Both statements (A) and (B) are historically correct:

1. Statement (A): At the landmark Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920 (chaired by C. Vijayaraghavachariar), the Congress constitution was reorganized under Mahatma Gandhi's guidance. Provincial Congress Committees (PCCs) were reconstituted on a linguistic basis rather than British administrative divisions, enabling the national movement to mobilize the masses in regional vernacular languages.
2. Statement (B): Following the S.K. Dhar Commission's recommendation against linguistic reorganization in 1948, the Congress at its Jaipur Session in December 1948 constituted the JVP Committee (Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya). The committee's report formally rejected language as the basis for the immediate creation of new provinces, prioritizing national unity, security, and economic stability in post-Partition India.

Therefore, both statements (A) and (B) are true. Option (D) is correct.

Option (A) is correct: Sixteen silver coins of the famous Indo-Greek ruler King Menander (Milinda) were discovered from the ancient archaeological site of Bairat (ancient Viratnagar, Jaipur district) out of a hoard of 36 coins found wrapped in a cotton cloth during excavations led by Daya Ram Sahni.

Option (C) is correct: Bhartribhatta-I does not belong to the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty; he was an early ruler of the Guhila dynasty of Mewar (Ahar/Chittor branch). Nagabhatta-II, Mahendrapala-I, and Devapala were imperial Gurjara-Pratihara rulers of Kannauj.

Option (C) is correct: In pre-medieval kingdoms of Rajasthan, the administrative designation 'Naimittika' (नैमित्तिक) referred to the State Astrologer (राजकीय ज्योतिषी / शकुनशास्त्री) who interpreted omens, auspicious timings (muhurta), and planetary movements for the royal court.

Option (C) is correct: Thakur Kesari Singh Barhat, the renowned freedom fighter and revolutionary poet of Rajasthan (author of 'Chetavani Ra Chungtya'), was convicted in 1914 in the Mahant Pyarelal Ramdas murder case of Kota (1912) and sentenced to 20 years of rigorous imprisonment at Hazaribagh Central Jail in Bihar.

Charles Metcalfe, the British Resident at Delhi, negotiated the subordinate alliances of 1817-18 with the princely states of Rajputana under Lord Hastings. Hence, Option (A) is correct.

Udaipur (Mewar) joined Rajasthan in the third stage on 18th April 1948, whereas Bundi, Pratapgarh, and Shahpura joined in the second stage on 25th March 1948.

Hari Bhau Upadhyaya (1892–1972) was the editor of the prominent Hindi periodical 'Tyag Bhumi' (त्याग भूमि), which began publication from Ajmer in 1927. Upadhyaya was an eminent Gandhian leader, author, and social reformer who established the 'Gandhi Ashram' at Hatundi (Ajmer) and the 'Sasta Sahitya Mandal'. 'Tyag Bhumi' was a leading nationalist journal dedicated to popularising Gandhian philosophy, khadi, eradication of untouchability, women's empowerment, and political consciousness across Rajasthan. He later served as the first and only Chief Minister of the erstwhile Ajmer State (Ajmer-Merwara) from 1952 until its merger with Rajasthan in 1956. Hence, Option (A) is the correct answer.

The correct match between temples and their respective districts is:

• i. Kameshwar Mahadev Temple: A magniiicent 9th-century Gurjara-Pratihara style temple located at Auwa in Pali district -> (d)
• ii. Shitaleshwar Mahadev Temple: Located on the banks of Chandrabhaga river in Chandravati (Jhalrapatan), Jhalawar district, dated to 689 AD (746 Vikram Samvat), it is the earliest dated temple in Rajasthan -> (c)
• iii. Pipala Mata Temple: A prominent Pratihara-era 10th-century temple situated at Osian in Jodhpur district -> (b)
• iv. Nilkantha Mahadev Temple: An ancient Gurjara-Pratihara temple complex located at Rajorgarh (Paranagar) in Alwar district -> (a)

Matching sequence: i-(d), ii-(c), iii-(b), iv-(a). Hence, Option (B) [d c b a] is the correct answer.

Saatveesh Devari (सत्तवीस देवरी, meaning 27 shrines) inside Chittorgarh Fort is a prominent Shwetambara Jain temple built in the 11th century. It consists of 27 miniature shrines/sanctums (devaris) housing idols of Jain Tirthankaras.

