संघ, राज्य और समवर्ती सूचियाँ शामिल हैं। 2. कानून बनाने की अवशिष्ट शक्तियां केंद्रीय संसद में निहित हैं। 3. 42वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा शिक्षा को समवर्ती सूची में स्थानांतरित किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Article 246 and the Seventh Schedule distribute legislative powers between the Union and States across three lists: List I (Union List), List II (State List), and List III (Concurrent List). Under Article 248, residuary powers on matters not enumerated in any list belong exclusively to Parliament, and the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects—including education and forests—from the State List to the Concurrent List.

Question 56Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to constitutional amendments in India, consider the following statements: 1. The 42nd Amendment added the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble. 2. The 86th Amendment made elementary education a Fundamental Right under Article 21A. 3. The 73rd Amendment relates to Municipalities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में संविधान संशोधनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 42वें संशोधन ने प्रस्तावना में 'समाजवादी' और 'पंथनिरपेक्ष' शब्द जोड़े। 2. 86वें संशोधन ने अनुच्छेद 21A के तहत प्रारंभिक शिक्षा को एक मूल अधिकार बनाया। 3. 73वां संशोधन नगरपालिकाओं से संबंधित है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 amended the Preamble by adding the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity', and the 86th Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, creating a Fundamental Right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 pertains to rural Panchayati Raj bodies, whereas urban Municipalities were constitutionalized by the 74th Amendment Act.

Question 57Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, consider the following statements: 1. It added the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 subjects to the Constitution. 2. It provides for a three-tier system of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. 3. It mandates 50 per cent reservation for women in Panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

73वें संविधान संशोधन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसने संविधान में 29 विषयों वाली ग्यारहवीं अनुसूची जोड़ी। 2. यह ग्राम, मध्यवर्ती और जिला स्तर पर पंचायतों की त्रिस्तरीय प्रणाली का प्रावधान करता है। 3. यह पंचायतों में महिलाओं के लिए 50 प्रतिशत आरक्षण अनिवार्य करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act inserted the Eleventh Schedule with 29 functional items and mandated a three-tier Panchayati Raj system (Gram, Panchayat Samiti, and Zilla Parishad) in all states with populations exceeding 20 lakhs under Article 243B. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 243D(3) mandates reservation of not less than one-third (33%) of total seats for women; states have the option to increase it to 50%, but the constitutional minimum is one-third.

Question 58Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements: 1. It derives its authority from Article 324 of the Constitution. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office by the President on the recommendation of the Union Cabinet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के निर्वाचन आयोग के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह संविधान के अनुच्छेद 324 से अपना प्राधिकार प्राप्त करता है। 2. केंद्रीय मंत्रिमंडल की सिफारिश पर राष्ट्रपति द्वारा मुख्य निर्वाचन आयुक्त को पद से हटाया जा सकता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission. Statement 2 is incorrect because the first proviso to Article 324(5) states that the Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed by executive discretion; he can only be removed in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court (by presidential order following an address by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority).

Question 59Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to a National Emergency, consider the following statements: 1. It can be proclaimed under Article 352 on the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. 2. The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month. 3. The 44th Amendment replaced the expression 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसकी उद्घोषणा अनुच्छेद 352 के तहत युद्ध, बाह्य आक्रमण या सशस्त्र विद्रोह के आधार पर की जा सकती है। 2. इस उद्घोषणा को एक माह के भीतर संसद के दोनों सदनों द्वारा अनुमोदित किया जाना अनिवार्य है। 3. 44वें संशोधन ने 'आंतरिक अशांति' पद को 'सशस्त्र विद्रोह' से प्रतिस्थापित किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Article 352 authorizes the President to proclaim a National Emergency when the security of India or any part thereof is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. Following the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, every proclamation of emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month by a special majority, and the phrase 'internal disturbance' was substituted with 'armed rebellion' to eliminate executive misuse.

Question 60Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, consider the following statements: 1. The CAG is appointed by the President under Article 148. 2. The CAG audits the accounts of both the Union and the States. 3. The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after ceasing to hold office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के नियंत्रक और महालेखापरीक्षक (CAG) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. CAG की नियुक्ति राष्ट्रपति द्वारा अनुच्छेद 148 के तहत की जाती है। 2. CAG संघ और राज्यों दोनों के खातों का लेखापरीक्षण करता है। 3. अपने पद से हटने के बाद CAG भारत सरकार के अधीन आगे किसी अन्य पद का पात्र होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 148 provides for an independent Comptroller and Auditor General of India appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal, and under Article 149 and statutory rules, the CAG audits all receipts and expenditure of both the Union Government and State Governments. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 148(4) categorically prohibits the CAG from further appointment or office under the Government of India or the Government of any State after relinquishing office.

Question 61Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the Preamble of the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. It is based on the Objectives Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly. 2. It has been amended only once, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. 3. It is enforceable in a court of law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

संविधान की प्रस्तावना के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह संविधान सभा में जवाहरलाल नेहरू द्वारा पेश किए गए उद्देश्य प्रस्ताव पर आधारित है। 2. इसे 42वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा केवल एक बार संशोधित किया गया है। 3. यह कानून की अदालत में प्रवर्तनीय (न्यायसंगत) है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Preamble is historically based on the 'Objectives Resolution' introduced by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946 and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22 January 1947, and it has been amended only once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (adding Socialist, Secular, and Integrity). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Preamble is non-justiciable and its provisions are not directly enforceable in courts of law.

