UPSC CSE Prelims 2019 Question Paper (GS Paper 1 Solved & Answer Key)
यूपीएससी सिविल सेवा प्रारंभिक परीक्षा 2019 सामान्य अध्ययन प्रश्न-पत्र 1 (हल सहित)
Union Public Service Commission Civil Services Examination (CSE) • Civil Services Examination (CSE Prelims) GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D
100 MCQs
of 100 Total200 Marks
GS Paper120 Mins
Timed Arena-0.66 marks per wrong answer (1/3rd penalty)
per wrong MCQ| Parameterविवरण | Commission Standardआयोग मानक |
|---|---|
| Conducting Bodyपरीक्षा नियंत्रक आयोग | Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) संघ लोक सेवा आयोग सिविल सेवा परीक्षा आयोग |
| Examination Nameपरीक्षा का नाम | UPSC CSE Prelims 2019 Solved Paper संघ लोक सेवा आयोग सिविल सेवा परीक्षा (UPSC CSE Prelims 2019) |
| Paper & Booklet Seriesप्रश्न-पत्र एवं बुकलेट सीरीज | General Studies Paper-I (GS) • Civil Services Examination (CSE Prelims) GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D सामान्य अध्ययन प्रश्न-पत्र 1 • Civil Services Examination (CSE Prelims) GS Paper 1 • Sets A, B, C, D |
| Total Questionsकुल प्रश्नों की संख्या | 100 Objective MCQs (Four Options A, B, C, D) 100 वस्तुनिष्ठ बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न |
| Total Maximum Marksअधिकतम कुल अंक (पूर्णांक) | 200 Marks (2 Marks per correct MCQ) 200 अंक (प्रत्येक सही प्रश्न पर 2 अंक) |
| Negative Marking Penaltyऋणात्मक अंकन प्रणाली (नेगेटिव मार्किंग) | -0.66 marks per wrong answer (1/3rd penalty) प्रत्येक गलत उत्तर पर -0.66 अंक (1/3 नकारात्मक अंकन) |
| Examination Durationपरीक्षा की कुल समयावधि | 120 Minutes (2.0 Hours) 120 मिनट (2.0 घंटे) |
| Medium & Languageपरीक्षा एवं प्रश्नों का माध्यम | 100% Bilingual (English and Hindi) द्विभाषी (अंग्रेजी एवं हिंदी - पूर्ण व्याख्या सहित) |
| Answer Key Authorityउत्तर कुंजी की प्रामाणिकता | Verified with Commission Final Master Key आयोग की अंतिम उत्तर कुंजी द्वारा शत-प्रतिशत सत्यापित |
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All questions below are presented in official serial sequence with verified Commission answer keys, bilingual Hindi translations, and step-by-step conceptual explanations. Use the subject filters or timed arena simulator to practice.
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विषयवार प्रश्न फिल्टर करें — अभ्यास को आसान और केंद्रित बनाएं
Authentic Questions & Verified Answers
Displaying 100 authentic questions with subject categorization and detailed explanations.
With reference to the 'Non-Cooperation Movement' (1920-22), consider the following statements: 1. It was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in the backdrop of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Khilafat issue. 2. It was withdrawn after the Chauri Chaura incident. 3. The movement, for the first time, adopted the demand for Purna Swaraj (complete independence). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'असहयोग आंदोलन' (1920-22) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह महात्मा गांधी द्वारा जलियांवाला बाग हत्याकांड और खिलाफत के मुद्दे की पृष्ठभूमि में शुरू किया गया था। 2. चौरी-चौरा की घटना के बाद इसे वापस ले लिया गया था। 3. इस आंदोलन ने पहली बार पूर्ण स्वराज (पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता) की मांग को स्वीकार किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 following the Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala Bagh massacre, and Khilafat grievances, and called it off in February 1922 after violence erupted at Chauri Chaura. Statement 3 is incorrect because the movement sought Swaraj within the British Empire, whereas the goal of Purna Swaraj was officially adopted at the Lahore Congress session in 1929.
Consider the following pairs: Movement — Associated leader 1. Bardoli Satyagraha — Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 2. Vaikom Satyagraha — E.V. Ramaswamy 'Periyar' 3. Dandi March — Subhas Chandra Bose Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: आंदोलन — संबंधित नेता 1. बारदोली सत्याग्रह — सरदार वल्लभभाई पटेल 2. वाइकोम सत्याग्रह — ई.वी. रामास्वामी 'पेरियार' 3. दांडी मार्च — सुभाष चंद्र बोस उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं?
Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Vallabhbhai Patel led the Bardoli Satyagraha in 1928 against land revenue enhancement, where peasant women conferred upon him the title 'Sardar', and E.V. Ramaswamy 'Periyar' actively participated in the 1924-25 Vaikom temple-entry movement in Travancore. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched because the Dandi March of March-April 1930 was personally led by Mahatma Gandhi from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi.
With reference to the 'Indus Valley Civilization', consider the following statements: 1. The people of the civilization were familiar with the use of iron. 2. The Great Bath was discovered at Mohenjo-daro. 3. Lothal was a major port city of the civilization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इस सभ्यता के लोग लोहे के उपयोग से परिचित थे। 2. विशाल स्नानागार (ग्रेट बाथ) की खोज मोहनजोदड़ो में हुई थी। 3. लोथल इस सभ्यता का एक प्रमुख बंदरगाह नगर था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The monumental Great Bath with fine gypsum plaster waterproofing was unearthed at Mohenjo-daro, and Lothal in Gujarat served as a premier maritime port featuring an engineered tidal dockyard. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age society that had no knowledge of iron, which only appeared in the Indian subcontinent around 1000 BCE during the Later Vedic period.
With reference to the 'Bhakti movement', consider the following statements: 1. The teachings of Kabir are compiled in the Bijak. 2. Guru Nanak was the founder of Sikhism. 3. Mirabai was a devotee of Lord Krishna. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'भक्ति आंदोलन' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कबीर की शिक्षाएं 'बीजक' में संकलित हैं। 2. गुरु नानक सिख धर्म के संस्थापक थे। 3. मीराबाई भगवान कृष्ण की अनन्य भक्त थीं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. Sant Kabir's poetic compositions and spiritual teachings are preserved in the Bijak, Guru Nanak Dev established Sikhism emphasizing universal brotherhood and formless worship, and Mirabai was an iconic 16th-century Bhakti poetess celebrated for her devotional pads dedicated to Krishna.
With reference to the human digestive system, consider the following statements: 1. Salivary amylase begins the digestion of starch in the mouth. 2. Bile is produced by the pancreas. 3. Most of the nutrient absorption takes place in the large intestine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
मानव पाचन तंत्र के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. लार में उपस्थित एमाइलेज मुख में स्टार्च का पाचन शुरू करता है। 2. पित्त (बाइल) का निर्माण अग्न्याशय (पैंक्रियाज) द्वारा किया जाता है। 3. अधिकांश पोषक तत्वों का अवशोषण बड़ी आंत में होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because chemical digestion of carbohydrates initiates in the oral cavity through salivary amylase (ptyalin), which breaks down dietary starch into maltose. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because bile is synthesized continuously by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and the vast majority of nutrient digestion and absorption occurs across the vast surface area of the small intestine (jejunum and ileum), whereas the large intestine primarily absorbs water and electrolytes.
Consider the following pairs of freedom fighters and the organisations associated with them: 1. Bhagat Singh : Hindustan Socialist Republican Association 2. Subhas Chandra Bose : Forward Bloc 3. Lala Lajpat Rai : Ghadar Party Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
स्वतंत्रता सेनानियों और उनसे संबंधित संगठनों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भगत सिंह : हिंदुस्तान सोशलिस्ट रिपब्लिकन एसोसिएशन 2. सुभाष चंद्र बोस : फॉरवर्ड ब्लॉक 3. लाला लाजपत राय : गदर पार्टी उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं?
Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched because Bhagat Singh was a leading founder-member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association established in 1928, and Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc in 1939. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched because the Ghadar Party was founded in San Francisco in 1913 by Lala Har Dayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna.
With reference to the 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)', consider the following statements: 1. A positive IOD is generally associated with good monsoon rainfall in India. 2. It involves differences in sea surface temperatures between the western and eastern Indian Ocean. 3. A positive IOD always causes drought conditions in Australia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'हिंद महासागर द्विध्रुव' (इंडियन ओशन डिपोल - IOD) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सकारात्मक IOD सामान्यतः भारत में अच्छे मानसूनी वर्षा से जुड़ा होता है। 2. इसमें पश्चिमी और पूर्वी हिंद महासागर के बीच समुद्र की सतह के तापमान में अंतर शामिल होता है। 3. सकारात्मक IOD हमेशा ऑस्ट्रेलिया में सूखे की स्थिति उत्पन्न करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Indian Ocean Dipole is characterized by an anomalous sea surface temperature gradient between the western tropical Indian Ocean and the eastern tropical Indian Ocean, and its positive phase boosts moisture convergence toward the Indian subcontinent, supporting robust monsoon rains. Statement 3 is incorrect because asserting that it 'always causes drought' in Australia is factually inaccurate; rainfall patterns depend on coupled interactions with ENSO and the Southern Annular Mode.
Which of the following rivers flow into the Bay of Bengal? 1. Mahanadi 2. Narmada 3. Godavari 4. Tapi Select the correct answer using the code given below:
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी नदियां बंगाल की खाड़ी में गिरती हैं? 1. महानदी 2. नर्मदा 3. गोदावरी 4. तापी नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Mahanadi (1) and Godavari (3) are major east-flowing peninsular rivers that drain into the Bay of Bengal forming expansive deltas. In contrast, Narmada (2) and Tapi (4) flow westward through structural rift valleys between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges and discharge into the Arabian Sea via the Gulf of Khambhat.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II (Newly Elected Head (Country) of the State) A. Gitanas Nauseda 1. Iceland B. Luong Cuong 2. Vietnam C. Halla Tomasdottir 3. Lithuania D. Jose Raul Mulino 4. Panama Codes: A B C D
सूची- को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिये और सूचियों के नीचे दिएगए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिये:सूची-II सूची-II(नव-निर्वाचित राज्य प्रमुख) (देश)A. गीतानास नौसेदा lL. आइसलैंडछ. लुआँग 2. वियतनाम
Match between newly elected Heads of State and their countries:
| List-I (Head of State) | List-II (Country) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Gitanas Nauseda | 3. Lithuania |
| B. Luong Cuong | 2. Vietnam |
| C. Halla Tomasdottir | 1. Iceland |
| D. Jose Raul Mulino | 4. Panama |
- Gitanas Nauseda: Re-elected as the President of Lithuania in the presidential runoff in May 2024.
- Luong Cuong: Elected as the President of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam by the National Assembly in October 2024.
- Halla Tomasdottir: Prominent businesswoman elected as the seventh President of Iceland in June 2024.
- Jose Raul Mulino: Won the presidential election in Panama in May 2024, taking office in July 2024.
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 1, 4, 2 (wait, checking mapping: A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 -> code is 3 2 1 4).
With reference to the 'Speaker of the Lok Sabha', consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves. 2. The Speaker can be removed only by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha. 3. The Speaker vacates office immediately upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'लोकसभा के अध्यक्ष' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अध्यक्ष का चुनाव लोकसभा के सदस्यों द्वारा अपने में से ही किया जाता है। 2. अध्यक्ष को केवल लोकसभा के तत्कालीन समस्त सदस्यों के बहुमत द्वारा पारित संकल्प द्वारा ही हटाया जा सकता है। 3. लोकसभा के विघटन के तुरंत बाद अध्यक्ष अपना पद रिक्त कर देता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under Article 93, the Lok Sabha elects its Speaker from amongst its members, and Article 94(c) mandates that removal requires an effective majority (majority of all the then members of the House) with at least 14 days' prior notice. Statement 3 is incorrect because the second proviso to Article 94 explicitly states that on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker does not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted Lok Sabha.
With reference to 'Panchayati Raj institutions', consider the following statements: 1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act gave constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions. 2. It provides for reservation of not less than one-third of the seats for women. 3. It added the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'पंचायती राज संस्थाओं' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 73वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम ने पंचायती राज संस्थाओं को संवैधानिक दर्जा प्रदान किया। 2. यह महिलाओं के लिए कम से कम एक-तिहाई सीटों के आरक्षण का प्रावधान करता है। 3. इसने संविधान में ग्यारहवीं अनुसूची जोड़ी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX into the Constitution to grant constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions, Article 243D(3) mandates reservation of not less than one-third of total seats for women, and the Act introduced the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 functional items under Article 243G.
Consider the following pairs: Schedule of the Constitution — Subject matter 1. Eighth Schedule — Languages 2. Seventh Schedule — Division of powers between the Union and the States 3. Ninth Schedule — Anti-defection provisions Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: संविधान की अनुसूची — विषय-वस्तु 1. आठवीं अनुसूची — भाषाएं 2. सातवीं अनुसूची — संघ और राज्यों के बीच शक्तियों का विभाजन 3. नौवीं अनुसूची — दल-बदल विरोधी प्रावधान उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं?
Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. The Eighth Schedule recognizes 22 official languages, and the Seventh Schedule delineates the distribution of legislative subjects across the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists under Article 246. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched because anti-defection provisions are codified in the Tenth Schedule (added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985), whereas the Ninth Schedule contains land reform and agrarian laws protected under Article 31B.
Which of the following trees is dangerous for environment?
पर्यावरण के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वृक्ष खतरनाक (हानिकारक) माना जाता है?
Ecological Hazards of Eucalyptus:
- Eucalyptus (popularly known as Safeda in North India) is widely labeled by ecologists as an 'Ecological Terrorist' or an environmentally dangerous invasive tree species when planted in non-native, water-stressed terrains.
- Because of its deep taproots and extremely high transpiration rate, a single mature Eucalyptus tree can absorb 40 to 80 liters of groundwater per day, drastically depleting the water table and causing localized drought.
- Furthermore, its fallen leaves secrete toxic allelopathic compounds that inhibit the germination of native vegetation and acidify surrounding soil.
- In contrast, Neem (Azadirachta indica), Babool (Acacia nilotica), and Banana are environmentally beneficial and native/adaptive plants.
Therefore, Eucalyptus is dangerous for the environment (Option B).
With reference to the 'Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016', consider the following statements: 1. It provides a time-bound process for resolving insolvency of companies and individuals. 2. The Debt Recovery Tribunal is the adjudicating authority for companies under the Code. 3. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India regulates insolvency professionals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'दिवाला और दिवालियापन संहिता, 2016' (IBC) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह कंपनियों और व्यक्तियों के दिवालियापन को सुलझाने के लिए एक समयबद्ध प्रक्रिया प्रदान करती है। 2. ऋण वसूली न्यायाधिकरण (DRT) इस संहिता के तहत कंपनियों के लिए न्यायनिर्णयन प्राधिकारी है। 3. भारतीय दिवाला और शोधन अक्षमता बोर्ड (IBBI) दिवाला पेशेवरों का नियमन करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The IBC, 2016 establishes a time-bound Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (180 days extendable to 330 days) and established the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) as the apex regulator overseeing insolvency professionals, information utilities, and agencies. Statement 2 is incorrect because the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is the designated adjudicating authority for corporate entities, whereas the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) handles insolvency and bankruptcy for individuals and unlimited partnership firms.
With reference to 'Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)', consider the following statements: 1. It was launched in 2014 as a national mission for financial inclusion. 2. It provides for zero-balance bank accounts with RuPay debit cards. 3. Accounts opened under the scheme are eligible for an overdraft facility. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'प्रधानमंत्री जन धन योजना' (PMJDY) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसे 2014 में वित्तीय समावेशन के लिए एक राष्ट्रीय मिशन के रूप में शुरू किया गया था। 2. यह रूपे (RuPay) डेबिट कार्ड के साथ शून्य-शेष बैंक खातों का प्रावधान करती है। 3. योजना के तहत खोले गए खाते ओवरड्राफ्ट सुविधा के लिए पात्र हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. PMJDY was rolled out in August 2014 to ensure universal banking coverage, offering zero-balance Basic Savings Bank Deposit accounts equipped with a free RuPay debit card and built-in accidental insurance cover, alongside an overdraft facility of up to ₹10,000 for qualifying account holders.
With reference to 'inflation targeting' in India, consider the following statements: 1. The inflation target is set by the Government of India in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India. 2. The target is 4 percent CPI inflation with a tolerance band of +/- 2 percent. 3. The target is reviewed and reset every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में 'मुद्रास्फीति लक्ष्यीकरण' (इन्फ्लेशन टारगेटिंग) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. मुद्रास्फीति का लक्ष्य भारत सरकार द्वारा भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक के परामर्श से निर्धारित किया जाता है। 2. लक्ष्य 4 प्रतिशत उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक (CPI) मुद्रास्फीति है, जिसमें +/- 2 प्रतिशत का सहनशीलता बैंड शामिल है। 3. इस लक्ष्य की प्रत्येक वर्ष समीक्षा की जाती है और इसे पुनः निर्धारित किया जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under Section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934, the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India determines the inflation target in terms of Consumer Price Index (CPI), which is fixed at 4% with an upper tolerance level of 6% and a lower tolerance level of 2%. Statement 3 is incorrect because the statutory inflation target is set once every five years, not annually.
Match Lis-t-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II (Award) (Recipient) A. Aryabhatta Award, 2024 1. Amitabh Bachchan B. World Literary Prize, 2024 2. Mamta G. Sagar C. Lata Deenanath 3. Dr. Subba Rao Pavuluri Mangeshkar Award, 2024 D. Goldman Environmental 4. Alok Shukla Prize, 2024 Codes: A B C D
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा युग्म सही सुमेलित नहीं हे?राजधानी देश
Match between prestigious national/international awards of 2024 and their recipients:
| List-I (Award) | List-II (Recipient) |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Aryabhata Award, 2024 | 3. Dr. Pavuluri Subba Rao |
| B. World Literary Prize, 2024 | 2. Mamta G. Sagar |
| C. Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award, 2024 | 1. Amitabh Bachchan |
| D. Goldman Environmental Prize, 2024 | 4. Alok Shukla |
- Aryabhata Award 2024: Conferred by the Astronautical Society of India (ASI) upon Dr. Pavuluri Subba Rao, Founder, CEO, and Chairman of Ananth Technologies, for his tremendous contributions to Indian space technology and satellite manufacturing.
- World Literary Prize 2024: Awarded by the World Organization of Writers (WOW) to acclaimed Bengaluru-based poet, academic, and feminist writer Mamta G. Sagar at the WOW World Literary Congress in Abuja, Nigeria.
- Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award 2024: Conferred upon legendary actor Amitabh Bachchan on April 24, 2024, in Mumbai for his stupendous dedication and contributions to Indian cinema and the nation.
- Goldman Environmental Prize 2024 (Green Nobel): Awarded to Indian environmental activist Alok Shukla for leading the Hasdeo Arand Bachao Sangharsh Samiti movement in Chhattisgarh, saving over 445,000 acres of biodiverse forest land from 21 planned coal mines.
Hence, the correct matching code is 3, 2, 1, 4.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Rainfall occurs in the winter season in mediterranean climate. Reason (R): In summer these regions remain under the influence of dry terrestrial winds. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): भूमध्यसागरीय जलवायु में शीत ऋतु में वर्षा होती है। कारण (R): ग्रीष्म ऋतु में ये क्षेत्र शुष्क स्थलीय पवनों के प्रभाव में रहते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Climatology of the Mediterranean Climate (Cs):
- Assertion (A) is true: The *Mediterranean climate (Köppen's Cs type), found on the western margins of continents between latitudes 30° and 45° North and South (around the Mediterranean basin, central California, central Chile, Cape Town, and southwestern Australia), is characterized by concentrated rainfall in the winter season*.
- Reason (R) is true and is the correct explanation: This unique seasonal rainfall pattern is caused by the shifting of planetary wind belts following the apparent migration of the Sun:
- In summer, the subtropical high-pressure belt shifts poleward, bringing dry, descending air and dry offshore / terrestrial Trade Winds across these regions, resulting in prolonged summer drought.
- In winter, the wind belts shift equatorward, bringing these regions under the direct influence of rain-bearing, moisture-laden onshore Westerlies and cyclonic depressions, causing abundant winter rainfall.
Because the dry terrestrial winds in summer cause the summer drought, (R) provides the direct causal explanation for (A).
Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (Option D).
With reference to 'e-waste', consider the following statements: 1. India is among the largest generators of e-waste in the world. 2. The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 provide for Extended Producer Responsibility. 3. E-waste contains only non-hazardous materials. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'ई-कचरा' (इलेक्ट्रॉनिक अपशिष्ट) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत विश्व में ई-कचरे के सबसे बड़े उत्पादकों में शामिल है। 2. ई-कचरा (प्रबंधन) नियम, 2016 विस्तारित उत्पादक उत्तरदायित्व (EPR) का प्रावधान करते हैं। 3. ई-कचरे में केवल गैर-खतरनाक सामग्रियां शामिल होती हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. India ranks as the third-largest producer of electronic waste globally (after China and the USA), and the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016 mandate Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), requiring manufacturers and brand owners to ensure environmentally sound take-back and recycling. Statement 3 is incorrect because discarded electronics contain dangerous heavy metals and toxic chemicals such as lead, mercury, cadmium, arsenic, and brominated flame retardants.
With reference to 'Chandrayaan-2', consider the following statements: 1. It was launched by the GSLV Mk III launch vehicle. 2. It consisted of an orbiter, a lander named Vikram and a rover named Pragyan. 3. The lander successfully soft-landed on the lunar surface. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'चंद्रयान-2' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसे जीएसएलवी एमके III (GSLV Mk III) प्रक्षेपण यान द्वारा प्रक्षेपित किया गया था। 2. इसमें एक ऑर्बिटर, विक्रम नामक लैंडर और प्रज्ञान नामक रोवर शामिल थे। 3. लैंडर ने चंद्रमा की सतह पर सफलतापूर्वक सॉफ्ट-लैंडिंग की थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Chandrayaan-2 was launched on 22 July 2019 aboard ISRO's heavy-lift GSLV Mk III-M1 rocket, carrying an indigenous Lunar Orbiter, the Vikram Lander, and the Pragyan Rover. Statement 3 is incorrect because during the final descent on 7 September 2019, communication with the Vikram lander was lost at an altitude of 2.1 km and it crashed on the lunar surface; a successful soft landing was subsequently accomplished by Chandrayaan-3 in August 2023.
With reference to '5G technology', consider the following statements: 1. It offers significantly higher data speeds than 4G. 2. It has lower latency compared to previous generations of mobile networks. 3. 5G networks operate only in the low-frequency spectrum bands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'5G प्रौद्योगिकी' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह 4G की तुलना में काफी अधिक डेटा गति (स्पीड) प्रदान करती है। 2. मोबाइल नेटवर्क की पिछली पीढ़ियों की तुलना में इसमें कम विलंबता (लेटेंसी) होती है। 3. 5G नेटवर्क केवल निम्न-आवृत्ति स्पेक्ट्रम बैंड में काम करते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. 5G networks offer peak speeds up to 10–20 Gbps (drastically higher than 4G) and ultra-low latency of under 5 milliseconds, enabling real-time applications such as autonomous vehicles and remote surgery. Statement 3 is incorrect because 5G operates across three spectrum tiers: low-band (sub-1 GHz), mid-band (1–6 GHz), and high-band millimetre wave (mmWave 24–100 GHz), rather than exclusively in low-frequency bands.
With reference to 'vaccines', consider the following statements: 1. The BCG vaccine is administered for protection against tuberculosis. 2. The Oral Polio Vaccine contains live attenuated virus. 3. Vaccines work by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'टीकों' (वैक्सीन) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. तपेदिक (तपेदिक/टीबी) से सुरक्षा के लिए बीसीजी (BCG) का टीका लगाया जाता है। 2. ओरल पोलियो वैक्सीन में जीवित क्षीण (लाइव एटेन्यूएटेड) वायरस होता है। 3. टीके प्रतिरक्षा प्रणाली को एंटीबॉडी का उत्पादन करने के लिए उत्तेजित करके काम करते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. The Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine provides immunity against tuberculosis, the Sabin Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) utilizes live attenuated poliovirus strains to induce gut mucosal and systemic immunity, and vaccines function by priming the adaptive immune system to generate pathogen-specific antibodies and memory lymphocytes.
With reference to the 'abrogation of Article 370' in August 2019, consider the following statements: 1. The special status of Jammu and Kashmir was revoked through a Presidential Order followed by Parliamentary resolutions. 2. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was reorganized into two Union Territories - Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. 3. Article 35A, which defined permanent residents of the State, continued to remain in force. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
अगस्त 2019 में 'अनुच्छेद 370 के निरसन' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जम्मू और कश्मीर का विशेष दर्जा राष्ट्रपति के आदेश और उसके बाद संसदीय संकल्पों के माध्यम से निरस्त किया गया था। 2. जम्मू और कश्मीर राज्य को दो केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों - जम्मू और कश्मीर तथा लद्दाख में पुनर्गठित किया गया था। 3. अनुच्छेद 35A, जिसने राज्य के स्थायी निवासियों को परिभाषित किया था, लागू रहा। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In August 2019, the President issued Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Orders C.O. 272 and C.O. 273 alongside statutory resolutions in Parliament revoking J&K's special status, and Parliament enacted the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 bifurcating the state into two Union Territories. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 35A was introduced via the Presidential Order of 1954; when C.O. 272 superseded that 1954 order, Article 35A automatically ceased to exist.