Analysis of other options:

• Kumbh Shyam Temple: A grand Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu (Varaha avatar), built/renovated by Maharana Kumbha in 1448 AD.
• Samiddheswar Temple: A Shaiva temple built by Paramara King Bhoja in the 11th century (originally Tribhuvan Narayana Temple) and renovated by Maharana Mokal in 1428 AD (Mokalji temple).
• Tulja Bhawani Temple: A Hindu temple dedicated to Goddess Tulja Bhawani built by Banvir in 1536–40 AD using wealth from his tuladan.

Therefore, Saatveesh Devari is the Jain temple. Option (B) is correct.

Nanakram (Option C) does not belong to the Alwar School of Painting; he was a celebrated master painter of the Kishangarh School of Painting (Marwar school) during the golden era of Sawant Singh (Nagridas), working alongside Nihal Chand, Sitaram, Amar Chand, and Badan Singh.

The Alwar School of Painting (a sub-school of Dhundhar school) developed under Rao Raja Pratap Singh, Bakhtawar Singh, and Vinay Singh, and includes prominent painters such as Daluram, Baldev, Saligram, Jamnadas, Chhotelal, Bakasaram, and Nandram.

Hence, Nanakram does not belong to the Alwar school. Option (C) is correct.

Option (A) is not correctly matched: 'Bol Bharmali' (बोल भारमली) is a celebrated Rajasthani poetic work composed by Satyaprakash Joshi (not Yadvendra Sharma 'Chandra'). All other pairs are correctly matched: Pagfero by Mani Madhukar, Kodamde by Meghraj Mukul, and Pagi by Chandra Prakash Deval.

Gavari Devi was a legendary folk singer of Rajasthan renowned internationally for her mastery over the traditional 'Mand' singing style (famous for renditions of 'Kesariya Balam Aao Ni Padhari Mhare Des'). Hence Option (B) is correct.

Saint Daya Bai and Sahajo Bai were prominent female disciples of Saint Charandas (founder of the Charandasi sect in the Mewat region). Daya Bai composed devotional texts such as 'Daya Bodh' and 'Vinay Malika'. Option (A) is correct.

Loor is a traditional folk dance performed by women of the Garasia tribe during marriage ceremonies and the festival of Holi. Gavari is performed by Bhils, Bam by the Meo/Brij community, and Terahtali by the Kamad community. Option (B) is correct.

Both statements are factually true. Vijaydan Detha ('Bijji') was a celebrated Rajasthani folklorist whose folk story was adapted by Habib Tanvir into the classic play 'Charandas Chor'. He also co-founded Rupayan Sansthan at Borunda alongside Komal Kothari in 1960. Hence Option (D) is correct.

Correct match:

• A. Elbrus -> Russia (iv)
• B. Kilimanjaro -> Tanzania (iii)
• C. Mt. Cook -> New Zealand (i)
• D. McKinley -> U.S.A. (ii)

Code: A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) corresponds to Option (C).

Alpha diversity represents diversity within a particular local habitat or ecosystem (species richness at local scale). Beta diversity measures the turnover or differentiation of species between ecosystems. Gamma diversity measures overall regional diversity. Hence Alpha index represents mean species diversity at a local scale (Option A).

Option (B) is not correctly matched: Southern New England is a major historical industrial region located in the northeastern United States of America (USA), not the United Kingdom. Ruhr is in Germany, Po Valley is in northern Italy, and the Kanto Plain (Tokyo-Yokohama) is in Japan.

Kiel Canal connects the North Sea and Baltic Sea; Soo Canal links Lake Superior and Huron; Panama Canal connects the Atlantic and Paciiic; and Suez Canal links the Mediterranean and Red Sea.

Option (B) is correct: Salher (1,567 m) is located in the Sahyadri range of the Western Ghats in Nashik district of Maharashtra (the second-highest peak in Maharashtra after Kalsubai). Gali Konda, Sinkram Gutta, and Madugula Konda are peaks of the Eastern Ghats.

As of early 2018 in India (ENVIS / Wildlife Institute of India data):

• National Parks = 103
• Wildlife Sanctuaries = 544
• Community Reserves = 46
• Conservation Reserves = 76

Matching according to official answer key yields Option B.

BEL partnered with ISRO to manufacture space-grade Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) solar cells and panels for satellite applications.

Option (D) is not correctly matched: Gudha Vishnoiyan Conservation Reserve is located in Jodhpur district (not Bikaner). Rotu and Gogelav are in Nagaur district, and Beed Jhunjhunu is in Jhunjhunu district.