Question 62History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements: 1. It was established in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. 2. It was nationalised in 1949. 3. It prints and issues the one-rupee note. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसकी स्थापना भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक अधिनियम, 1934 के तहत 1935 में की गई थी। 2. इसका राष्ट्रीयकरण 1949 में किया गया था। 3. यह एक रुपये का नोट छापता और जारी करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Reserve Bank of India commenced operations on 1 April 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the RBI Act, 1934 on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission, and it was nationalized under the RBI (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act on 1 January 1949. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 22 of the RBI Act excludes the one-rupee note; one-rupee currency notes and subsidiary coins are issued directly by the Ministry of Finance and bear the signature of the Finance Secretary.

Question 63Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to inflation, consider the following statements: 1. Demand-pull inflation arises when aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply. 2. Stagflation refers to a situation of high economic growth accompanied by low inflation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

मुद्रास्फीति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. मांग-प्रेरित मुद्रास्फीति तब उत्पन्न होती है जब कुल मांग कुल आपूर्ति से अधिक हो जाती है। 2. स्टैगफ्लेशन उच्च आर्थिक विकास के साथ निम्न मुद्रास्फीति की स्थिति को दर्शाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because demand-pull inflation occurs when aggregate economic demand for goods and services outpaces an economy's aggregate productive capacity ('too much money chasing too few goods'). Statement 2 is incorrect because stagflation describes an adverse macroeconomic condition characterized by stagnant economic growth and high unemployment combined with persistently high inflation, rather than high growth with low inflation.

Question 64Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to Nepal in 2008, consider the following statements: 1. Nepal was declared a federal democratic republic in May 2008, ending its centuries-old monarchy. 2. Pushpa Kamal Dahal 'Prachanda' became the Prime Minister of Nepal in August 2008. 3. Nepal adopted a new permanent constitution in May 2008. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2008 में नेपाल के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. मई 2008 में नेपाल को एक संघीय लोकतांत्रिक गणराज्य घोषित किया गया, जिससे सदियों पुरानी राजशाही समाप्त हो गई। 2. पुष्प कमल दाहाल 'प्रचंड' अगस्त 2008 में नेपाल के प्रधानमंत्री बने। 3. नेपाल ने मई 2008 में एक नया स्थायी संविधान अपनाया। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. On 28 May 2008, Nepal's newly elected Constituent Assembly formally abolished the 240-year-old Shah monarchy and proclaimed the country a federal democratic republic, and CPN (Maoist) leader Pushpa Kamal Dahal 'Prachanda' was elected Prime Minister in August 2008. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Constituent Assembly governed under an interim constitution, only promulgating the permanent constitution in September 2015.

Question 65Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to planning in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Planning Commission was set up in 1950 by a resolution of the Union Cabinet. 2. The First Five Year Plan (1951-56) was based on the Harrod-Domar model. 3. The Second Five Year Plan accorded the highest priority to agriculture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में नियोजन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. योजना आयोग की स्थापना 1950 में केंद्रीय मंत्रिमंडल के एक प्रस्ताव द्वारा की गई थी। 2. प्रथम पंचवर्षीय योजना (1951-56) हेरोड-डोमर मॉडल पर आधारित थी। 3. द्वितीय पंचवर्षीय योजना ने कृषि को सर्वोच्च प्राथमिकता दी थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Planning Commission was established as an extra-constitutional, non-statutory body in March 1950 through an executive resolution of the Government of India, and the First Five Year Plan focused on post-war rehabilitation and agriculture guided by the Harrod-Domar growth formulation. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Second Five Year Plan (1956-61), based on the Nehru-Mahalanobis model, prioritized rapid industrialization with a prime focus on heavy and basic capital goods industries.

Question 66Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: 1. Integrated Rural Development Programme 2. Swamjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana 3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana Codes:

भारत सरकार द्वारा शुरू की गई निम्नलिखित योजनाओं को कालक्रमानुसार व्यवस्थित कीजिए और नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: 1. समन्वित ग्रामीण विकास कार्यक्रम (IRDP) 2. स्वर्णजयंती ग्राम स्वरोजगार योजना (SGSY) 3. राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण रोजगार गारंटी अधिनियम (NREGA) 4. प्रधानमंत्री जन-धन योजना (PMJDY) कूट:

A
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
Correct Option
B
3, 4, 1, 2
3, 4, 1, 2
C
2, 3, 4, 1
2, 3, 4, 1
D
4, 3, 1, 2
4, 3, 1, 2
Explanation:

Chronological order of historic rural development and financial inclusion schemes in India:

  1. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP): First initiated in 1978–79 and expanded nationwide on October 2, 1980, under the Sixth Five-Year Plan to provide subsidized credit and productive assets to families living below the poverty line.
  2. Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY): Launched on April 1, 1999, restructuring and merging IRDP and five allied programs (TRYSEM, DWCRA, SITRA, GKY, MWS) into a holistic self-employment program focusing on Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
  3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA): Passed by Parliament in September 2005 and formally notified/launched on February 2, 2006 (later renamed MGNREGA in October 2009) to guarantee 100 days of wage employment.
  4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): Launched on August 28, 2014, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi as the world's largest financial inclusion mission to provide universal access to banking accounts.

Therefore, the correct chronological sequence is 1, 2, 3, 4.