With reference to the 'Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019', consider the following statements: 1. It provides a path to Indian citizenship for persecuted religious minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan. 2. It covers Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians. 3. It applies to all migrants irrespective of their religion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'नागरिकता (संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2019' के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह अफगानिस्तान, बांग्लादेश और पाकिस्तान के उत्पीड़ित धार्मिक अल्पसंख्यकों के लिए भारतीय नागरिकता का मार्ग प्रशस्त करता है। 2. इसमें हिंदू, सिख, बौद्ध, जैन, पारसी और ईसाई शामिल हैं। 3. यह उनके धर्म की परवाह किए बिना सभी प्रवासियों पर लागू होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 amends the Citizenship Act, 1955 to grant eligibility for Indian citizenship to persecuted minorities—specifically Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians—who arrived from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan on or before 31 December 2014. Statement 3 is incorrect because the statute explicitly restricts this expedited relief to the six enumerated non-Muslim minority communities, excluding other migrants.
With reference to biodiversity hotspots, consider the following statements: 1. The concept of biodiversity hotspots was proposed by Norman Myers. 2. The Eastern Himalayas and the Western Ghats are recognized as biodiversity hotspots in India. 3. To qualify as a hotspot, a region must have lost at least 50 per cent of its original natural vegetation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट की अवधारणा नॉर्मन मायर्स द्वारा प्रस्तुत की गई थी। 2. पूर्वी हिमालय और पश्चिमी घाट को भारत में जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के रूप में मान्यता प्राप्त है। 3. हॉटस्पॉट के रूप में अर्हता प्राप्त करने के लिए, किसी क्षेत्र की कम से कम 50 प्रतिशत मूल प्राकृतिक वनस्पति नष्ट हो चुकी होनी चाहिए। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as Norman Myers originated the biodiversity hotspot framework in 1988, and both the Western Ghats and the Eastern Himalayas represent major global hotspots encompassing Indian territory. Statement 3 is incorrect because Conservation International's criteria require that a region must have lost at least 70% of its original primary habitat, not 50%.
With reference to the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements: 1. The Great Bath was discovered at Mohenjo-daro. 2. The Harappans extensively used horse-drawn chariots for transport. 3. Lothal was a prominent port town with a dockyard. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. विशाल स्नानागार की खोज मोहनजोदड़ो में हुई थी। 2. हड़प्पावासी परिवहन के लिए व्यापक रूप से घोड़ों द्वारा खींचे जाने वाले रथों का उपयोग करते थे। 3. लोथल एक प्रमुख बंदरगाह नगर था जहां गोदीबाड़ा (डॉकयार्ड) स्थित था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Great Bath was excavated at Mohenjo-daro in Sindh, and Lothal in the Gulf of Khambhat possessed a trapezoidal baked-brick basin identified as a tidal dockyard. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Harappan civilization was characterized by solid-wheeled bullock carts and pack oxen, with horse-drawn spoked-wheel war chariots absent from Harappan material culture.
With reference to the life of Gautama Buddha, consider the following statements: 1. He delivered his first sermon at Sarnath. 2. He attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya under a banyan tree. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
गौतम बुद्ध के जीवन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. उन्होंने अपना पहला उपदेश सारनाथ में दिया था। 2. उन्होंने बोधगया में एक बरगद के पेड़ के नीचे ज्ञान प्राप्त किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because Siddhartha Gautama preached his maiden discourse (Dharmachakrapravartana) to the five ascetics at the Deer Park in Rishipatana/Sarnath. Statement 2 is incorrect because he attained enlightenment (Nirvana) at Bodh Gaya on the banks of the Niranjana River under a peepal tree (Ficus religiosa, the Bodhi tree), not a banyan tree (Ficus benghalensis).
With reference to the Ashokan edicts, consider the following statements: 1. Major Rock Edict XIII describes the Kalinga War and its aftermath. 2. The Ashokan inscriptions were deciphered by James Prinsep. 3. Most Ashokan edicts were composed in the Sanskrit language. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
अशोक के अभिलेखों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 13वां प्रमुख शिलालेख (मेजर रॉक एडिक्ट XIII) कलिंग युद्ध और उसके परिणामों का वर्णन करता है। 2. अशोक के शिलालेखों को जेम्स प्रिंसेप द्वारा पढ़ा (डिसिफर) गया था। 3. अधिकांश अशोक के शिलालेख संस्कृत भाषा में रचित थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Major Rock Edict XIII movingly narrates Emperor Ashoka's remorse over the devastation of the Kalinga War and his subsequent adoption of Dhamma-vijaya, and James Prinsep successfully deciphered the Brahmi and Kharosthi inscriptions of Ashoka in 1837. Statement 3 is incorrect because the vast majority of Ashokan edicts were written in the vernacular Prakrit language (using Brahmi script across most of India, and Kharosthi, Aramaic, and Greek in the northwest), not Sanskrit.
Consider the following pairs of ancient Indian scholars and their works: 1. Aryabhata — Aryabhatiya 2. Varahamihira — Brihat Samhita 3. Kalidasa — Meghaduta 4. Vagbhata — Ashtanga Hridaya Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
प्राचीन भारतीय विद्वानों और उनकी कृतियों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. आर्यभट्ट — आर्यभटीय 2. वराहमिहिर — वृहत संहिता 3. कालिदास — मेघदूत 4. वाग्भट — अष्टांग हृदय उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. Aryabhata composed the foundational mathematical and astronomical treatise Aryabhatiya, Varahamihira authored the encyclopedic Sanskrit work Brihat Samhita covering astronomy and meteorology, Kalidasa composed the lyric Sanskrit poem Meghaduta, and Vagbhata authored Ashtanga Hridaya, a celebrated core textbook of Ayurveda.
Consider the following pairs of Bhakti saints and the regions with which they were associated: 1. Kabir — Varanasi 2. Guru Nanak — Punjab 3. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu — Bengal 4. Tukaram — Gujarat Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
भक्ति संतों और उनसे संबंधित क्षेत्रों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कबीर — वाराणसी 2. गुरु नानक — पंजाब 3. चैतन्य महाप्रभु — बंगाल 4. तुकाराम — गुजरात उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. Sant Kabir lived and taught in Varanasi (Kashi), Guru Nanak was born at Nankana Sahib in the undivided Punjab region and established Kartarpur, and Chaitanya Mahaprabhu spearheaded the Gaudiya Vaishnavism movement across Bengal. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because Sant Tukaram was a renowned 17th-century Marathi poet-saint of the Varkari tradition in Maharashtra, not Gujarat.
With reference to the global financial crisis of 2008, consider the following statements: 1. Lehman Brothers, a major US investment bank, filed for bankruptcy in September 2008. 2. The crisis originated in the subprime mortgage market of the United States. 3. The crisis had no impact on Indian stock markets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2008 के वैश्विक वित्तीय संकट के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. एक प्रमुख अमेरिकी निवेश बैंक लेहमैन ब्रदर्स ने सितंबर 2008 में दिवालियापन के लिए याचिका दायर की। 2. इस संकट की उत्पत्ति संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका के सबप्राइम बंधक बाजार में हुई थी। 3. इस संकट का भारतीय शेयर बाजारों पर कोई प्रभाव नहीं पड़ा। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Lehman Brothers filed for Chapter 11 bankruptcy on 15 September 2008, triggered by heavy losses on credit derivatives tied to defaults in the US subprime home mortgage market. Statement 3 is incorrect because foreign institutional investors aggressively withdrew capital, resulting in severe liquidity tightening and causing the BSE Sensex and NSE Nifty to drop by more than 50% during 2008.
Consider the following pairs of centres of the Revolt of 1857 and their prominent leaders: 1. Delhi — Bahadur Shah Zafar 2. Kanpur — Nana Saheb 3. Lucknow — Begum Hazrat Mahal 4. Jhansi — Rani Lakshmibai Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1857 के विद्रोह के केंद्रों और उनके प्रमुख नेताओं के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. दिल्ली — बहादुर शाह ज़फर 2. कानपुर — नाना साहेब 3. लखनऊ — बेगम हज़रत महल 4. झांसी — रानी लक्ष्मीबाई उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. In Delhi, the rebel sepoys proclaimed the aged Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar as Shahenshah-e-Hindustan; in Kanpur, Nana Saheb (adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II) spearheaded the rebellion aided by Tatya Tope; in Lucknow, Begum Hazrat Mahal led the revolt on behalf of her young son Birjis Qadr; and in Jhansi, Rani Lakshmibai valiantly resisted the British Doctrine of Lapse.
Consider the following pairs of Indian National Congress sessions and the events associated with them: 1. Bombay (1885) — First session presided over by W.C. Bonnerjee 2. Surat (1907) — Split between Moderates and Extremists 3. Lahore (1929) — Adoption of the Purna Swaraj resolution 4. Ramgarh (1940) — Launch of the Quit India Movement Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के अधिवेशनों और उनसे जुड़ी घटनाओं के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. बंबई (1885) — डब्ल्यू.सी. बनर्जी की अध्यक्षता में प्रथम अधिवेशन 2. सूरत (1907) — नरमपंथियों और गरमपंथियों के बीच विभाजन 3. लाहौर (1929) — पूर्ण स्वराज संकल्प को स्वीकार करना 4. रामगढ़ (1940) — भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन का आरंभ उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. The INC's first session met at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay in 1885 under W.C. Bonnerjee, the 1907 Surat session presided over by Rash Behari Ghosh witnessed the ideological split between Moderates and Extremists, and the 1929 Lahore session under Jawaharlal Nehru proclaimed Purna Swaraj. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because the Quit India resolution was ratified and launched at the Gowalia Tank Maidan session in Bombay in August 1942, not at the Ramgarh session of 1940.
With reference to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The Union List contains subjects such as defence, foreign affairs and railways. 2. The State List includes subjects such as police and public health. 3. Residuary powers of legislation rest with the State Legislatures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
संविधान की सातवीं अनुसूची के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. संघ सूची में रक्षा, विदेश मामले और रेलवे जैसे विषय शामिल हैं। 2. राज्य सूची में पुलिस और लोक स्वास्थ्य जैसे विषय शामिल हैं। 3. कानून बनाने की अवशिष्ट शक्तियां राज्य विधानमंडलों के पास हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Seventh Schedule divides legislative powers into List I (Union List covering defence, external affairs, railways), List II (State List covering public order, police, public health), and List III (Concurrent List). Statement 3 is incorrect because under Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List, residuary powers on any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent or State Lists belong exclusively to Parliament, not the States.
With reference to the revolutionary movement in India, consider the following statements: 1. Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929. 2. The Chittagong Armoury Raid was led by Surya Sen. 3. Chandrashekhar Azad was associated with the Hindustan Republican Association. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में क्रांतिकारी आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भगत सिंह और बटुकेश्वर दत्त ने 1929 में सेंट्रल लेजिस्लेटिव असेंबली (केंद्रीय विधानसभा) में बम फेंके थे। 2. चटगांव शस्त्रागार छापे का नेतृत्व सूर्य सेन ने किया था। 3. चंद्रशेखर आजाद हिंदुस्तान रिपब्लिकन एसोसिएशन (HRA) से जुड़े थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. On 8 April 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt tossed harmless smoke bombs into the Central Legislative Assembly to protest the Trade Disputes Bill and Public Safety Bill, Surya Sen ('Masterda') spearheaded the heroic Chittagong Armoury Raid in Bengal in April 1930, and Chandrashekhar Azad served as the commander-in-chief of the Hindustan Republican Association (later reorganised as the HSRA).
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: 1. It provided for provincial autonomy. 2. It proposed dyarchy at the federal level. 3. It abolished the Council of India. 4. It introduced universal adult franchise. Which of the statements given above are correct?
भारत सरकार अधिनियम, 1935 के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसने प्रांतीय स्वायत्तता का प्रावधान किया। 2. इसने संघीय स्तर पर द्वैध शासन (डायरार्की) का प्रस्ताव रखा। 3. इसने काउंसिल ऑफ इंडिया (भारत परिषद) को समाप्त कर दिया। 4. इसने सार्वभौमिक वयस्क मताधिकार की शुरुआत की। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-से सही हैं?
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Government of India Act, 1935 replaced dyarchy in the provinces with provincial autonomy, introduced dyarchy at the Centre dividing subjects into reserved and transferred, and abolished the Council of India created under the 1858 Act. Statement 4 is incorrect because the Act extended limited property-, tax-, and education-based voting rights to only about 10-14% of the total population, whereas universal adult franchise was granted solely by the 1950 Constitution of independent India.
With reference to Subhas Chandra Bose, consider the following statements: 1. He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at Haripura (1938) and Tripuri (1939). 2. He founded the Forward Bloc in 1939. 3. He was the first to establish the Azad Hind Fauj. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
सुभाष चंद्र बोस के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. वे हरिपुरा (1938) और त्रिपुरी (1939) में भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के अध्यक्ष चुने गए थे। 2. उन्होंने 1939 में फॉरवर्ड ब्लॉक की स्थापना की थी। 3. वे आज़ाद हिंद फौज की स्थापना करने वाले पहले व्यक्ति थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Subhas Chandra Bose was unanimously elected Congress President at Haripura in 1938 and re-elected at Tripuri in 1939 defeating Pattabhi Sitaramayya, and established the Forward Bloc faction in May 1939 following differences with the Congress Working Committee. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) was first established in 1942 in Malaya by Captain Mohan Singh with the support of Rash Behari Bose; Subhas Chandra Bose later took over its leadership in Singapore in July 1943.