Option (A) is correct: Matching the districts of Rajasthan with their mountain peaks:

• A. Jalore — Jharola hill (588 m) -> (ii)
• B. Jaipur — Barwada hill (786 m) -> (i)
• C. Alwar — Bhangarh hill (649 m) -> (iv)
• D. Sikar — Raghunathgarh (1,055 m, highest peak of Northern Aravalli) -> (iii).

Option (A) is correct: The Mukandara Hills (located in Kota and Jhalawar districts in the Hadoti plateau region) are a structural extension of the Vindhyan Scarpland / Vindhyan Range in southeastern Rajasthan. Dora mountain (Jalore), Alwar hills, and Girwa hills (Udaipur) belong to the Aravalli system.

Sidhmukh Project benefits Hanumangarh and Churu; Narmada Project benefits Jalore and Barmer; Jawai Project benefits Jalore, Pali and Jodhpur; Jakham Project benefits Udaipur and Pratapgarh. Hence, Option (A) is correct.

In Western Rajasthan, intense summer heating during May and June creates strong localized low-pressure convective cells (convectional currents), causing high-velocity dust storms (locally known as Aandhi). In the official RPSC RAS 2018 paper, Option (D) [Only (A)] is the veriiied answer. Hence, Option (D) is correct.

Rajasthan enjoys a virtual monopoly (almost 100% / sole producer in India) in the production of:

• (A) Lead and Zinc ores: Rajasthan possesses virtually the entire lead-zinc resources of India (Zawar, Rampura Agucha, Rajpura Dariba, Sindesar Khurd mined by Hindustan Zinc Ltd).
• (C) Wollastonite: Rajasthan is the sole producer (100% of national production), mainly from Sirohi, Pali, and Ajmer.
• (D) Selenite (a crystalline variety of gypsum): Rajasthan produces nearly 100% of India's selenite, concentrated in Lunkaransar (Bikaner) and Nagaur.

In contrast, Copper ores (B) are prominently produced in Madhya Pradesh (Malanjkhand in Balaghat is the leading producer of copper ore in India, although Khetri in Rajasthan is historically famous).

Therefore, Rajasthan is almost the sole producer of (A), (C), and (D). Option (D) is correct.

Machia Safari in Jodhpur is designated as a Biological Park and Deer Park, not a statutory Conservation Reserve. Jorbeed Gadhwala (famous for vultures), Gudha Vishnoiyan, and Sundhamata are officially notiiied Conservation Reserves under Section 36A of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Hence, Option (D) is correct.

Option (C) is correct: The Barmer-Sanchore Basin (spread across Barmer and Jalore districts) accounts for over 90% of Rajasthan's crude oil production, hosting major oilfields such as Mangala, Bhagyam, Aishwariya, Raageshwari, and Saraswati.

According to Census 2011: The urban population of India constitutes 31.15% (with 68.85% rural), and the urban population of Rajasthan constitutes 24.87% (with 75.13% rural). Hence, Option (B) [31.15% and 24.87%] is correct.

Option (C) is correct: HPCL Rajasthan Refinery Limited (HRRL) at Pachpadra (Barmer) was incorporated as a joint venture between Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and the Government of Rajasthan with an equity participation of 74% by HPCL and 26% by the Government of Rajasthan.

Option (C) is correct: According to Census 2011, Bikaner (0.33%) and Nagaur (0.31%) recorded the lowest percentage share of Scheduled Tribe (ST) population relative to their total district populations in Rajasthan.

The official wildlife mascot of Sawai Madhopur is the Tiger (not Lion), as it is home to Ranthambore Tiger Reserve.

Option (C) is correct: According to Census 2011 data for Rajasthan, overall female literacy stood at 52.1%, with rural female literacy at 45.8% and urban female literacy at 70.7%.

The Government of India Act, 1919 created the bicameral Central Legislature consisting of the Central Legislative Assembly and the Council of State.

• Elections to the Central Legislative Assembly were conducted under the 1919 Act in 1920, 1923, 1926, 1930, 1934, and the final election in late 1945. Thus, both 1926 (A) and 1945 (C) were held under the Government of India Act, 1919.
• In contrast, the 1937 elections (B) were held for the Provincial Legislative Assemblies under the Government of India Act, 1935 (the federal central legislature part of the 1935 Act never came into operation due to non-accession of princely states).

Therefore, only elections (A) and (C) were held under the Government of India Act, 1919. Option (C) is correct.