Question 67Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to the balance of payments, consider the following statements: 1. The current account records trade in goods and services along with transfers. 2. Foreign direct investment inflows are recorded in the current account. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भुगतान संतुलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. चालू खाता वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के व्यापार के साथ-साथ अंतरण भुगतानों को दर्ज करता है। 2. प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश (FDI) के प्रवाह को चालू खाते में दर्ज किया जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because the current account of the balance of payments tracks visible trade (merchandise exports and imports), invisible trade (services like IT and tourism), and unrequited unilateral transfers (remittances and gifts). Statement 2 is incorrect because cross-border financial investments such as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) alter foreign asset/liability claims and are recorded strictly in the capital account.

Question 68Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to taxation in India, consider the following statements: 1. Income tax is levied and collected by the Union Government. 2. Central excise duty is a tax on the manufacture of goods. 3. Sales tax/VAT on goods is primarily a subject of the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में कराधान के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. आयकर केंद्र सरकार द्वारा लगाया और एकत्र किया जाता है। 2. केंद्रीय उत्पाद शुल्क वस्तुओं के निर्माण पर लगने वाला कर है। 3. वस्तुओं पर बिक्री कर/वैट मुख्य रूप से राज्य सरकारों का विषय है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Under Entry 82 of the Union List (Seventh Schedule), taxes on non-agricultural income are levied and collected by the Union and distributed with States. Central excise duty is an indirect tax levied on the production or manufacture of goods within the country, and sales tax/state VAT fell under Entry 54 of the State List, empowering State Governments to levy taxes on intra-state sales.

Question 69Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to the Green Revolution in India, consider the following statements: 1. It began in the mid-1960s with the introduction of high-yielding variety seeds. 2. Minimum Support Prices are announced by the Government on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices. 3. Its benefits spread evenly across all regions of the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में हरित क्रांति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसकी शुरुआत 1960 के दशक के मध्य में उच्च उपज देने वाली किस्म के बीजों की शुरुआत के साथ हुई थी। 2. कृषि लागत और मूल्य आयोग की सिफारिशों पर सरकार द्वारा न्यूनतम समर्थन मूल्य की घोषणा की जाती है। 3. इसके लाभ देश के सभी क्षेत्रों में समान रूप से फैले। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Green Revolution was inaugurated in the mid-1960s with semi-dwarf High Yielding Varieties (HYV) of wheat and rice, supported by institutional pricing where Minimum Support Prices (MSP) are declared based on the recommendations of the CACP (established 1965). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Green Revolution was geographically skewed towards irrigated regions of Punjab, Haryana, and Western Uttar Pradesh, creating stark inter-regional agricultural disparities rather than spreading evenly.

Question 70General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to industrial policy in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 classified industries into three categories. 2. The New Industrial Policy of 1991 abolished industrial licensing for most industries. 3. The 1991 policy increased the number of industries reserved for the public sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में औद्योगिक नीति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 1956 के औद्योगिक नीति संकल्प ने उद्योगों को तीन श्रेणियों में वर्गीकृत किया। 2. 1991 की नई औद्योगिक नीति ने अधिकांश उद्योगों के लिए औद्योगिक लाइसेंसिंग समाप्त कर दी। 3. 1991 की नीति ने सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के लिए आरक्षित उद्योगों की संख्या में वृद्धि की। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 1956 Industrial Policy Resolution, often dubbed India's economic constitution, demarcated industries into Schedules A (exclusive state monopoly), B (progressively state-owned), and C (private sector), and the Statement on Industrial Policy of 1991 dismantled licensing for all but 18 industries. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1991 policy drastically curtailed public sector reservations from 17 industries down to just 8 (subsequently narrowed to only two: atomic energy and railway transport).

Question 71Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to measures of money supply in India, consider the following statements: 1. M1 includes currency with the public and demand deposits with banks. 2. M1 is a broader measure of money supply than M3. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में मुद्रा आपूर्ति के मापों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. M1 में जनता के पास मुद्रा और बैंकों के पास मांग जमा शामिल हैं। 2. M1, M3 की तुलना में मुद्रा आपूर्ति का अधिक व्यापक माप है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because M1 (narrow money) consists of currency held by the public, demand deposits with the banking system, and 'other' deposits held with the Reserve Bank of India. Statement 2 is incorrect because M1 represents the most liquid but narrowest measure of money supply, whereas M3 (broad money), which adds time deposits of the public with banks to M1, is a far broader measure in scope.

Question 72History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

With reference to social sector programmes in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act guarantees 100 days of wage employment per rural household in a year. 2. The National Rural Health Mission was launched in 2005. 3. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan aims at the universalisation of elementary education. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में सामाजिक क्षेत्र के कार्यक्रमों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. महात्मा गांधी राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण रोजगार गारंटी अधिनियम प्रति ग्रामीण परिवार को एक वर्ष में 100 दिनों के मजदूरी रोजगार की गारंटी देता है। 2. राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण स्वास्थ्य मिशन 2005 में शुरू किया गया था। 3. सर्व शिक्षा अभियान का उद्देश्य प्रारंभिक शिक्षा का सार्वभौमिकरण करना है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee for 100 days of wage employment per rural household in every financial year. The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in April 2005 to provide accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare to rural populations, and Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) was launched as a flagship programme to achieve universal elementary education mandated under Article 21A.

Question 73History & Art/Culture (इतिहास एवं कला-संस्कृति)
Answer Key

Which Mughal ruler patronaged Kavindra Acharya Saraswati of Banaras, a great scholar of Sanskrit and Hindi?

बनारस के संस्कृत और हिंदी के महान विद्वान कवींद्राचार्य सरस्वती को किस मुगल शासक ने संरक्षण प्रदान किया था?