With reference to the Indian monsoon, consider the following statements: 1. The southwest monsoon contributes the major share of India's annual rainfall. 2. The Tamil Nadu coast receives most of its rainfall from the northeast monsoon. 3. El Niño conditions generally strengthen the Indian monsoon. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारतीय मानसून के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. दक्षिण-पश्चिम मानसून भारत की वार्षिक वर्षा के प्रमुख भाग का योगदान देता है। 2. तमिलनाडु तट अपनी अधिकांश वर्षा उत्तर-पूर्वी मानसून से प्राप्त करता है। 3. अल नीनो की स्थितियां सामान्यतः भारतीय मानसून को मजबूत करती हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The southwest monsoon (June to September) supplies roughly 75% of India's total annual precipitation, while the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu receives bulk of its rain during October to December from moisture-laden northeast retreating monsoon winds blowing over the Bay of Bengal. Statement 3 is incorrect because warm El Niño events in the equatorial Pacific weaken the Walker circulation and are strongly correlated with suppressed monsoon convection and droughts in India.
Consider the following pairs of rivers and the larger rivers of which they are tributaries: 1. Gandak — Ganga 2. Bhima — Krishna 3. Chambal — Yamuna 4. Teesta — Godavari Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
नदियों और उन बड़ी नदियों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए जिनकी वे सहायक नदियां हैं: 1. गंडक — गंगा 2. भीमा — कृष्णा 3. चंबल — यमुना 4. तीस्ता — गोदावरी उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. The Gandak originates in the Nepal Himalayas and joins the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna, the Bhima is a premier left-bank tributary of the Krishna originating in Maharashtra's Bhimashankar, and the Chambal flows northward across Malwa to merge into the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because the Teesta originates in Sikkim and is a major right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra (Jamuna in Bangladesh), not the Godavari.
With reference to the Himalayan mountain system, consider the following statements: 1. The Karakoram range lies to the northwest of the main Himalayan range. 2. K2 (Mount Godwin Austen) is located in the Karakoram range. 3. The Shivalik is the innermost range of the Himalayas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
हिमालयी पर्वत प्रणाली के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. काराकोरम श्रेणी मुख्य हिमालयी श्रेणी के उत्तर-पश्चिम में स्थित है। 2. K2 (माउंट गॉडविन ऑस्टिन) काराकोरम श्रेणी में स्थित है। 3. शिवालिक हिमालय की सबसे भीतरी (आंतरिक) श्रेणी है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Trans-Himalayan Karakoram range extends northwest of the Great Himalayas across Ladakh and Gilgit-Baltistan, and harbors K2 (8,611 m), the world's second-highest mountain peak. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Shivalik range forms the outermost, southernmost, and youngest foothills of the Himalayas facing the northern plains, while the Greater Himalayas (Himadri) constitutes the innermost and highest chain.
With reference to the Sachar Committee, consider the following statements: 1. It was headed by Justice Rajinder Sachar. 2. It examined the social, economic and educational status of the Muslim community in India. 3. It submitted its report in November 2006. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
सच्चर समिति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसकी अध्यक्षता न्यायमूर्ति राजेंद्र सच्चर ने की थी। 2. इसने भारत में मुस्लिम समुदाय की सामाजिक, आर्थिक और शैक्षणिक स्थिति का परीक्षण किया था। 3. इसने अपनी रिपोर्ट नवंबर 2006 में प्रस्तुत की थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. The Prime Minister's High Level Committee on the Social, Economic and Educational Status of the Muslim Community was chaired by Justice Rajinder Sachar, former Chief Justice of Delhi High Court. Appointed in March 2005, the committee laid its comprehensive 403-page report before Parliament in November 2006, documenting critical gaps in literacy, formal employment, and civic infrastructure.
Consider the following pairs of straits and the countries/regions they separate: 1. Palk Strait — India and Sri Lanka 2. Malacca Strait — Malaysia and Sumatra (Indonesia) 3. Bering Strait — Russia and Alaska (USA) 4. Strait of Hormuz — Red Sea and Gulf of Aden Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
जलडमरूमध्यों (जलसंधियों) और उनके द्वारा अलग किए जाने वाले देशों/क्षेत्रों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. पाक जलडमरूमध्य — भारत और श्रीलंका 2. मलक्का जलडमरूमध्य — मलेशिया और सुमात्रा (इंडोनेशिया) 3. बेरिंग जलडमरूमध्य — रूस और अलास्का (यू.एस.ए.) 4. होर्मुज जलडमरूमध्य — लाल सागर और अदन की खाड़ी उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. The Palk Strait connects the Bay of Bengal with Palk Bay separating Tamil Nadu from Sri Lanka, the Strait of Malacca runs between Peninsular Malaysia and the Indonesian island of Sumatra, and the Bering Strait separates Chukotka in Russia from Alaska in North America. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because the Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman, whereas the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden are connected by the Bab-el-Mandeb strait.
With reference to ocean currents, consider the following statements: 1. The Gulf Stream is a warm current of the North Atlantic Ocean. 2. The Labrador Current is a cold current. 3. The convergence of the Gulf Stream and the Labrador Current produces dense fog off the coast of Newfoundland. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
महासागरीय धाराओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. गल्फ स्ट्रीम उत्तरी अटलांटिक महासागर की एक गर्म धारा है। 2. लैब्राडोर धारा एक ठंडी धारा है। 3. गल्फ स्ट्रीम और लैब्राडोर धारा का अभिसरण न्यूफाउंडलैंड के तट पर घने कोहरे का निर्माण करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. The Gulf Stream is an intense warm western boundary current of the North Atlantic gyre originating in the Gulf of Mexico, the Labrador Current carries subpolar cold waters southward along eastern Canada, and their confluence near the Grand Banks off Newfoundland produces thick advection fog while creating one of the richest commercial fishing grounds on Earth.
With reference to earthquakes, consider the following statements: 1. The magnitude of an earthquake is measured on the Richter scale. 2. The epicentre is the point on the earth's surface directly above the focus. 3. P-waves travel slower than S-waves. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भूकंप के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भूकंप की तीव्रता/परिमाण को रिक्टर पैमाने पर मापा जाता है। 2. अधिकेंद्र (एपिसेंटर) पृथ्वी की सतह पर वह बिंदु है जो उद्गम केंद्र (फोकस) के ठीक ऊपर स्थित होता है। 3. प्राथमिक तरंगें (P-तरंगें) द्वितीयक तरंगों (S-तरंगों) की तुलना में धीमी गति से चलती हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The quantitative energy magnitude released by an earthquake is measured on the logarithmic Richter scale, and the epicentre is the point vertically above the hypocentre (focus) on the earth's surface that experiences the initial tremors. Statement 3 is incorrect because primary (P) waves are longitudinal body waves that travel significantly faster than shear (S) waves and arrive first at seismograph recording stations.
With reference to the Mediterranean type of climate, consider the following statements: 1. It is characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters. 2. It is found on the eastern margins of continents between 30° and 40° latitudes. 3. It is well known for viticulture and the cultivation of citrus fruits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भूमध्यसागरीय प्रकार की जलवायु के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसकी विशेषता गर्म, शुष्क ग्रीष्मकाल और हल्की, आर्द्र शीत ऋतु है। 2. यह 30° और 40° अक्षांशों के बीच महाद्वीपों के पूर्वी किनारों पर पाई जाती है। 3. यह अंगूर की खेती (विटिकल्चर) और खट्टे (सिट्रस) फलों के उत्पादन के लिए प्रसिद्ध है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Mediterranean climate (Cs in Köppen classification) experiences prominent dry summers dominated by subtropical high-pressure cells and rainy winters brought by on-shore westerlies, and this distinct seasonality fosters specialized horticulture, especially olives, citrus fruits, and commercial viticulture (wine production). Statement 2 is incorrect because Mediterranean climatic belts occur strictly on the western margins of continents between 30° and 45° north and south latitudes (such as central Chile, California, Cape Province, and south-western Australia).
Consider the following pairs of minerals and their important mining regions: 1. Iron ore — Bailadila (Chhattisgarh) 2. Bauxite — Panchpatmali (Odisha) 3. Mica — Koderma (Jharkhand) 4. Copper — Kolar (Karnataka) Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
खनिजों और उनके महत्वपूर्ण खनन क्षेत्रों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. लौह अयस्क — बैलाडीला (छत्तीसगढ़) 2. बॉक्साइट — पंचपतमली (ओडिशा) 3. अभ्रक (माइका) — कोडरमा (झारखंड) 4. तांबा (कॉपर) — कोलार (कर्नाटक) उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. The Bailadila ranges in Bastar, Chhattisgarh yield world-class high-grade haematite iron ore exported via Visakhapatnam, the Panchpatmali hills in Koraput, Odisha host Asia's largest bauxite mine operated by NALCO, and Koderma in Jharkhand is celebrated as the 'Mica Capital of India'. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because the Kolar Gold Fields in Karnataka are historically renowned for deep-reef gold extraction, while major copper deposits are mined at Malanjkhand (Madhya Pradesh), Khetri (Rajasthan), and Singhbhum (Jharkhand).
With reference to tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean, consider the following statements: 1. In the Northern Hemisphere, cyclonic winds rotate in a counter-clockwise direction. 2. Cyclones over the North Indian Ocean are named by countries under the WMO/ESCAP Panel. 3. Cyclone 'Fani' (2019) made landfall on the coast of West Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
उत्तरी हिंद महासागर में उष्णकटिबंधीय चक्रवातों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. उत्तरी गोलार्ध में, चक्रवाती हवाएं वामावर्त (एंटी-क्लॉकवाइज) दिशा में घूमती हैं। 2. उत्तरी हिंद महासागर में चक्रवातों का नामकरण WMO/ESCAP पैनल के सदस्य देशों द्वारा किया जाता है। 3. चक्रवात 'फानी' (2019) ने पश्चिम बंगाल के तट पर लैंडफॉल किया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force deflects inward-rushing winds to the right, causing cyclonic circulation to rotate counter-clockwise, and tropical cyclones originating in the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea are assigned names from a regional roster maintained by the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones. Statement 3 is incorrect because Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm 'Fani' made its destructive landfall near Puri on the coast of Odisha on 3 May 2019, not West Bengal.
With reference to India's geographical location, consider the following statements: 1. The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight Indian states. 2. The 82°30'E longitude is taken as the Indian Standard Meridian. 3. The Tropic of Cancer passes through Mizoram. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की भौगोलिक स्थिति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कर्क रेखा भारत के आठ राज्यों से होकर गुजरती है। 2. 82°30' पूर्व देशांतर को भारतीय मानक याम्योत्तर (मानक समय रेखा) माना गया है। 3. कर्क रेखा मिजोरम से होकर गुजरती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30'N) passes through eight Indian states from west to east: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram; and the longitude of 82°30'E passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh is designated as the Indian Standard Meridian (UTC+05:30).
With reference to India's international boundaries, consider the following statements: 1. India shares its longest land border with Bangladesh. 2. The Durand Line separates India from Afghanistan. 3. The McMahon Line is associated with the boundary between India and China. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सीमाओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत अपनी सबसे लंबी स्थलीय सीमा बांग्लादेश के साथ साझा करता है। 2. डूरंड रेखा भारत को अफगानिस्तान से अलग करती है। 3. मैकमोहन रेखा भारत और चीन के बीच की सीमा से जुड़ी है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. India's international boundary with Bangladesh spans 4,096.7 km, representing its longest land border with any neighbouring country, and the McMahon Line, negotiated at the 1914 Simla Convention by Sir Henry McMahon, forms the de facto frontier between Northeast India (Arunachal Pradesh) and China. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Durand Line, drawn in 1893, primarily serves as the modern international border between Afghanistan and Pakistan.
Consider the following statements: 1. Kunwar Singh, Landlord of Jagdishpur in Bihar, led the rebellion against the British. 2. Lord Dalhousie recognised the adopted son of Rani Lakshmi Bai as the heir apparent. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए:1. बिहार में जगदीशपुर के जमींदार, Bar सिंह ने अंग्रेजों केविरुद्ध विद्रोह का नेतृत्व किया।
Historical analysis of the Revolt of 1857:
- Statement 1 is correct: Babu Kunwar Singh, the octogenarian Ujjainiya Rajput landlord of Jagdishpur in Arrah (Shahabad district, Bihar), was one of the greatest military commanders of the 1857 rebellion. Despite his advanced age of nearly 80 years, he led rebel sepoys and local fighters against the British East India Company across western Bihar and eastern Uttar Pradesh (including Azamgarh, Ballia, and Ghazipur), repeatedly outmaneuvering British forces under Vincent Eyre and Mark Kerr before succumbing to battle wounds in April 1858.
- Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Following the death of Maharaja Gangadhar Rao of Jhansi in November 1853, Governor-General Lord Dalhousie explicitly REFUSED to recognize Damodar Rao (Anand Rao), the adopted son of Rani Lakshmi Bai, as the legal heir to the principality of Jhansi. Applying his aggressive Doctrine of Lapse (व्यपगत का सिद्धांत), Dalhousie rejected the Rani's petitions, annexed Jhansi to the British territories in March 1854, and granted the Rani a meagre pension of ₹5,000 per month. This refusal was the direct proximate cause for Rani Lakshmi Bai joining the 1857 Revolt!
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy, consider the following statements: 1. They are enforceable by the courts. 2. Article 44 directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens. 3. Article 48A, relating to the protection of the environment, was added by the 42nd Amendment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
राज्य के नीति निर्देशक तत्वों (DPSP) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. वे न्यायालयों द्वारा प्रवर्तनीय (लागू करने योग्य) हैं। 2. अनुच्छेद 44 राज्य को नागरिकों के लिए एक समान नागरिक संहिता (UCC) सुरक्षित करने का निर्देश देता है। 3. पर्यावरण के संरक्षण से संबंधित अनुच्छेद 48A को 42वें संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Article 44 in Part IV urges the State to secure for all citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India, and Article 48A directing the State to protect and improve the environment, forests, and wildlife was incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 37 explicitly declares that Directive Principles are fundamental in governance but non-justiciable and not legally enforceable by any court.
With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. 2. The President can promulgate an ordinance when both Houses of Parliament are in session. 3. The pardoning power of the President under Article 72 includes the power to commute a death sentence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के राष्ट्रपति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. राष्ट्रपति का चुनाव एक निर्वाचक मंडल द्वारा किया जाता है जिसमें संसद के दोनों सदनों के निर्वाचित सदस्य और राज्यों की विधानसभाओं के निर्वाचित सदस्य शामिल होते हैं। 2. राष्ट्रपति तब अध्यादेश जारी कर सकता है जब संसद के दोनों सदन सत्र में हों। 3. अनुच्छेद 72 के तहत राष्ट्रपति की क्षमादान शक्ति में मृत्युदंड को कम करने (लघूकरण) की शक्ति शामिल है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Under Article 54, the presidential electoral college comprises the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies (including Delhi and Puducherry), and Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, and remit or commute sentences in all cases involving capital punishment. Statement 2 is incorrect because under Article 123, the President can promulgate an ordinance only when at least one House of Parliament is not in session.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. 2. The Rajya Sabha has the power to amend a Money Bill. 3. A joint sitting of the two Houses under Article 108 is presided over by the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की संसद के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. धन विधेयक केवल लोकसभा में ही पेश किया जा सकता है। 2. राज्य सभा के पास धन विधेयक में संशोधन करने की शक्ति है। 3. अनुच्छेद 108 के तहत दोनों सदनों की संयुक्त बैठक की अध्यक्षता उपराष्ट्रपति द्वारा की जाती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statement 1 is correct because Article 109(1) of the Constitution expressly prohibits the introduction of a Money Bill in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), mandating prior presidential recommendation for its introduction in the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill; it can only return it within 14 days with non-binding recommendations. Statement 3 is incorrect because a joint sitting summoned under Article 108 is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha pursuant to Article 118(4), never by the Vice President.
With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements: 1. It has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more States under Article 131. 2. Its advisory jurisdiction is provided under Article 143. 3. The collegium system of judicial appointments is explicitly provided in the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अनुच्छेद 131 के तहत भारत सरकार और एक या अधिक राज्यों के बीच विवादों में इसका प्रारंभिक (मूल) क्षेत्राधिकार है। 2. इसका सलाहकार क्षेत्राधिकार अनुच्छेद 143 के तहत प्रदान किया गया है। 3. न्यायिक नियुक्तियों की कॉलेजियम प्रणाली का स्पष्ट रूप से संविधान में प्रावधान किया गया है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 131 vests exclusive original jurisdiction in the Supreme Court over federal disputes involving the Centre and States, and Article 143 confers advisory jurisdiction empowering the President to seek its opinion on questions of law or fact of public importance. Statement 3 is incorrect because the collegium mechanism is nowhere mentioned in the text of the Constitution, having evolved entirely through judicial interpretations in the Second Judges Case (1993) and Third Judges Case (1998).
With reference to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, consider the following statements: 1. It added the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 functional items. 2. It provides for reservation of not less than one-third of the seats for women in Panchayats. 3. It provides for a fixed five-year term for Panchayats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
73वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसने संविधान में 29 कार्यात्मक विषयों वाली ग्यारहवीं अनुसूची जोड़ी। 2. यह पंचायतों में महिलाओं के लिए कम से कम एक-तिहाई सीटों के आरक्षण का प्रावधान करता है। 3. यह पंचायतों के लिए पांच वर्ष का एक निश्चित कार्यकाल प्रदान करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added the Eleventh Schedule enumerating 29 functional subjects devolved to rural local bodies under Article 243G, Article 243D(3) guarantees mandatory reservation of at least one-third of total seats for women across all tiers, and Article 243E prescribes a fixed tenure of five years for every Panchayat from the date of its first meeting.
Consider the following pairs of subjects and the lists of the Seventh Schedule in which they are placed: 1. Defence — Union List 2. Police — State List 3. Education — Concurrent List 4. Agriculture — Union List Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
विषयों और सातवीं अनुसूची की उन सूचियों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए जिनमें वे रखे गए हैं: 1. रक्षा — संघ सूची 2. पुलिस — राज्य सूची 3. शिक्षा — समवर्ती सूची 4. कृषि — संघ सूची उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. Defence of India is Entry 1 of the Union List (List I), Police and public order are Entries 1 and 2 of the State List (List II), and Education was transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List (List III, Entry 25) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because Agriculture (including agricultural education and research) is an exclusive State subject under Entry 14 of List II.
Consider the following pairs of institutions and the constitutional provisions associated with them: 1. Election Commission — Article 324 2. Finance Commission — Article 280 3. Union Public Service Commission — Article 315 4. NITI Aayog — Article 263 Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
संस्थाओं और उनसे संबंधित संवैधानिक प्रावधानों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. निर्वाचन आयोग — अनुच्छेद 324 2. वित्त आयोग — अनुच्छेद 280 3. संघ लोक सेवा आयोग (UPSC) — अनुच्छेद 315 4. नीति आयोग — अनुच्छेद 263 उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. Article 324 provides for the Election Commission of India for superintendence and conduct of elections, Article 280 mandates the constitution of a Finance Commission every five years, and Article 315 establishes the Public Service Commission for the Union. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional, extra-constitutional body established through an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2015, whereas Article 263 provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
With reference to the constitutional changes concerning Jammu and Kashmir in August 2019, consider the following statements: 1. Article 370 had granted special autonomous status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir. 2. In August 2019, all provisions of the Constitution of India were applied to Jammu and Kashmir, and the State was reorganised into two Union Territories. 3. Article 35A, dealing with permanent residents of Jammu and Kashmir, continued to operate after August 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
अगस्त 2019 में जम्मू और कश्मीर से संबंधित संवैधानिक परिवर्तनों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अनुच्छेद 370 ने जम्मू और कश्मीर राज्य को विशेष स्वायत्त दर्जा प्रदान किया था। 2. अगस्त 2019 में, भारत के संविधान के सभी प्रावधान जम्मू और कश्मीर पर लागू कर दिए गए और राज्य को दो केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों में पुनर्गठित किया गया। 3. जम्मू और कश्मीर के स्थायी निवासियों से संबंधित अनुच्छेद 35A, अगस्त 2019 के बाद भी लागू रहा। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Article 370 formerly accorded asymmetrical temporary autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir with a separate Constitution, and on 5-6 August 2019, Presidential Orders C.O. 272 and C.O. 273 applied all provisions of the Indian Constitution to J&K while the J&K Reorganisation Act bifurcated it into two Union Territories. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 35A (empowering the state legislature to confer special privileges on permanent residents) was created by the 1954 Presidential Order, and it automatically ceased to exist once C.O. 272 superseded that 1954 Order.
With reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements: 1. It applies to Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis and Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan. 2. It extends to Muslim migrants from these three countries. 3. It reduces the aggregate period of residence required for citizenship by naturalisation for such persons from eleven years to five years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
नागरिकता (संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2019 के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह अफगानिस्तान, बांग्लादेश और पाकिस्तान के हिंदू, सिख, बौद्ध, जैन, पारसी और ईसाई प्रवासियों पर लागू होता है। 2. यह इन तीनों देशों के मुस्लिम प्रवासियों पर भी लागू होता है। 3. यह ऐसे व्यक्तियों के लिए देशीयकरण द्वारा नागरिकता प्राप्त करने हेतु निवास की आवश्यक कुल अवधि को ग्यारह वर्ष से घटाकर पांच वर्ष करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 specifically covers six persecuted non-Muslim minority communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan, and amends the Third Schedule of the Citizenship Act, 1955 to reduce the qualifying residency period for citizenship by naturalisation from 11 years to not less than 5 years. Statement 2 is incorrect because Muslim migrants from these Islamic republics are explicitly excluded from the provisions of this special amendment.
With reference to the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements: 1. It empowers the Central Government to prescribe the tenure of Information Commissioners. 2. It fixes a uniform statutory tenure of five years for all Information Commissioners. 3. It provides that the salaries and allowances of Information Commissioners shall be as prescribed by the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
सूचना का अधिकार (संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2019 के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह केंद्र सरकार को सूचना आयुक्तों के कार्यकाल को निर्धारित करने का अधिकार देता है। 2. यह सभी सूचना आयुक्तों के लिए पांच वर्ष का एक समान वैधानिक कार्यकाल तय करता है। 3. यह प्रावधान करता है कि सूचना आयुक्तों के वेतन और भत्ते केंद्र सरकार द्वारा निर्धारित किए जाएंगे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 amended Sections 13 and 16 of the principal 2005 Act to grant the Central Government rule-making authority to prescribe the terms of office, salaries, and allowances for the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners at both central and state levels. Statement 2 is incorrect because the amendment removed the fixed statutory five-year term that existed under the 2005 Act, replacing it with executive discretion (subsequently set at 3 years via the RTI Rules, 2019).
With reference to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019, consider the following statements: 1. It empowers the Central Government to designate individuals as terrorists. 2. Prior to this amendment, only organisations could be designated as terrorist organisations under the Act. 3. It transferred the power of attachment of property in terrorism cases exclusively to the State police. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
गैरकानूनी गतिविधियां (रोकथाम) संशोधन अधिनियम (UAPA), 2019 के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह केंद्र सरकार को व्यक्तियों को आतंकवादी के रूप में नामित करने का अधिकार देता है। 2. इस संशोधन से पहले, इस अधिनियम के तहत केवल संगठनों को ही आतंकवादी संगठन के रूप में नामित किया जा सकता था। 3. इसने आतंकवाद के मामलों में संपत्ति की जब्ती की शक्ति विशेष रूप से राज्य पुलिस को हस्तांतरित कर दी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 2019 amendment to UAPA amended Section 35 and added the Fourth Schedule, allowing the Union Government to designate individuals as terrorists (previously, only groups or organisations could be notified as terrorist organisations under the First Schedule). Statement 3 is incorrect because the amendment empowered the Director General of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to approve the seizure or attachment of property when an investigation is conducted by the NIA, eliminating the prior requirement of seeking the State DGP's consent.
With reference to national income accounting in India, consider the following statements: 1. GDP at market prices equals GDP at factor cost plus net indirect taxes. 2. GNP equals GDP plus net factor income from abroad. 3. The base year of India's GDP series in use in 2019 was 2004-05. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में राष्ट्रीय आय लेखांकन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. बाजार मूल्य पर सकल घरेलू उत्पाद (GDP at MP) साधन लागत पर जीडीपी (GDP at FC) और शुद्ध अप्रत्यक्ष करों के योग के बराबर होता है। 2. सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद (GNP) सकल घरेलू उत्पाद (GDP) और विदेशों से प्राप्त शुद्ध साधन आय के योग के बराबर होता है। 3. 2019 में प्रचलन में भारत की जीडीपी श्रृंखला का आधार वर्ष 2004-05 था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. By standard macroeconomic definition, GDP at market prices equals GDP at factor cost plus indirect taxes minus subsidies (net indirect taxes), and Gross National Product (GNP) equals GDP plus Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Central Statistics Office (CSO) revised the base year for national accounts from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in January 2015, which remained the official series in 2019.