'Gandhian Constitution for Free India' (1946) was authored by Shriman Narayan Agarwal (S.N. Agarwal), a prominent Gandhian economist, thinker, and former Governor of Gujarat. The book was published with a foreword written by Mahatma Gandhi himself. In this treatise, Agarwal outlined a decentralised political and economic framework for independent India based on village panchayats (Gram Swaraj), cottage industries, decentralised administration, and Gandhian moral philosophy. Hence, Option (C) is the correct answer.

Option (A) is correct: Only statements (A) and (D) are correct. The Constituent Assembly of India was indirectly elected by members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies (not by direct election or universal adult franchise), was a multi-party body, and functioned through numerous specialized committees.

The landmark Supreme Court judgements dealing with Fundamental Rights in chronological order are:

1. (D) A. K. Gopalan v/s State of Madras: Decided on 19 May 1950 (narrow interpretation of Article 21 and preventive detention; 'procedure established by law').
2. (A) I. C. Golaknath v/s State of Punjab: Decided on 27 February 1967 (held that Parliament cannot abridge or take away Fundamental Rights through constitutional amendments).
3. (B) Kesavananda Bharati v/s State of Kerala: Decided on 24 April 1973 (propounded the 'Basic Structure Doctrine' while upholding Parliament's power to amend the Constitution).
4. (C) Minerva Mills v/s Union of India: Decided on 31 July 1980 (reaffirmed basic structure, striking down sections of the 42nd Amendment that gave unlimited amending power to Parliament).

Correct chronological order: (D) [1950] -> (A) [1967] -> (B) [1973] -> (C) [1980].

In the question options, Option (A) represents the key for this chronological landmark judgements sequence.

In 1976, Congress President D.K. Barooah appointed the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to recommend constitutional amendments, particularly for introducing Fundamental Duties (enacted via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976).

The 12 members of the Swaran Singh Committee included:

1. Sardar Swaran Singh (Chairman)
2. A.R. Antulay (Member-Secretary)
3. Siddhartha Shankar Ray (S.S. Ray)
4. C.M. Stephen
5. H.R. Gokhale
6. V.A. Seyid Muhammad
7. V.N. Gadgil
8. B.N. Banerjee
9. Dinesh Goswami
10. Rajni Patel
11. D.P. Singh
12. K.C. Pant

Haridev Joshi (Chief Minister of Rajasthan at that time) was NOT a member of the committee.

Therefore, members were (A) A.R. Antulay, (B) S.S. Ray, and (D) C.M. Stephen. Option (C) [(A), (B) and (D)] is correct.

Option (D) is correct: Article 315(1) of the Constitution of India provides that there shall be a Public Service Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each State. Article 320 deals with the functions of Public Service Commissions, Article 312 with All-India Services, and Article 324 with the Election Commission.

Option (C) is not correctly matched: Under Article 240(1) of the Constitution of India, 240(1)(a) covers Andaman and Nicobar Islands, 240(1)(b) covers Lakshadweep, 240(1)(c) covers Dadra and Nagar Haveli, 240(1)(d) covers Daman and Diu, and 240(1)(e) covers Puducherry.

Option (C) is correct: President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed signed the proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352 on the ground of 'internal disturbance' on the night of 25 June 1975 on the advice of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Article 87(1) of the Constitution of India explicitly uses the phrase: 'The President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons.' Hence Option D is the exact constitutional terminology.

Under Rule 377 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the maximum number of matters of urgent public importance that members are permitted to raise on a single sitting day is 20.

The three standing Financial Committees of the Indian Parliament are:

1. Estimates Committee (A)
2. Public Accounts Committee (B)
3. Committee on Public Undertakings (C)

The Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowances is an administrative/house committee, not a financial committee. Hence code (A), (B) and (C) is correct (Option C).

According to Article 148(1) of the Constitution of India, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was set up by the Government of India in February 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by K. Santhanam.

The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated in the United States of America in the late 1960s to represent unrepresented interests (consumers, racial minorities, environmentalists) before being introduced into Indian jurisprudence in the late 1970s and 1980s by Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer.

All four terms are explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Right to Information Act, 2005 (Act No. 22 of 2005):

1. 'democracy requires an informed citizenry and transparency of information which are vital to its functioning...' (Covers Statements A and C).
2. 'revelation of information in actual practice is likely to conflict with other public interests including efficient operations of the Governments...' (Covers Statement B).
3. 'preserving the paramountcy of the democratic ideal...' (Covers Statement D).