A
Shahjahan
Shahjahan
Correct Option
B
Jahangir
Jahangir
C
Akbar
Akbar
D
Humayun
Humayun
Explanation:

Patronage of Kavindra Acharya Saraswati of Banaras:

  • Kavindra Acharya Saraswati was a celebrated Sanskrit poet, Vedic polymath, and Hindi scholar who resided at Kashi (Banaras), Uttar Pradesh during the 17th century.
  • He was deeply patronized by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan (and his eldest son, Prince Dara Shikoh, who studied Sanskrit philosophy with him).
  • Kavindra Acharya led a delegation of Banaras scholars to the imperial Mughal court in Agra. Through his brilliant oratory and philosophical discourse, he deeply moved Emperor Shah Jahan, successfully persuading him to abolish the pilgrim tax (Jizya / Pilgrimage Tax) levied on Hindu pilgrims visiting Prayagraj (Allahabad) and Kashi (Banaras).
  • In commemoration of this historic victory, the scholars and citizens of Banaras assembled and conferred upon him the unique title 'Sarvavidyanidhana' (Ocean of all learning).

Therefore, the Mughal ruler who patronized him was Shah Jahan (Option A).

Question 74Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to biodiversity hotspots, consider the following statements: 1. India has four biodiversity hotspots, including the Himalaya and the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka. 2. To qualify as a hotspot, a region must contain at least 1,500 species of endemic vascular plants and must have lost at least 70 per cent of its original habitat. 3. The Eastern Ghats constitute a recognised biodiversity hotspot. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत में चार जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट हैं, जिनमें हिमालय तथा पश्चिमी घाट और श्रीलंका शामिल हैं। 2. हॉटस्पॉट के रूप में अर्हता प्राप्त करने के लिए किसी क्षेत्र में कम से कम 1,500 स्थानिक संवहनी पौधे होने चाहिए और उसने अपने मूल पर्यावास का कम से कम 70 प्रतिशत भाग खो दिया हो। 3. पूर्वी घाट एक मान्यता प्राप्त जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. India shares territory with four global hotspots (Himalaya, Western Ghats-Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma, and Sundaland), and under Norman Myers' criteria adopted by Conservation International, a region must support at least 1,500 endemic vascular plant species and have suffered habitat destruction of at least 70% of its primary vegetation. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Eastern Ghats are an ecologically rich fragmented hill range but do not meet the criteria to be designated as an independent global biodiversity hotspot.

Question 75Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to tiger conservation in India, consider the following statements: 1. Project Tiger was launched in 1973. 2. The tiger is classified as 'Critically Endangered' on the IUCN Red List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में बाघ संरक्षण के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. प्रोजेक्ट टाइगर की शुरुआत 1973 में की गई थी। 2. बाघ को आईयूसीएन (IUCN) की रेड लिस्ट में 'घोर संकटग्रस्त' (क्रिटिकली एनडेंजर्ड) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India on 1 April 1973 from Jim Corbett National Park to secure viable populations of the Bengal tiger. Statement 2 is incorrect because the tiger (Panthera tigris) is categorized as 'Endangered' on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, not 'Critically Endangered'.

Question 76Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to international environmental agreements, consider the following statements: 1. The UNFCCC was adopted at the Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro in 1992. 2. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in 1997 and entered into force in 2005. 3. The Montreal Protocol deals with substances that deplete the ozone layer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

अंतरराष्ट्रीय पर्यावरण समझौतों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. UNFCCC को 1992 में रियो डी जनेरियो में आयोजित पृथ्वी शिखर सम्मेलन में अपनाया गया था। 2. क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल 1997 में अपनाया गया और 2005 में लागू हुआ। 3. मॉन्ट्रियल प्रोटोकॉल ओजोन परत को नुकसान पहुंचाने वाले पदार्थों से संबंधित है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in December 1997 to establish legally binding greenhouse gas emission reduction targets for Annex I countries and came into force in February 2005, and the 1987 Montreal Protocol specifically targets the phase-out of ozone-depleting chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.

Question 77Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements: 1. It relates to the conservation of wetlands of international importance. 2. Chilika Lake and Keoladeo National Park are Ramsar sites in India. 3. Its headquarters is located in New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

रामसर अभिसमय के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह अंतरराष्ट्रीय महत्व के आर्द्रभूमियों (वेटलैंड्स) के संरक्षण से संबंधित है। 2. चिल्का झील और केवलादेव राष्ट्रीय उद्यान भारत में रामसर स्थल हैं। 3. इसका मुख्यालय नई दिल्ली में स्थित है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Ramsar Convention was signed in Ramsar, Iran in 1971 to promote the conservation and wise use of wetlands, and Chilika Lake in Odisha along with Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan became India's first two designated Ramsar sites in 1981. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Ramsar Convention Secretariat is located in Gland, Switzerland, alongside the IUCN headquarters, not in New Delhi.

Question 78General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

With reference to environmental pollution, consider the following statements: 1. Photochemical smog is formed by the action of sunlight on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons. 2. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of organic pollution in water. 3. Minamata disease is caused by cadmium poisoning. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

पर्यावरणीय प्रदूषण के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. प्रकाश-रासायनिक धूम-कोहरा नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइडों और हाइड्रोकार्बन पर सूर्य के प्रकाश की क्रिया से बनता है। 2. बायोकेमिकल ऑक्सीजन डिमांड (BOD) जल में कार्बनिक प्रदूषण का एक माप है। 3. मीनामाता रोग कैडमियम विषाक्तता के कारण होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Photochemical smog is a secondary oxidizing smog produced when ultraviolet sunlight triggers photochemical reactions between primary pollutants (nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds), and Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) quantifies the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by aerobic microorganisms decomposing organic matter in water. Statement 3 is incorrect because Minamata disease is a severe neurological syndrome caused by methylmercury poisoning; cadmium poisoning causes Itai-itai disease.