With reference to inflation measurement in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Reserve Bank of India uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as the key measure for inflation targeting. 2. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) includes services. 3. Core inflation excludes food and fuel components. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में मुद्रास्फीति मापन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक मुद्रास्फीति लक्ष्यीकरण के लिए प्रमुख उपाय के रूप में उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक (CPI) का उपयोग करता है। 2. थोक मूल्य सूचकांक (WPI) में सेवाएं शामिल हैं। 3. कोर मुद्रास्फीति (कोर इन्फ्लेशन) में खाद्य और ईंधन घटकों को बाहर रखा जाता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Following the recommendations of the Urjit Patel Committee, the RBI adopted the headline CPI-Combined (All India) as the nominal anchor for flexible inflation targeting, and Core Inflation measures underlying price trends by stripping out volatile non-core categories, namely food and fuel. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) strictly tracks price movements of manufactured products, primary articles, and fuel/power at wholesale stages, entirely excluding the services sector.
With reference to the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements: 1. It was nationalised in 1949. 2. It has the sole right to issue bank notes in India. 3. Its Governor is appointed by the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक (RBI) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसका 1949 में राष्ट्रीयकरण किया गया था। 2. इसे भारत में बैंक नोट जारी करने का एकमात्र अधिकार प्राप्त है। 3. इसके गवर्नर की नियुक्ति भारत के राष्ट्रपति द्वारा की जाती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Originally established as a private shareholders' bank in 1935, the RBI was nationalised on 1 January 1949 under the Reserve Bank (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948, and Section 22 of the RBI Act, 1934 grants it the sole right to issue banknotes of all denominations in India (with ₹1 notes and coins minted by the Ministry of Finance). Statement 3 is incorrect because under Section 8 of the RBI Act, the Governor is appointed by the Central Government (specifically the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet), not the President.
With reference to the instruments of monetary policy, consider the following statements: 1. The repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends funds to commercial banks. 2. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio reduces the lendable resources of banks. 3. Open market operations involve the purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
मौद्रिक नीति के उपकरणों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. रेपो दर वह दर है जिस पर आरबीआई वाणिज्यिक बैंकों को धन उधार देता है। 2. नकद आरक्षित अनुपात (CRR) में वृद्धि से बैंकों के उधार देने योग्य संसाधनों में कमी आती है। 3. खुले बाजार की कार्रवाइयों (OMO) में आरबीआई द्वारा सरकारी प्रतिभूतियों की खरीद और बिक्री शामिल है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. The repo rate is the fixed interest rate at which the RBI injects liquidity against approved collateral to scheduled commercial banks, raising the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) impounds a higher fraction of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) with the central bank thereby curbing commercial lending capacity, and Open Market Operations (OMOs) involve open-market auctions of government securities by the RBI to regulate system-wide liquidity.
With reference to the Goods and Services Tax (GST), consider the following statements: 1. It was introduced through the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act. 2. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. 3. Alcohol for human consumption falls within the ambit of GST. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
वस्तु एवं सेवा कर (GST) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. इसे संविधान (101वां संशोधन) अधिनियम के माध्यम से पेश किया गया था। 2. जीएसटी परिषद (GST काउंसिल) की अध्यक्षता केंद्रीय वित्त मंत्री करते हैं। 3. मानव उपभोग के लिए शराब (अल्कोहल) जीएसटी के दायरे में आती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The nationwide unified goods and services tax regime was rolled out via the Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, and Article 279A establishes the GST Council as a joint federal forum chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 366(12A) specifically excludes alcoholic liquor for human consumption from the constitutional definition of GST, reserving state excise and VAT powers to state governments.
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN), consider the following statements: 1. It provides income support of ₹6,000 per year to eligible farmer families. 2. The amount is transferred in three equal instalments directly into the bank accounts of beneficiaries. 3. It covers only those farmers who own more than five hectares of cultivable land. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
प्रधानमंत्री किसान सम्मान निधि (PM-KISAN) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह पात्र किसान परिवारों को प्रति वर्ष ₹6,000 की आय सहायता प्रदान करती है। 2. यह राशि लाभार्थियों के बैंक खातों में सीधे तीन समान किस्तों में हस्तांतरित की जाती है। 3. यह केवल उन किसानों को कवर करती है जिनके पास पांच हेक्टेयर से अधिक कृषि योग्य भूमि है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. PM-KISAN is a 100% Central Sector Scheme that transfers ₹6,000 per annum as direct income support to landholding farmers in three equal 4-monthly instalments of ₹2,000 via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Statement 3 is incorrect because the scheme initially targeted small and marginal farmers owning up to 2 hectares, and in May 2019 the Cabinet expanded it to cover all landholding farmer families regardless of the size of their land holdings (subject to certain exclusion criteria), not large farmers with over 5 hectares.
With reference to the banking sector in India, consider the following statements: 1. A loan is generally classified as a Non-Performing Asset when interest or principal remains overdue for more than 90 days. 2. The SARFAESI Act empowers banks to enforce security interests without the intervention of courts. 3. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was enacted in 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में बैंकिंग क्षेत्र के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. एक ऋण को सामान्यतः गैर-निष्पादित परिसंपत्ति (NPA) के रूप में तब वर्गीकृत किया जाता है जब ब्याज या मूलधन 90 दिनों से अधिक समय तक बकाया रहता है। 2. सरफेसी (SARFAESI) अधिनियम बैंकों को अदालतों के हस्तक्षेप के बिना सुरक्षा हितों (जमानत) को लागू करने का अधिकार देता है। 3. दिवाला और दिवालियापन संहिता 2016 में अधिनियमित की गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. Under the RBI's prudential norms on income recognition and asset classification, an advance is designated as an NPA if payment of interest or principal remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days; the SARFAESI Act, 2002 enables secured lenders to take possession of and auction pledged immovable properties without court intervention; and the landmark Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) was enacted in May 2016.
Consider the following pairs of schemes and their objectives: 1. MGNREGA — Guaranteed wage employment of 100 days per rural household 2. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin) — Housing for the rural poor 3. Ayushman Bharat (PM-JAY) — Health cover of ₹5 lakh per family per year 4. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana — Free electricity connections to rural households Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
योजनाओं और उनके उद्देश्यों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. मनरेगा (MGNREGA) — प्रत्येक ग्रामीण परिवार को 100 दिनों के मजदूरी रोजगार की गारंटी 2. प्रधानमंत्री आवास योजना (ग्रामीण) — ग्रामीण गरीबों के लिए आवास 3. आयुष्मान भारत (PM-JAY) — प्रति परिवार प्रति वर्ष ₹5 लाख का स्वास्थ्य कवर 4. प्रधानमंत्री उज्ज्वला योजना — ग्रामीण परिवारों को मुफ्त बिजली कनेक्शन उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. MGNREGA legally guarantees at least 100 days of unskilled wage employment per rural household annually, PMAY-G provides pucca houses with basic amenities to homeless and kutcha-dwelling rural households, and PM-JAY delivers cashless secondary and tertiary hospitalisation coverage up to ₹5 lakh per eligible family per year. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because PM Ujjwala Yojana provides deposit-free LPG cooking gas connections to poor women, whereas free electricity connections were extended under the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (Saubhagya).
With reference to India's balance of payments, consider the following statements: 1. The current account records trade in goods and services as well as remittances. 2. Foreign Direct Investment is recorded in the capital account. 3. Remittances sent by Indians working abroad form part of the current account. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत के भुगतान संतुलन (बैलेंस ऑफ पेमेंट्स) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. चालू खाता (करेंट अकाउंट) वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के व्यापार के साथ-साथ प्रेषण (रेमिटेंस) को भी दर्ज करता है। 2. प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश (FDI) पूंजी खाते (कैपिटल अकाउंट) में दर्ज किया जाता है। 3. विदेशों में काम करने वाले भारतीयों द्वारा भेजा जाने वाला प्रेषण चालू खाते का हिस्सा होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. In Balance of Payments accounting, the Current Account encompasses merchandise trade (visible imports and exports), services trade (invisibles), and unilateral transfers including private worker remittances, while the Capital Account records cross-border asset transactions altering national claims and liabilities, including Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), foreign portfolio flows, and external debt.
With reference to public finance in India, consider the following statements: 1. Fiscal deficit equals total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings. 2. The FRBM Act, 2003 provides a legislative framework for fiscal discipline. 3. Revenue deficit is always greater than fiscal deficit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में लोक वित्त (पब्लिक फाइनेंस) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. राजकोषीय घाटा (फिस्कल डेफिसिट) उधार को छोड़कर कुल प्राप्तियों में से कुल व्यय घटाने पर प्राप्त होता है। 2. राजकोषीय उत्तरदायित्व और बजट प्रबंधन (FRBM) अधिनियम, 2003 वित्तीय अनुशासन के लिए एक विधायी ढांचा प्रदान करता है। 3. राजस्व घाटा हमेशा राजकोषीय घाटे से बड़ा होता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Fiscal deficit represents the total non-borrowed budgetary shortfall (Total Expenditure minus Revenue Receipts minus Non-Debt Capital Receipts) indicating the government's borrowing requirement, and the FRBM Act, 2003 established statutory benchmarks to eliminate revenue deficit and rein in fiscal deficit. Statement 3 is incorrect because fiscal deficit comprises the revenue deficit plus net capital expenditure; thus, fiscal deficit is virtually always greater than (or at minimum equal to) the revenue deficit.
With reference to demographic and social indicators in India, consider the following statements: 1. 'Demographic dividend' refers to the potential for economic growth arising from a larger share of the working-age population. 2. India's Total Fertility Rate had fallen well below the replacement level of 2.1 by 2016. 3. Kerala has the highest literacy rate among Indian states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में जनसांख्यिकीय और सामाजिक संकेतकों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 'जनसांख्यिकीय लाभांश' (डेमोग्राफिक डिविडेंड) का तात्पर्य कामकाजी उम्र की आबादी के बड़े हिस्से से उत्पन्न होने वाले आर्थिक विकास की संभावना से है। 2. भारत की कुल प्रजनन दर (TFR) 2016 तक प्रतिस्थापन स्तर 2.1 से काफी नीचे गिर गई थी। 3. भारतीय राज्यों में केरल की साक्षरता दर सबसे अधिक है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The United Nations Population Fund defines the demographic dividend as economic growth potential resulting from shifts in a country's age structure when the working-age population (15-64) exceeds the dependent population, and Kerala consistently records the highest literacy rate among all Indian states (over 94%). Statement 2 is incorrect because according to the National Family Health Survey-4 (NFHS-4, 2015-16), India's Total Fertility Rate stood at 2.2, which was above the demographic replacement fertility threshold of 2.1 (it declined below replacement level to 2.0 only in NFHS-5, 2019-21).
With reference to the Ease of Doing Business report, consider the following statements: 1. It was published annually by the World Bank. 2. India's rank improved to 63 in the Doing Business 2020 report released in October 2019. 3. The report covered all 193 member states of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
'ईज ऑफ डूइंग बिजनेस' रिपोर्ट के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह विश्व बैंक द्वारा प्रतिवर्ष प्रकाशित की जाती थी। 2. अक्टूबर 2019 में जारी डूइंग बिजनेस 2020 रिपोर्ट में भारत की रैंक सुधरकर 63 हो गई। 3. यह रिपोर्ट संयुक्त राष्ट्र के सभी 193 सदस्य देशों को कवर करती थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The flagship Ease of Doing Business index was published annually by the World Bank Group measuring regulatory efficiency across economies, and in the Doing Business 2020 study released in October 2019, India surged 14 places to secure the 63rd rank globally. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Doing Business assessment evaluated 190 economies, not all 193 United Nations member states.
Consider the following pairs of tiger reserves/national parks and the states in which they are located: 1. Jim Corbett — Uttarakhand 2. Bandipur — Karnataka 3. Kanha — Madhya Pradesh 4. Sundarbans — Odisha Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
बाघ अभयारण्यों (टाइगर रिजर्व)/राष्ट्रीय उद्यानों और उन राज्यों के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए जिनमें वे स्थित हैं: 1. जिम कॉर्बेट — उत्तराखंड 2. बांदीपुर — कर्नाटक 3. कान्हा — मध्य प्रदेश 4. सुंदरबन — ओडिशा उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. Jim Corbett National Park is situated in the Nainital and Pauri Garhwal districts of Uttarakhand, Bandipur Tiger Reserve forms a vital corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve of Karnataka, and Kanha Tiger Reserve is located in the Maikal range of Madhya Pradesh. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because Sundarbans National Park and Tiger Reserve lies in the deltaic mangrove region of West Bengal, not Odisha (Odisha hosts Similipal and Satkosia tiger reserves).
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists. List-I List-II (Revolution) (Related with) A. Golden Revolution 1. Oil seed production B. Grey Revolution 2. Horticulture and Honey C. Yellow Revolution 3. Petroleum production D. Black Revolution 4. Fertilizers Code: A B C D
सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर चुनिए: | सूची-I (क्रांति) | सूची-II (संबंधित क्षेत्र) | | :--- | :--- | | A. स्वर्ण क्रांति | 1. उर्वरक उत्पादन | | B. धूसर क्रांति | 2. उद्यानिकी एवं शहद | | C. पीली क्रांति | 3. तिलहन उत्पादन | | D. काली क्रांति | 4. पेट्रोलियम उत्पादन | कूट: A B C D
Matching Agricultural and Industrial Revolutions with their Sectors:
| Revolution | Related Economic Sector |
| :--- | :--- |
| A. Golden Revolution | 2. Horticulture and Honey Production (Spearheaded by Nirpakh Tutej, 1991–2003) |
| B. Grey Revolution | 4. Fertilizers (Focused on increasing chemical fertilizer production to boost crop yields) |
| C. Yellow Revolution | 1. Oilseeds Production (Led by Sam Pitroda in 1986–87, focused on mustard, sesame, sunflower) |
| D. Black Revolution | 3. Petroleum Production (Aimed at accelerating crude petroleum production and ethanol blending) |
Hence, the correct matching code is A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (Option A).