Because all four expressions—Transparency of information, Revelation of information, Informed citizenry, and Paramountcy of the democratic ideal—appear verbatim in the Preamble, Option (B) [(A), (B), (C) and (D)] is the correct answer.

Option (C) is correct: The correct matching of authors and their books is: (A) Atul Kohli — 'The Success of India's Democracy' (ii); (B) Granville Austin — 'Working a Democratic Constitution: A History of the Indian Experience' (iv); (C) Penderel Moon — 'Divide and Quit' (i); (D) Alan Gledhill — 'The Republic of India: The Development of its Laws and Constitution' (iii).

Option (C) is correct: Under Article 243K of the Constitution of India (inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992), the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats is vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner appointed by the Governor.

The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Modiiication of provisions in their application to the Scheduled Areas) Rules, 2011 provides for convening a joint meeting of the Gram Sabha in Scheduled Areas. Hence, Option (D) is correct.

Option (B) is correct: Among the listed Chief Ministers of Rajasthan, Shivcharan Mathur (B) and Ashok Gehlot (C) never held the post of the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly. Haridev Joshi and Vasundhara Raje both served as Leader of the Opposition.

Under the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayukta Act, 1973, Panchs and Sarpanchs of Village Panchayats are explicitly excluded from the investigative jurisdiction of the Lokayukta.

Analysis of the statements regarding Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission (RSHRC):

• Statement (A) is correct: The State Government issued the notiiication constituting the Commission on 18 January 1999 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• Statement (B) is correct: The Commission became fully functional in March 2000 with the appointment of its first Chairperson, Justice Kanta Bhatnagar.
• Statement (C) is incorrect: Under the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006, the composition of a State Human Rights Commission was reduced to 1 Chairperson and 2 members (not 3 members).
• Statement (D) is correct: Justice Saghir Ahmad, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India, served as the Chairperson of the RSHRC.

Therefore, statements (A), (B), and (D) are correct. Option (B) is the correct answer.

Justice Ramesh Chandra Lahoti (35th Chief Justice of India, 2004–2005) began his judicial career from the Madhya Pradesh High Court (appointed judge in 1988), was transferred to the Delhi High Court in 1994, and was elevated to the Supreme Court of India in 1998. He NEVER served as a judge or Chief Justice in the Rajasthan High Court.

In contrast:

• Justice N.M. Kasliwal: Served as a judge of Rajasthan High Court (1978–1989), later Chief Justice of HP High Court and judge of Supreme Court.
• Justice B.S. Chauhan: Served as a judge of Rajasthan High Court (1997–2003), later Chief Justice of Orissa High Court and judge of Supreme Court.
• Justice A.K. Mathur: Practiced in Jodhpur and served as a judge of Rajasthan High Court (1988–1997), later CJ of MP and Calcutta High Courts and judge of Supreme Court.

Therefore, Justice R.C. Lahoti is the correct answer (Option D).

Option (A) is correct: Poonam Chand Vishnoi holds the unique distinction in Rajasthan's parliamentary history of having served in all three presiding capacities in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly: Protem Speaker (1967), Deputy Speaker (1967–1972), and Speaker (1980–1985).

Under Article 201, when a Bill is reserved by a Governor for the consideration of the President, the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill or withholds assent.

The Rajasthan State Agricultural Marketing Board (RSAMB / राजस्थान राज्य कृषि विपणन बोर्ड) was established on 6 June 1974 under the Rajasthan Agricultural Produce Markets Act, 1961. It is the premier agricultural marketing board responsible for developing market infrastructure, establishing modern Krishi Upaj Mandis, rural haats, cold chain networks, and regulating market committees across the state of Rajasthan.

Analysis of other bodies:

• RAJFED: Rajasthan State Cooperative Marketing Federation Ltd., primarily engaged in cooperative procurement of agricultural produce at Minimum Support Price (MSP).
• TILAM SANGH: Rajasthan Rajya Tilhan Utpadak Sahakari Sangh Ltd., established for processing and marketing oilseeds.
• NABARD: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development, a national apex development finance institution.

Hence, RSAMB is the premier agricultural marketing board (Option A).

Under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) constitutional framework implemented via the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016:

• Ghee (Option D) is a processed dairy commodity classiiied under Chapter 4 of the HSN code and is taxable under GST (at 12%).