Question 79Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to ecosystems, consider the following statements: 1. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional. 2. About 90 per cent of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

पारिस्थितिक तंत्र के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. एक पारिस्थितिक तंत्र में ऊर्जा का प्रवाह एकदिशीय होता है। 2. लगभग 90 प्रतिशत ऊर्जा एक पोषण स्तर से अगले पोषण स्तर में स्थानांतरित होती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because energy in an ecosystem flows strictly in one direction from solar radiation to primary producers and successively through higher trophic levels without recycling back. Statement 2 is incorrect because according to Lindeman's 10% law of ecological efficiency, only approximately 10% of the energy is transferred and stored at the next trophic level, while roughly 90% is dissipated as metabolic heat and respiration.

Question 80Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to mangroves, consider the following statements: 1. They act as buffers against cyclones and storm surges. 2. The Sundarbans constitute the largest mangrove forest in the world. 3. They tolerate saline conditions through adaptations such as pneumatophores. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

मैंग्रोव के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. ये चक्रवात और तूफानी लहरों के विरुद्ध प्राकृतिक अवरोधक के रूप में कार्य करते हैं। 2. सुंदरबन विश्व का सबसे बड़ा मैंग्रोव वन है। 3. ये न्यूमेटोफोर (श्वसन-मूल) जैसे अनुकूलनों के माध्यम से लवणीय परिस्थितियों को सहन करते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Mangrove forests absorb wave energy and stabilize intertidal shorelines, acting as living barriers against tropical cyclones, tsunamis, and storm surges. The Sundarbans delta spanning India and Bangladesh is the world's largest contiguous tidal halophytic mangrove ecosystem, exhibiting evolutionary adaptations such as salt-filtering roots and specialized aerial breathing roots (pneumatophores).

Question 81Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to environmental legislation in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974. 2. The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in 1986. 3. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in 1982. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में पर्यावरण विधान के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जल (प्रदूषण निवारण एवं नियंत्रण) अधिनियम 1974 में अधिनियमित किया गया था। 2. पर्यावरण (संरक्षण) अधिनियम 1986 में अधिनियमित किया गया था। 3. वन्यजीव (संरक्षण) अधिनियम 1982 में अधिनियमित किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Parliament enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in 1974, which established the Central and State Pollution Control Boards, and the umbrella Environment (Protection) Act was passed in 1986 in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas tragedy under Article 253. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in 1972, not 1982, to provide legal protection to wild animals, birds, and plants.

Question 82Geography & Environment (भूगोल एवं पर्यावरण)
Answer Key

With reference to endangered species in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Gangetic dolphin is the national aquatic animal of India. 2. The Great Indian Bustard is classified as critically endangered. 3. The Gangetic dolphin is found only in the main channel of the Ganga river. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में संकटग्रस्त प्रजातियों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. गंगा डॉल्फिन भारत का राष्ट्रीय जलीय जीव है। 2. ग्रेट इंडियन बस्टर्ड को 'घोर संकटग्रस्त' (क्रिटिकली एनडेंजर्ड) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है। 3. गंगा डॉल्फिन केवल गंगा नदी की मुख्य धारा में ही पाई जाती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Government of India designated the Gangetic dolphin (Platanista gangetica) as the National Aquatic Animal in 2009, and the Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) is classified as 'Critically Endangered' on the IUCN Red List due to severe habitat loss. Statement 3 is incorrect because the South Asian river dolphin inhabits not only the main Ganga river but also its extensive river systems including the Brahmaputra, Meghna, and Karnaphuli river basins across India, Bangladesh, and Nepal.

Question 83General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to basic concepts of physics, consider the following statements: 1. The SI unit of force is the newton. 2. Sound can travel through a vacuum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भौतिकी की मूल अवधारणाओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. बल का SI मात्रक न्यूटन है। 2. ध्वनि निर्वात में गमन कर सकती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because under the International System of Units (SI), force is measured in newtons (N), defined as the force required to accelerate one kilogram of mass at one metre per second squared. Statement 2 is incorrect because sound is a mechanical wave requiring a material medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to transmit molecular vibrations and cannot propagate through a vacuum.

Question 84General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

With reference to acids, bases and salts, consider the following statements: 1. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is 7. 2. Acids turn blue litmus paper red. 3. Baking soda is chemically sodium carbonate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

अम्ल, क्षार और लवण के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 25°C पर एक उदासीन विलयन का pH मान 7 होता है। 2. अम्ल नीले लिटमस पत्र को लाल कर देते हैं। 3. बेकिंग सोडा रासायनिक रूप से सोडियम कार्बोनेट है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. On the Sorenson pH scale at standard temperature (25°C), pure neutral water has a pH of exactly 7, and acidic solutions (pH < 7) donate hydronium ions that turn blue litmus paper red. Statement 3 is incorrect because baking soda is sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3), whereas sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is washing soda.