Consider the following pairs of international conventions and their subject matter: 1. Montreal Protocol — Ozone-depleting substances 2. Kyoto Protocol — Reduction of greenhouse gas emissions 3. Paris Agreement — Limiting global warming to well below 2°C 4. Basel Convention — Persistent organic pollutants Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलनों और उनकी विषय-वस्तु के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. मॉन्ट्रियल प्रोटोकॉल — ओजोन-क्षयकारी पदार्थ 2. क्योटो प्रोटोकॉल — ग्रीनहाउस गैस उत्सर्जन में कमी 3. पेरिस समझौता — ग्लोबल वार्मिंग को 2°C से काफी नीचे सीमित करना 4. बेसल कन्वेंशन — स्थायी जैविक प्रदूषक (POPs) उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched. The 1987 Montreal Protocol mandates the phase-out of ozone-depleting substances like CFCs and halons, the 1997 Kyoto Protocol set legally binding emissions reduction targets for Annex I developed nations, and the 2015 Paris Agreement establishes the collective goal to hold global temperature rise well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because the 1989 Basel Convention controls the transboundary movements and disposal of hazardous wastes, whereas Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are governed by the Stockholm Convention of 2001.
With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. 2. The Preamble is enforceable in a court of law. 3. The Preamble has been amended only once so far. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारतीय संविधान की प्रस्तावना (उद्देशिका) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 'समाजवादी' और 'पंथनिरपेक्ष' शब्द 42वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा प्रस्तावना में जोड़े गए थे। 2. प्रस्तावना किसी न्यायालय में प्रवर्तनीय (enforceable) है। 3. प्रस्तावना में अब तक केवल एक बार संशोधन किया गया है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 amended the Preamble for the only time in India's history, inserting the three words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court affirmed in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) that although the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution, it is non-justiciable and cannot be directly enforced in any court of law.
With reference to air pollution in India, consider the following statements: 1. PM2.5 refers to particulate matter with a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometres. 2. National Ambient Air Quality Standards are notified by the Central Pollution Control Board under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. 3. Bharat Stage VI emission norms were to be implemented across India from April 2020. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में वायु प्रदूषण के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. PM2.5 का तात्पर्य 2.5 माइक्रोमीटर से कम व्यास वाले सूक्ष्म कणिकीय पदार्थ (पार्टिकुलेट मैटर) से है। 2. राष्ट्रीय परिवेशी वायु गुणवत्ता मानक (NAAQS) केंद्रीय प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड द्वारा वायु (प्रदूषण निवारण और नियंत्रण) अधिनियम, 1981 के तहत अधिसूचित किए जाते हैं। 3. भारत स्टेज VI (BS-VI) उत्सर्जन मानदंड पूरे भारत में अप्रैल 2020 से लागू किए जाने थे। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. PM2.5 defines fine respirable particles with aerodynamic diameter equal to or smaller than 2.5 micrometres capable of penetrating deep into lungs and bloodstreams, the CPCB notifies National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) covering 12 air pollutants under the Air Act of 1981, and the Government of India mandated a nationwide transition directly from BS-IV to stringent BS-VI emission standards effective 1 April 2020.
With reference to the Bhakti movement, consider the following statements: 1. The verses of Kabir are compiled in the Bijak, the sacred text of the Kabirpanthis. 2. Guru Nanak founded the Khalsa Panth. 3. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu popularised congregational singing (kirtans) in Bengal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भक्ति आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. कबीर की रचनाएं कबीरपंथियों के पवित्र ग्रंथ 'बीजक' में संकलित हैं। 2. गुरु नानक ने खालसा पंथ की स्थापना की थी। 3. चैतन्य महाप्रभु ने बंगाल में संकीर्तन (सामूहिक कीर्तन) को लोकप्रिय बनाया। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Kabir's poetic compositions are preserved primarily in the Bijak, the Kabir Granthavali, and the Guru Granth Sahib, and Chaitanya Mahaprabhu popularized Gaudiya Vaishnavism through congregational singing (kirtan) across Bengal and Odisha. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Khalsa Panth was founded by the tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh, in 1699 at Anandpur Sahib.
With reference to Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in India, consider the following statements: 1. EIA is mandated under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. The first EIA Notification was issued in 1994. 3. Public hearing is a component of the EIA process for certain categories of projects. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में पर्यावरण प्रभाव आकलन (EIA) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. ईआईए पर्यावरण (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1986 के तहत अनिवार्य है। 2. पहली ईआईए अधिसूचना 1994 में जारी की गई थी। 3. जन सुनवाई (पब्लिक हियरिंग) कुछ श्रेणियों की परियोजनाओं के लिए ईआईए प्रक्रिया का एक घटक है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. In India, statutory environmental impact assessment is promulgated under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the first comprehensive EIA Notification making prior environmental clearance mandatory for designated developmental projects was issued by the Union Environment Ministry in 1994 (superseded by the 2006 Notification), and public consultation/hearing is an indispensable stage for Category A and designated Category B1 development activities.
With reference to renewable energy in India, consider the following statements: 1. India announced a target of achieving 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2022. 2. The International Solar Alliance is headquartered in Gurugram, India. 3. Solar energy is classified as a non-renewable source of energy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत में नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत ने 2022 तक 175 गीगावाट (GW) नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा क्षमता प्राप्त करने का लक्ष्य घोषित किया था। 2. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सौर गठबंधन (ISA) का मुख्यालय गुरुग्राम, भारत में स्थित है। 3. सौर ऊर्जा को ऊर्जा के गैर-नवीकरणीय (अनवीकरणीय) स्रोत के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. India set an ambitious national target of establishing 175 GW of grid-connected renewable power capacity by the end of 2022 (comprising 100 GW solar, 60 GW wind, 10 GW biomass, and 5 GW small hydro), and the treaty-based International Solar Alliance (ISA) launched jointly by India and France is headquartered at the National Institute of Solar Energy campus in Gurugram, Haryana. Statement 3 is incorrect because solar radiation is an inexhaustible, clean, and perpetually self-replenishing renewable resource.
With reference to mangroves, consider the following statements: 1. They act as natural barriers against storm surges and coastal erosion. 2. The Sundarbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world. 3. Mangroves grow only in freshwater ecosystems. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
मैंग्रोव (कच्छ वनस्पति) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. वे तूफानी लहरों (स्टॉर्म सर्ज) और तटीय कटाव के खिलाफ प्राकृतिक बाधाओं के रूप में कार्य करते हैं। 2. सुंदरबन विश्व का सबसे बड़ा मैंग्रोव वन है। 3. मैंग्रोव केवल मीठे पानी (स्वच्छ जल) के पारिस्थितिक तंत्र में उगते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Mangrove plant communities possess dense prop root and pneumatophore networks that dissipate destructive wave energy, attenuate storm surges, and trap coastal sediment to prevent shoreline erosion; and the transboundary Sundarbans delta spanning India and Bangladesh constitutes the largest contiguous tidal halophytic mangrove tract on the planet. Statement 3 is incorrect because mangroves are specialised halophytic shrubs and trees uniquely adapted to saline, brackish, and tidal intertidal littoral marine environments.
With reference to basic concepts of physics, consider the following statements: 1. The SI unit of electric current is the ampere. 2. Sound waves cannot travel through a vacuum. 3. Light travels faster in water than in air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भौतिकी की मूलभूत अवधारणाओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. विद्युत धारा का SI मात्रक एम्पीयर है। 2. ध्वनि तरंगें निर्वात (वैक्यूम) से होकर नहीं गुजर सकतीं। 3. प्रकाश हवा की तुलना में पानी में तेजी से गति करता है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The ampere (A) is one of the seven foundational SI base units measuring the rate of electric charge flow, and sound waves are mechanical longitudinal waves that strictly require a material elastic medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to transmit pressure oscillations, making propagation through a vacuum impossible. Statement 3 is incorrect because light travels fastest in a vacuum and air (roughly 3 × 10^8 m/s) and decelerates when entering denser optical media like water (approx 2.25 × 10^8 m/s, refractive index 1.33).
With reference to basic concepts of chemistry, consider the following statements: 1. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is 7. 2. Common salt is chemically known as sodium chloride. 3. Rusting of iron is a process of reduction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
रसायन विज्ञान की मूलभूत अवधारणाओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 25°C पर एक उदासीन (न्यूट्रल) विलयन का pH मान 7 होता है। 2. साधारण नमक को रासायनिक रूप से सोडियम क्लोराइड के नाम से जाना जाता है। 3. लोहे पर जंग लगना अपचयन (रिडक्शन) की एक प्रक्रिया है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In aqueous chemistry at standard temperature (25°C), pure neutral water exhibits equal concentrations of hydrogen and hydroxide ions yielding a pH of precisely 7, and household table salt is an ionic crystalline chemical compound composed of sodium chloride (NaCl). Statement 3 is incorrect because the rusting of iron is an electrochemical oxidation reaction in which metallic iron loses electrons to oxygen in the presence of water to form hydrated iron(III) oxide (Fe2O3·nH2O).
With reference to cell biology, consider the following statements: 1. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell. 2. Photosynthesis takes place in the chloroplasts. 3. A normal human somatic cell contains 46 chromosomes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
कोशिका विज्ञान (सेल बायोलॉजी) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. माइटोकॉन्ड्रिया को कोशिका का 'ऊर्जा गृह' (पावरहाउस) कहा जाता है। 2. प्रकाश संश्लेषण क्लोरोप्लास्ट (हरितलवक) में होता है। 3. एक सामान्य मानव कायिक कोशिका (सोमैटिक सेल) में 46 गुणसूत्र होते हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. Mitochondria generate the bulk of cellular chemical energy through oxidative phosphorylation yielding adenosine triphosphate (ATP), plant chloroplasts contain chlorophyll pigment to absorb solar energy and drive the photochemical reactions of photosynthesis, and non-gametic human diploid somatic cells contain 23 homologous pairs or 46 chromosomes in their nuclei.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the hills of Central India located from West to East?
पश्चिम से पूर्व की ओर स्थित मध्य भारत की पहाड़ियों का निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक सही क्रम है?
Moving from west to east across Central India, the correct physiological sequence is: first, the western Satpura Range in Gujarat/Maharashtra; second, the Mahadeo Hills harboring Dhupgarh peak in central Madhya Pradesh; third, the Maikal Range containing the Amarkantak plateau eastward; and finally, the Chhotanagpur Plateau situated across Jharkhand and West Bengal.
With reference to India's defence capabilities, consider the following statements: 1. INS Vikrant is India's first indigenously built aircraft carrier. 2. Agni-V is a long-range (intercontinental range) ballistic missile. 3. Tejas is a light combat aircraft developed indigenously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
भारत की रक्षा क्षमताओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. आईएनएस विक्रांत भारत का पहला स्वदेश निर्मित विमानवाहक पोत (एयरक्राफ्ट कैरियर) है। 2. अग्नि-V लंबी दूरी (अंतरमहाद्वीपीय दूरी) की बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल है। 3. तेजस स्वदेशी रूप से विकसित एक हल्का लड़ाकू विमान (LCA) है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. INS Vikrant (IAC-1) was constructed by Cochin Shipyard Limited as India's maiden indigenous aircraft carrier, Agni-V is a three-stage solid-fuel nuclear-capable intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) developed by DRDO with a operational strike range exceeding 5,000 km, and LCA Tejas is an indigenous fly-by-wire single-engine supersonic multirole fighter aircraft developed by ADA and HAL.
With reference to biotechnology, consider the following statements: 1. DNA is the primary genetic material in most living organisms. 2. CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing technology. 3. Bt brinjal was approved for commercial cultivation in India in 2010. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
जैव प्रौद्योगिकी (बायोटेक्नोलॉजी) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. अधिकांश जीवित जीवों में डीएनए (DNA) प्राथमिक आनुवंशिक पदार्थ है। 2. CRISPR-Cas9 एक जीन-संपादन (जीन-एडिटिंग) तकनीक है। 3. बीटी बैंगन को 2010 में भारत में व्यावसायिक खेती के लिए मंजूरी दी गई थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) stores hereditary genetic instructions across cellular life forms, and the CRISPR-Cas9 endonuclease ribonucleoprotein complex functions as a precise molecular scissor for targeted genomic editing. Statement 3 is incorrect because although the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) recommended approval in 2009, the Union Environment Ministry imposed an indefinite moratorium on the commercial cultivation of Bt brinjal in February 2010; Bt cotton remains India's sole commercially released GM crop.