Items excluded from GST:

• (1) Alcohol for human consumption: Constitutionally excluded from GST under Article 366(12A) and remains subject to State Excise Duty and State VAT.
• (2) Electricity: Excluded from GST and subject to electricity duty levied by states under Entry 53 of the State List.
• (3) Petroleum Products: The five speciiic petroleum hydrocarbons (petroleum crude, motor spirit/petrol, high-speed diesel, natural gas, and aviation turbine fuel) are temporarily kept out of GST under Article 279A(5) and remain taxed under Central Excise and State VAT.

Therefore, only Ghee is under the purview of GST. Option (D) is correct.

Under the amended Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (amended via the Finance Act, 2016), Section 45ZA empowers the Central Government (Government of India), in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, to determine the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index (CPI) once every five years.

On 5 August 2016, the Government of India officially notiiied an inflation target of 4.0 per cent with an upper tolerance limit of 6.0 per cent and a lower tolerance limit of 2.0 per cent (i.e. 4% +/- 2%) for the period from 5 August 2016 to 31 March 2021. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is mandated to maintain this target. Hence, the target was fixed by the Government of India (Option B).

According to official data from DPIIT and the Reserve Bank of India, Mauritius was the top source country for FDI equity inflows into India during FY 2016-17, accounting for approximately US $15.72 billion (around 34% of total equity inflows), followed by Singapore. Hence, Option (B) is correct.

Option (C) is correct: The Call Money Market (inter-bank overnight money market where funds are borrowed and lent for 1 to 14 days without collateral) is the most sensitive and volatile segment of the organised money market in India, as call rates fluctuate sharply with day-to-day banking liquidity conditions.

Option (D) is correct: Small Savings (such as Post Office Savings, PPF, NSC) create a repayment liability for the government and are therefore part of the Capital Account (Capital Receipts credited to the National Small Savings Fund), not the Revenue Account. Interest receipts, tax receipts, and PSU dividends are Revenue Receipts.

Option (D) is correct: The Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012–2017) of India had the core theme of 'Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth', whereas the Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007–2012) focused on 'Faster and More Inclusive Growth'.

Option (A) is correct: Launched in January 2016 by the Government of Rajasthan, the Mukhya Mantri Jal Swavlamban Abhiyan (MJSA) aims to make rural villages water self-reliant through in-situ rainwater harvesting, watershed management, restoration of traditional water bodies (johads, tankas, stepwells), and groundwater recharge.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Cost-push inflation is driven by an aggregate supply shock wherein overall production costs rise. When nominal wages increase without an equivalent rise in labor productivity, firms face higher marginal and unit production costs. To maintain profitability, firms reduce output and raise prices at every price level, causing the Aggregate Supply (AS) curve to shift leftward/upward. This inward shift of aggregate supply leads directly to higher general price levels (inflation) accompanied by reduced real GDP (stagflationary tendency). Thus, wage hikes shift the aggregate supply curve, causing cost-push inflation.

The Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Rajasthan compiles the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) for the state on a monthly basis taking 1999-2000 as the base year.

According to the Economic Review of Rajasthan for 2017-18, the growth rate of GSDP at constant (2011-12) prices was estimated at 7.16%.

The State's own tax revenue (own taxes comprising SGST, Sales Tax/VAT, State Excise, Motor Vehicles Tax, and Stamps & Registration) constitutes the largest single component of the total revenue receipts of Rajasthan.

As of early 2018, Suratgarh Super Thermal Power Station (including its operational units and super-critical expansion) held the highest total installed capacity among state thermal projects.

Rajasthan ILD Skills University (RISU) - India's first government skill university - was established by the Government of Rajasthan in Jaipur in 2017.

Rajasthan's primary tourism USPs center around its rich cultural heritage: royal trains like Palace on Wheels, historic forts and palaces, and colorful fairs and festivals. Medical tourism is not a designated USP for Rajasthan tourism.

Mangla, Bhagyam, Aishwarya, Saraswati, and Raageshwari are major crude oil fields in the Barmer-Sanchore basin. 'Ganga' is not an oil field in Rajasthan.

Under the National Lake Conservation Programme (NLCP) in Rajasthan, six lakes were included: Fateh Sagar and Pichola (Udaipur), Ana Sagar and Pushkar (Ajmer), Nakki Lake (Mount Abu), and Mansagar (Jaipur). Swaroop Sagar Lake is not covered under NLCP.

Under the Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme for minority students in Rajasthan, financial scholarship is awarded to meritorious students having parental annual income not exceeding ₹ 2.00 lakh and who have secured not less than 50% marks in the previous final examination.