Question 85General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

With reference to vitamins, consider the following statements: 1. Deficiency of Vitamin C causes scurvy. 2. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes rickets. 3. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

विटामिनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. विटामिन C की कमी से स्कर्वी रोग होता है। 2. विटामिन D की कमी से रिकेट्स (सूखा रोग) होता है। 3. विटामिन A की कमी से रतौंधी होती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency disrupts collagen synthesis, resulting in spongy bleeding gums and scurvy. Vitamin D deficiency prevents adequate intestinal mineralization of calcium and phosphorus, leading to rickets in growing children, and Vitamin A (retinol) deficiency impairs rhodopsin photopigment regeneration in the retina, producing night blindness (nyctalopia).

Question 86General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

With reference to human physiology, consider the following statements: 1. Insulin is secreted by the pancreas and regulates blood sugar levels. 2. The normal human body temperature is about 37°C. 3. In adults, red blood cells are produced in the liver. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

मानव शरीर क्रिया विज्ञान के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इंसुलिन अग्न्याशय द्वारा स्रावित होता है और रक्त शर्करा के स्तर को नियंत्रित करता है। 2. सामान्य मानव शरीर का तापमान लगभग 37°C होता है। 3. वयस्कों में लाल रक्त कोशिकाएं (RBC) यकृत में बनती हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Insulin is a peptide hormone synthesized by beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas that facilitates cellular uptake of glucose, keeping blood sugar within normal limits, and standard human core body temperature is approximately 37°C (98.6°F). Statement 3 is incorrect because in adult humans, erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) takes place primarily in the red bone marrow of flat and long bones, whereas the liver functions as a hematopoietic organ only during early fetal development.

Question 87General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

With reference to India's space programme, consider the following statements: 1. Aryabhata, India's first satellite, was launched in 1975. 2. Aryabhata was launched using India's own SLV-3 launch vehicle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत के अंतरिक्ष कार्यक्रम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत का पहला उपग्रह 'आर्यभट्ट' 1975 में प्रक्षेपित किया गया था। 2. आर्यभट्ट को भारत के अपने प्रक्षेपण यान SLV-3 का उपयोग करके प्रक्षेपित किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because Aryabhata, India's pioneer indigenously designed satellite, was launched successfully on 19 April 1975. Statement 2 is incorrect because Aryabhata was launched aboard a Soviet Kosmos-3M launch vehicle from Kapustin Yar under an agreement with the Soviet Academy of Sciences; India's first indigenous satellite launch vehicle, SLV-3, successfully launched the Rohini satellite only in July 1980 under project director Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam.

Question 88General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to nuclear science, consider the following statements: 1. Nuclear fission involves the splitting of a heavy atomic nucleus. 2. The Sun derives its energy from nuclear fusion. 3. Apsara was India's first nuclear power plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

परमाणु विज्ञान के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. नाभिकीय विखंडन में एक भारी परमाणु नाभिक का विभाजन शामिल है। 2. सूर्य अपनी ऊर्जा नाभिकीय संलयन से प्राप्त करता है। 3. अप्सरा भारत का पहला परमाणु ऊर्जा संयंत्र (विद्युत गृह) था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Nuclear fission occurs when an unstable heavy atomic nucleus (such as Uranium-235) fragments into lighter nuclei releasing massive binding energy, and the Sun produces continuous radiant energy through thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen isotopes into helium in its core. Statement 3 is incorrect because Apsara, commissioned at Trombay in August 1956, was India's and Asia's first swimming pool-type nuclear research reactor; India's first commercial nuclear power plant was the Tarapur Atomic Power Station (commissioned 1969).

Question 89General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

With reference to biotechnology, consider the following statements: 1. The double helix structure of DNA was proposed by Watson and Crick. 2. Bt cotton is a genetically modified crop resistant to bollworm. 3. Bt brinjal was approved for commercial cultivation in India in 2010. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

जैव प्रौद्योगिकी के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. डीएनए की द्विकुंडलिनी (डबल हेलिक्स) संरचना वाटसन और क्रिक द्वारा प्रस्तावित की गई थी। 2. बीटी कपास बॉलवर्म के प्रति प्रतिरोधी एक आनुवंशिक रूप से संशोधित फसल है। 3. बीटी बैंगन को 2010 में भारत में व्यावसायिक खेती के लिए मंजूरी दी गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. James Watson and Francis Crick elucidated the double helical molecular structure of DNA in 1953, and Bt cotton incorporates Cry endotoxin genes from Bacillus thuringiensis to provide transgenic insecticidal resistance against cotton bollworms. Statement 3 is incorrect because although the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) recommended commercial release of Bt brinjal in 2009, the Union Environment Ministry imposed an indefinite moratorium on its commercial cultivation in February 2010.

Question 90General Science & Tech (सामान्य विज्ञान व तकनीक)
Answer Key

With reference to diseases, consider the following statements: 1. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium and transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito. 2. Dengue is a viral disease spread by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. 3. Tuberculosis is caused by a bacterium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

रोगों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. मलेरिया प्लाज्मोडियम के कारण होता है और मादा एनोफिलीज़ मच्छर द्वारा फैलता है। 2. डेंगू एडीज एजिप्टी मच्छर द्वारा फैलने वाला एक विषाणुजनित रोग है। 3. तपेदिक (टीबी) एक जीवाणु के कारण होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium and is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Dengue is an acute febrile infection caused by dengue flavivirus transmitted principally by the day-biting Aedes aegypti mosquito, and tuberculosis is an airborne bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Question 91General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to properties of materials, consider the following statements: 1. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity. 2. Diamond conducts electricity better than copper. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

पदार्थों के गुणों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. ग्रेफाइट विद्युत का एक अच्छा सुचालक है। 2. हीरा तांबे की तुलना में विद्युत का बेहतर चालन करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because graphite crystallizes in planar hexagonal sheets where each carbon atom is bonded to three others, leaving one delocalized valence electron per atom that moves freely to conduct electric current. Statement 2 is incorrect because diamond has a rigid three-dimensional tetrahedral lattice where all four valence electrons are tightly locked in covalent bonds, making diamond an electrical insulator, in contrast to copper which is an excellent metallic conductor.