With reference to information technology, consider the following statements: 1. Blockchain is a distributed ledger technology. 2. IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses. 3. 5G services were commercially launched across all major Indian cities in 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. ब्लॉकचेन एक वितरित बहीखाता (डिस्ट्रिब्यूटेड लेजर) तकनीक है। 2. IPv6 128-बिट पतों (एड्रेसेस) का उपयोग करता है। 3. 2019 में सभी प्रमुख भारतीय शहरों में 5G सेवाएं व्यावसायिक रूप से शुरू की गई थीं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Blockchain operates as a decentralized, immutable peer-to-peer distributed ledger secured by cryptographic hash chains and consensus protocols, and Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) deploys a 128-bit address space (providing 2^128 unique addresses) to overcome the address exhaustion of 32-bit IPv4. Statement 3 is incorrect because commercial 5G telecommunication networks were officially launched in India on 1 October 2022 during the India Mobile Congress, not 2019.
With reference to human diseases, consider the following statements: 1. Japanese Encephalitis is a viral disease transmitted by mosquitoes. 2. Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 3. Antibiotics are effective against viral infections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
मानव रोगों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जापानी एन्सेफलाइटिस एक वायरल (विषाणुजनित) रोग है जो मच्छरों द्वारा फैलता है। 2. तपेदिक (टीबी) माइकोबैक्टीरियम ट्यूबरकुलोसिस जीवाणु के कारण होता है। 3. एंटीबायोटिक्स वायरल संक्रमण के खिलाफ प्रभावी हैं। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Japanese Encephalitis is an acute viral brain infection caused by a flavivirus transmitted to humans by bites from infected Culex mosquitoes, and Tuberculosis is an infectious bacterial disease primarily affecting lungs caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Statement 3 is incorrect because antibiotics specifically target bacterial cell walls, protein synthesis, and metabolic enzymes, possessing zero therapeutic activity against viral pathogens.
With reference to nuclear energy, consider the following statements: 1. Nuclear power reactors generate energy through the process of nuclear fission. 2. India's three-stage nuclear power programme envisages the use of thorium in the third stage. 3. The International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) is located in France. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
परमाणु ऊर्जा के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. परमाणु ऊर्जा रिएक्टर नाभिकीय विखंडन (न्यूक्लियर फिशन) की प्रक्रिया के माध्यम से ऊर्जा उत्पन्न करते हैं। 2. भारत का तीन-चरणीय परमाणु ऊर्जा कार्यक्रम तीसरे चरण में थोरियम के उपयोग की परिकल्पना करता है। 3. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय थर्मोन्यूक्लियर प्रायोगिक रिएक्टर (ITER) फ्रांस में स्थित है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. Commercial nuclear reactors harness heat energy from controlled nuclear fission of heavy fissile nuclides like uranium-235, Homi J. Bhabha's three-stage nuclear power strategy explicitly formulates the third stage utilizing India's abundant monazite thorium reserves in Advanced Heavy Water Reactors, and the mega-scientific ITER fusion experimental tokamak facility is sited at Saint-Paul-lès-Durance in southern France.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The highest concentration of seismic zones lies in Himalayan region in India. Reason (R): There are many longitudinal thrust zones in Himalayas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
नीचे दो कथन दिए गए हैं, एक को अभिकथन (A) और दूसरे को कारण (R) कहा गया है: अभिकथन (A): भारत में भूकंपीय क्षेत्रों की सर्वाधिक सघनता हिमालयी क्षेत्र में स्थित है। कारण (R): हिमालय में कई अनुदैर्ध्य क्षेप क्षेत्र (थ्रस्ट जोन) मौजूद हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए:
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A). The ongoing continent-continent tectonic collision between the northward-moving Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate has created extensive longitudinal regional thrust systems across the Himalayas—namely the Main Central Thrust (MCT), Main Boundary Thrust (MBT), and Himalayan Frontal Thrust (HFT)—accumulating immense tectonic strain that is intermittently released as destructive high-intensity earthquakes in Seismic Zones IV and V.
Which of the following freedoms is not guaranteed by the Indian Constitution under Article 19?
अनुच्छेद 9 के अंतर्गत निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी एक स्वतंत्रताकी भारतीय संविधान द्वारा गारंटी नहीं दी गई है?
Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution:
Originally, Article 19(1) guaranteed seven fundamental freedoms to Indian citizens.
However, the freedom to 'acquire, hold and dispose of property' under Article 19(1)(f) was repealed and omitted from Part III by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 (under the Morarji Desai Janata Party Government). It was reconstituted merely as a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
Currently, Article 19 guarantees six basic freedoms:
- 19(1)(a): Freedom of speech and expression
- 19(1)(b): Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms
- 19(1)(c): Freedom to form associations, unions, or cooperative societies
- 19(1)(d): Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India
- 19(1)(e): Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
- 19(1)(g): Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Therefore, the freedom to own, acquire, and dispose of property is no longer guaranteed under Article 19.
Which community has the lowest sex ratio in India as disclosed in the additional data pertaining to Census 2011 released recently?
वर्ष 2011 की जनगणना के हाल ही में जारी अतिरिक्त आंकड़ों के अनुसार, भारत में किस धार्मिक समुदाय का लिंगानुपात सबसे कम है?
Correct Option: Option (B) — 1 and 2 only is the correct answer.
- Statement(s) 1, 2 are correct:
- 1. The Karakoram range lies to the north-west of the main Himalayan ranges.
- 2. K2 (Mount Godwin-Austen) is located in the Karakoram range.
- Statement(s) 3 is/are incorrect:
- 3. The Shivalik is the innermost range of the Himalayas.
With reference to water-related initiatives of 2019, consider the following statements: 1. The Jal Shakti Abhiyan was launched in 2019 with a focus on water conservation in water-stressed districts. 2. The Ministry of Jal Shakti was formed in 2019 by merging water-related ministries/departments. 3. The Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide piped water supply to all rural households by 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2019 की जल संबंधी पहलों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. जल शक्ति अभियान 2019 में जल-तनावग्रस्त (वाटर-स्ट्रेस्ड) जिलों में जल संरक्षण पर ध्यान केंद्रित करने के लिए शुरू किया गया था। 2. जल शक्ति मंत्रालय का गठन 2019 में जल से संबंधित मंत्रालयों/विभागों का विलय करके किया गया था। 3. जल जीवन मिशन का लक्ष्य 2024 तक सभी ग्रामीण परिवारों को नल से जल की आपूर्ति प्रदान करना है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
All three statements are correct. In 2019, the Union Government created the integrated Ministry of Jal Shakti by amalgamating the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation with the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation; initiated the time-bound Jal Shakti Abhiyan across 256 water-stressed districts; and launched the Jal Jeevan Mission (Har Ghar Jal) on 15 August 2019 to ensure functional household tap connections (FHTC) to every rural household by 2024.
With reference to the Supreme Court's Ayodhya judgment of November 2019, consider the following statements: 1. The judgment was delivered in November 2019. 2. The Court directed that the disputed site be allotted for the construction of a Ram temple and that alternative land be provided for a mosque. 3. The judgment was delivered by a seven-judge Constitution Bench. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
नवंबर 2019 के सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के अयोध्या फैसले के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. यह फैसला नवंबर 2019 में सुनाया गया था। 2. न्यायालय ने निर्देश दिया कि विवादित स्थल को राम मंदिर के निर्माण के लिए आवंटित किया जाए और मस्जिद के लिए वैकल्पिक भूमि प्रदान की जाए। 3. यह फैसला सात न्यायाधीशों की संविधान पीठ द्वारा सुनाया गया था। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. On 9 November 2019, the Supreme Court delivered a historic unanimous verdict awarding the entire disputed 2.77-acre site in Ayodhya to a government trust for constructing a Ram temple, while ordering the allotment of a suitable 5-acre prominent alternative plot to the Sunni Central Waqf Board for a mosque. Statement 3 is incorrect because the judgment was rendered by a five-judge Constitution Bench (presided over by Chief Justice of India Ranjan Gogoi alongside Justices S.A. Bobde, D.Y. Chandrachud, Ashok Bhushan, and S. Abdul Nazeer), not a seven-judge bench.
With reference to major international events of 2019, consider the following statements: 1. The G20 Summit of 2019 was held in Osaka, Japan. 2. The UN Climate Action Summit of 2019 was convened in New York. 3. India hosted the COP25 climate conference in 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2019 की प्रमुख अंतर्राष्ट्रीय घटनाओं के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 2019 का जी-20 (G20) शिखर सम्मेलन ओसाका, जापान में आयोजित किया गया था। 2. 2019 का संयुक्त राष्ट्र जलवायु कार्रवाई शिखर सम्मेलन न्यूयॉर्क में आयोजित किया गया था। 3. भारत ने 2019 में कॉप 25 (COP25) जलवायु सम्मेलन की मेजबानी की थी। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 14th G20 Summit convened in Osaka, Japan on 28-29 June 2019 under the presidency of Prime Minister Shinzo Abe, and UN Secretary-General António Guterres convened the Climate Action Summit in New York on 23 September 2019 to accelerate global net-zero ambitions. Statement 3 is incorrect because the UN Climate Change Conference (COP25) was held in Madrid, Spain in December 2019 under the presidency of Chile, not in India.
Consider the following pairs of awards/prizes of 2019 and their recipients: 1. Bharat Ratna — Pranab Mukherjee 2. Nobel Peace Prize — Abiy Ahmed 3. Booker Prize — Margaret Atwood 4. Ramon Magsaysay Award — Ravish Kumar Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
2019 के पुरस्कारों और उनके प्राप्तकर्ताओं के निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत रत्न — प्रणब मुखर्जी 2. नोबेल शांति पुरस्कार — अबी अहमद 3. बुकर पुरस्कार — मार्गरेट एटवुड 4. रेमन मैग्सेसे पुरस्कार — रवीश कुमार उपर्युक्त युग्मों में से कौन-से सही सुमेलित हैं?
All four pairs are correctly matched. Former President Pranab Mukherjee was conferred India's highest civilian honor, the Bharat Ratna, in August 2019 (alongside Nanaji Deshmukh and Bhupen Hazarika); Ethiopian Prime Minister Abiy Ahmed was awarded the 2019 Nobel Peace Prize for ending the protracted border conflict with Eritrea; Margaret Atwood jointly won the 2019 Booker Prize for 'The Testaments' (with Bernardine Evaristo); and Indian journalist Ravish Kumar received the 2019 Ramon Magsaysay Award for ethical journalism.
Consider the following statements with reference to cotton crops: 1. Cotton is mostly a Kharif crop. 2. Cotton crop requires moderate amounts of rainfall varying between 50–75 cm annually. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
कपास की फसल के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. भारत में कपास मुख्य रूप से एक खरीफ फसल है। 2. कपास की फसल के लिए 50–75 सेमी वार्षिक वर्षा की मध्यम मात्रा की आवश्यकता होती है। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Agronomic characteristics of Cotton (Gossypium spp.):
- Statement 1 is correct: In India, cotton is primarily cultivated as a Kharif crop across the tropical and subtropical regions. It is sown between April and June (depending on monsoon arrival or irrigation in North/Central/South zones) and harvested between October and February.
- Statement 2 is correct: Cotton requires a warm climate with moderate rainfall of 50 cm to 100 cm evenly distributed during its vegetative growth phase. Abundant sunshine and at least 210 frost-free days are essential. Stagnant water, heavy rainfall, or frost during the boll-bursting phase are detrimental to fiber quality.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
With reference to India's foreign engagements in 2019, consider the following statements: 1. The 'Howdy Modi' event of September 2019 was held in Houston, USA. 2. India was invited as a guest country to the G7 Summit held in Biarritz, France. 3. India formally joined the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) in November 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2019 में भारत के विदेशी कूटनीतिक जुड़ावों के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. सितंबर 2019 का 'हाउडी मोदी' कार्यक्रम ह्यूस्टन, अमेरिका में आयोजित किया गया था। 2. फ्रांस के बियारिट्ज़ में आयोजित जी-7 (G7) शिखर सम्मेलन में भारत को एक अतिथि देश के रूप में आमंत्रित किया गया था। 3. भारत औपचारिक रूप से नवंबर 2019 में क्षेत्रीय व्यापक आर्थिक भागीदारी (RCEP) में शामिल हो गया। उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. On 22 September 2019, the mega diaspora event 'Howdy, Modi!' was held at NRG Stadium in Houston, Texas with US President Donald Trump sharing the stage, and French President Emmanuel Macron extended a special invitation to India to participate as a partner country in the 45th G7 Summit in Biarritz in August 2019. Statement 3 is incorrect because on 4 November 2019 at the 3rd RCEP Summit in Bangkok, India formally announced its decision not to join the RCEP trade agreement to safeguard its domestic agriculture, dairy, and manufacturing sectors from unsustainable trade imbalances.
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