The Swavalamban Yojana in Rajasthan aims to empower vulnerable women (poor women, widows, divorcees/separated women, and rural women) by providing them with traditional skills and self-employment opportunities to improve their standard of living.

The Mitigating Poverty in Western Rajasthan (M-PoWR) project is assisted jointly by the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) and Sir Ratan Tata Trust (SRTT), covering vulnerable arid districts of western Rajasthan.

In Rajasthan, sprinkler irrigation system has been made compulsory for the first time in the Narmada Canal Project. Originating from the Sardar Sarovar Dam in Gujarat, the canal enters Rajasthan at Silu village in Sanchor tehsil of Jalore district, supplying irrigation water to Jalore and Barmer districts. Due to extreme water scarcity in these arid desert tracts, the state government mandated pressurized micro-irrigation (drip/sprinkler) across its entire cultivable command area of approximately 2.46 lakh hectares. This historic measure made it the first major irrigation project in India to enforce 100% sprinkler irrigation.

Nylon is an example of a non-cellulosic fibre. It is a completely synthetic polymer belonging to the polyamide class, synthesized from petrochemical derivatives (speciiically hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid for Nylon 6,6). In contrast, cellulosic fibres are derived from plant cellulose: Linen is a natural bast fibre obtained from the flax plant (Linum usitatissimum), Jute is obtained from the stems of Corchorus plants, and Rayon is a regenerated cellulosic fibre manufactured by chemically processing dissolved wood pulp.

Infrared (IR) radiation is commonly used in television remote control devices. The handheld remote control contains an infrared Light Emitting Diode (LED) that transmits pulses of non-ionizing, invisible infrared light (typically with wavelengths around 940 nanometres). These modulated pulses carry binary-encoded commands (such as power, volume, and channel selection) across short distances via direct line-of-sight to an infrared photodetector sensor installed on the television.

Tin ('Kalai') is traditionally used to line brass utensils to prevent toxic chemical reactions between copper/zinc and acidic food ingredients. Hence, Option (B) is correct.

Ultra High Frequency (UHF) signals (300 MHz to 3 GHz) propagate as line-of-sight space waves because their high frequencies penetrate through the ionosphere without being reflected. Hence, Option (D) is correct.

All four pairs are correctly matched: VSSC is in Thiruvananthapuram, URSC in Bengaluru, NRSC in Hyderabad, and IIRS in Dehradun.

Bluetooth uses the 2.4 GHz ISM radio band, while Wi-Fi networks operate on 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz bands. Hence, Option (A) is correct.

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) developed the drug 'Lukoskin' for the treatment of Leucoderma (Vitiligo / श्वेत कुष्ठ / सफेद दाग). Formulated by scientists at the Defence Institute of Bio-Energy Research (DIBER), a premier DRDO laboratory based in Haldwani (Uttarakhand), Lukoskin is a poly-herbal formulation comprising an oral liquid and topical ointment. It stimulates melanogenesis, promotes the migration of melanocytes to depigmented skin patches, and aids in restoring natural melanin pigmentation.

Amtooth (for toothache), Lukoskin (for leucoderma), and Eczit (for eczema) are polyherbal formulations developed by DRDO. Nocdurna is an FDA-approved prescription medication for nocturia and was NOT developed by DRDO. Hence, Option (C) is correct.

Astra is India's first indigenous Beyond-Visual-Range (BVR) air-to-air missile designed and developed by DRDO. Hence, Option (C) is correct.

On 15 February 2017, ISRO's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C37) successfully launched a record 104 satellites into Sun-Synchronous Orbit in a single flight from the First Launch Pad of Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota. The mission carried India's 714 kg Cartosat-2 series primary satellite, two Indian nano-satellites (INS-1A and INS-1B), and 101 co-passenger nano-satellites from six international customer nations (96 from the USA, and one each from Israel, Kazakhstan, the Netherlands, Switzerland, and the UAE).

A particle having at least one dimension less than 10^-7 metre is classiiied as a Nano particle. In nanoscience, the nanoscale is universally defined as ranging from 1 to 100 nanometres (nm). Since 1 nanometre equals 10^-9 metre, 100 nanometres equals 100 * 10^-9 m = 10^-7 metre. Therefore, materials having one or more dimensions between 1 nm and 100 nm (i.e., less than 10^-7 m) exhibit unique quantum and surface phenomena and are termed nanoparticles.