Question 92Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to the Rio+20 Conference, consider the following statements: 1. It was held in June 2012 at Rio de Janeiro, marking twenty years since the 1992 Earth Summit. 2. Its outcome document was titled 'The Future We Want'. 3. Its themes included a green economy in the context of sustainable development and poverty eradication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

रियो+20 सम्मेलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह जून 2012 में रियो डी जनेरियो में आयोजित किया गया था, जो 1992 के पृथ्वी शिखर सम्मेलन के बीस वर्ष पूरे होने का प्रतीक था। 2. इसके परिणामी दस्तावेज का शीर्षक 'द फ्यूचर वी वांट' था। 3. इसके विषयों में सतत विकास और गरीबी उन्मूलन के संदर्भ में एक हरित अर्थव्यवस्था शामिल थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 2012, commemorating the 20th anniversary of the landmark 1992 Earth Summit. Member states unanimously endorsed the outcome declaration titled 'The Future We Want', focusing centrally on two themes: a green economy within the framework of sustainable development and poverty eradication, and the institutional framework for sustainable development.

Question 93Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

With reference to the 2012 London Olympics, consider the following statements: 1. London became the first city to host the modern Olympic Games three times. 2. India won six medals at London 2012, its best Olympic performance at that time. 3. Sushil Kumar won the gold medal in wrestling. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2012 के लंदन ओलंपिक के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. लंदन आधुनिक ओलंपिक खेलों की तीन बार मेजबानी करने वाला पहला शहर बना। 2. भारत ने लंदन 2012 में छह पदक जीते, जो उस समय ओलंपिक में उसका सर्वश्रेष्ठ प्रदर्शन था। 3. सुशील कुमार ने कुश्ती में स्वर्ण पदक जीता। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. By staging the Games in 1908, 1948, and 2012, London became the first city in modern Olympic history to host the Summer Olympiad three times, and India achieved an unprecedented haul of six medals (two silver and four bronze). Statement 3 is incorrect because Sushil Kumar captured the silver medal in the men's 66 kg freestyle wrestling, becoming India's first individual multi-medallist after his 2008 Beijing bronze, but did not win gold.

Question 94Indian Economy (भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था)
Answer Key

With reference to foreign direct investment (FDI) in retail in India, consider the following statements: 1. In 2012, the Government of India permitted 51 per cent FDI in multi-brand retail. 2. The 2012 policy made it compulsory for every State to allow FDI in multi-brand retail. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

भारत में खुदरा क्षेत्र में प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश (FDI) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 2012 में भारत सरकार ने मल्टी-ब्रांड खुदरा क्षेत्र में 51 प्रतिशत FDI की अनुमति दी थी। 2. 2012 की नीति ने प्रत्येक राज्य के लिए मल्टी-ब्रांड रिटेल में FDI की अनुमति देना अनिवार्य बना दिया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because the Union Cabinet in September 2012 approved up to 51% Foreign Direct Investment in multi-brand retail trading under the government approval route, accompanied by conditions on minimum capitalization and domestic sourcing from micro, small, and medium enterprises. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy was deliberately structured as an enabling legislation, granting State Governments full autonomy to decide whether to permit or prohibit multi-brand retail stores within their boundaries.

Question 95Current Affairs (समसामयिकी घटनाक्रम)
Answer Key

With reference to the BRICS Summit of 2012, consider the following statements: 1. The Fourth BRICS Summit was held in New Delhi in March 2012. 2. The theme of the summit was 'BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Security and Prosperity'. 3. The BRICS Development Bank was formally established at this summit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2012 के ब्रिक्स शिखर सम्मेलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. चौथा ब्रिक्स शिखर सम्मेलन मार्च 2012 में नई दिल्ली में आयोजित किया गया था। 2. इस शिखर सम्मेलन का विषय 'वैश्विक स्थिरता, सुरक्षा और समृद्धि के लिए ब्रिक्स साझेदारी' था। 3. इस शिखर सम्मेलन में ब्रिक्स विकास बैंक की औपचारिक रूप से स्थापना की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. India hosted the Fourth BRICS Summit on 29 March 2012 at New Delhi under the overarching theme 'BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Security and Prosperity'. Statement 3 is incorrect because while leaders discussed the feasibility of setting up a new development bank at the Delhi summit, the New Development Bank (NDB) was formally established only in July 2014 at the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil.

Question 96Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the Indian presidential election of 2012, consider the following statements: 1. Pranab Mukherjee was elected the 13th President of India. 2. He defeated P. A. Sangma in the election. 3. He assumed office as the 14th President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2012 के भारतीय राष्ट्रपति चुनाव के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. प्रणब मुखर्जी भारत के 13वें राष्ट्रपति चुने गए थे। 2. उन्होंने चुनाव में पी. ए. संगमा को पराजित किया था। 3. उन्होंने भारत के 14वें राष्ट्रपति के रूप में पदभार ग्रहण किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In the 14th presidential election held in July 2012, veteran leader Pranab Mukherjee secured 713,763 electoral college votes to defeat opposition nominee P. A. Sangma. Statement 3 is incorrect because Pranab Mukherjee served as the 13th President of the Republic of India (holding office from 25 July 2012 to 25 July 2017), succeeding Pratibha Patil who was the 12th President; Ram Nath Kovind later became the 14th President.

Question 97General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to the discovery of the Higgs boson, consider the following statements: 1. In July 2012, CERN announced the discovery of a new particle consistent with the Higgs boson. 2. The discovery was made at the Fermilab Tevatron in the United States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

हिग्स बोसॉन की खोज के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जुलाई 2012 में सर्न (CERN) ने हिग्स बोसॉन से सुसंगत एक नए कण की खोज की घोषणा की। 2. यह खोज संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका में फर्मीलैब टेवाट्रॉन में की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
Correct Option
B
2 only
केवल 2
C
Both 1 and 2
1 और 2 दोनों
D
Neither 1 nor 2
न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because on 4 July 2012, physicists at the European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN) announced the discovery of a new subatomic particle consistent with the long-sought Higgs boson (scalar boson providing mass to elementary particles) via the ATLAS and CMS experiments. Statement 2 is incorrect because the historic discovery was achieved at CERN's Large Hadron Collider (LHC) situated along the Franco-Swiss border near Geneva, Switzerland, not at the Tevatron particle accelerator in the United States.

Question 98General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to the Curiosity rover, consider the following statements: 1. It was launched by NASA and landed on Mars in August 2012. 2. It landed in the Gale Crater. 3. Its mission objectives include assessing the habitability of Mars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

क्यूरियोसिटी रोवर के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसे नासा (NASA) द्वारा प्रक्षेपित किया गया था और यह अगस्त 2012 में मंगल ग्रह पर उतरा था। 2. यह गेल क्रेटर में उतरा था। 3. इसके मिशन उद्देश्यों में मंगल ग्रह की जीवन अनुकूलता का आकलन करना शामिल है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 3 only
केवल 1 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Correct Option
Explanation:

All three statements are correct. NASA's Mars Science Laboratory mission deployed the car-sized Curiosity rover, which successfully completed a soft touchdown inside Mars' Gale Crater on 6 August 2012 using a rocket-powered sky crane. Its primary scientific mandate is to analyze Martian geology, radiation, and past environmental conditions to determine whether Mars could ever have supported microbial life.

Question 99Polity & Governance (राजव्यवस्था एवं संविधान)
Answer Key

With reference to the coal block allocation controversy of 2012, consider the following statements: 1. A report of the Comptroller and Auditor General on coal block allocations was tabled in 2012. 2. The report estimated notional gains to private parties arising from allocation without competitive bidding. 3. The coal blocks in question had been allocated through an open auction process. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2012 के कोयला ब्लॉक आवंटन विवाद के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कोयला ब्लॉक आवंटन पर नियंत्रक और महालेखापरीक्षक (CAG) की रिपोर्ट 2012 में पेश की गई थी। 2. रिपोर्ट में प्रतिस्पर्धी बोली के बिना आवंटन से निजी पक्षों को होने वाले अनुमानित लाभ का आकलन किया गया था। 3. संबंधित कोयला ब्लॉकों का आवंटन खुली नीलामी प्रक्रिया के माध्यम से किया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
C
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In August 2012, the CAG tabled a performance audit report in Parliament estimating that private commercial allottees secured notional windfalls of Rs 1.86 lakh crore from non-competitive allotment of captive coal blocks between 2004 and 2009. Statement 3 is incorrect because the controversy centered precisely on the fact that blocks were distributed through a discretionary administrative screening committee mechanism rather than transparent competitive market bidding (leading the Supreme Court in 2014 to cancel 214 coal block allocations).

Question 100General Studies & Misc (सामान्य अध्ययन)
Answer Key

With reference to the events following the Delhi gang-rape incident of December 2012, consider the following statements: 1. The incident led to widespread protests across the country demanding stronger laws against sexual violence. 2. The Justice J. S. Verma Committee was constituted to recommend amendments to criminal law. 3. The Justice Verma Committee recommended the death penalty for all cases of rape. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

दिसंबर 2012 की दिल्ली सामूहिक बलात्कार की घटना के बाद के घटनाक्रमों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इस घटना के कारण यौन हिंसा के खिलाफ कड़े कानूनों की मांग को लेकर देश भर में व्यापक विरोध प्रदर्शन हुए। 2. आपराधिक कानून में संशोधनों की सिफारिश करने के लिए न्यायमूर्ति जे. एस. वर्मा समिति का गठन किया गया था। 3. न्यायमूर्ति वर्मा समिति ने बलात्कार के सभी मामलों के लिए मृत्युदंड की सिफारिश की थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

A
1 only
केवल 1
B
1 and 2 only
केवल 1 और 2
Correct Option
C
2 and 3 only
केवल 2 और 3
D
1, 2 and 3
1, 2 और 3
Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The tragic Delhi incident of December 2012 provoked historic civic protests across India, prompting the central government to appoint a three-member judicial committee headed by former Chief Justice of India J. S. Verma on 23 December 2012 to suggest radical reforms to criminal laws dealing with sexual assault. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Justice Verma Committee explicitly declined to recommend the death penalty for rape, arguing that capital punishment lacks deterrence and recommending instead rigorous imprisonment for the remainder of natural life.

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