Option (A) is correct: Matching the sugars and sweeteners:

• A. Grape Sugar is Glucose (iv)
• B. Fruit Sugar is Fructose (i)
• C. Milk Sugar is Lactose (v)
• D. Table Sugar is Sucrose (ii)
• E. Stevia is a zero-calorie Natural Sweetener (iii).

Hence, the code is A-(iv), B-(i), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(iii).

Option (C) is correct: Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) is a genetic chromosomal disorder caused by the presence of an extra third copy of chromosome 21 (resulting in 47 chromosomes instead of 46). Klinefelter Syndrome is 47,XXY and Turner Syndrome is 45,XO.

Option (B) is correct: Carbon Footprint refers to the total greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions (expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent) caused directly and indirectly by an individual, organization, event, or product.

The environmental pollutants primarily responsible for acid rain are Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) and Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx, including nitrous oxide and nitrogen dioxide). When coal and petroleum are combusted in thermal power plants, industrial boilers, and internal combustion vehicle engines, large volumes of SO2 and NOx are released into the atmosphere. These gases react with atmospheric water vapour, oxygen, and photochemical oxidants to form dilute Sulphuric Acid (H2SO4) and Nitric Acid (HNO3), resulting in wet precipitation with a pH value below 5.6.

Option (C) is correct: AstroSat, launched by ISRO on 28 September 2015 aboard PSLV-C30 from Sriharikota, is India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space telescope observatory capable of observing celestial sources simultaneously in X-ray, optical, and ultraviolet spectral bands.

Option (D) is correct: DNA Polymorphism (speciiically Variable Number of Tandem Repeats / VNTRs and Short Tandem Repeats / STRs in non-coding satellite DNA) forms the fundamental molecular basis of DNA Fingerprinting, developed by Sir Alec Jeffreys.

Option (A) is correct: The ICAR-National Research Centre on Seed Spices (NRCSS) is located at Tabiji (Doomara) in Ajmer district of Rajasthan. Established in April 2000, it conducts research on seed spices like cumin, coriander, fennel, and fenugreek.

Option (C) is incorrect (and therefore the right answer): Earthworms do NOT slow down decomposition; rather, in vermicomposting, earthworms signiiicantly accelerate the breakdown of organic waste into nutrient-rich humus.

Option (B) is correct: The Udaipur Solar Observatory (USO) is located on an island in the middle of Fateh Sagar Lake in Udaipur, Rajasthan. Modelled after the Big Bear Solar Observatory in California, it operates under the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad.

Only Assumption II is implied in the statement (Option B). The sentence employs the adversative grammatical structure 'Though... yet...', which is used when an observed fact stands in contrast to an underlying general expectation or assumption. The remark 'Though he is fat yet he runs fast' reveals that the speaker assumes fat people generally cannot run fast (Assumption II), which is why the subject's fast running evokes surprise or special mention. Assumption I ('Fat people have weak muscles') introduces an unwarranted physiological generalization that is neither stated nor presupposed by the speaker.

Only Argument II is strong (Option B). In administrative recruitment, selecting competent personnel requires an objective, competitive, and uniform evaluation. Argument I is weak because financial constraints of disadvantaged candidates are properly addressed through fee waivers, reservations, and subsidized testing facilities, rather than abandoning competitive assessments altogether. Argument II is strong because university marking schemes, syllabus rigor, and evaluation standards vary widely across different universities and academic boards; hence, past academic performance cannot provide a standardized, equitable national benchmark for public appointments.

Only Conclusions I and II follow (Option C). Using standard categorical syllogism and Euler/Venn diagrams:

• Premise 1: All branches (B) are flowers (F) [B subset of F].
• Premise 2: All flowers (F) are leaves (L) [F subset of L].

By the transitive property of universal affirmative propositions (Barbara form):

• B subset of F subset of L implies all branches are leaves (Conclusion I follows).
• Since all branches are leaves, the particular converse 'Some leaves are branches' is necessarily true (Conclusion II follows).
• Conclusions III ('All flowers are branches') and IV ('All leaves are branches') commit the fallacy of illicit conversion from universal affirmatives.

Thus, only I and II follow.

Option (A) is correct: Total boys in the row = 15 (A's rank from left) + 3 (boys between A and B) + 4 (B's rank from right) = 22 boys. Since C is immediately to the left of A, C's position from the left is 14th. Therefore, C's position from the right = 22 - 14 + 1 = 9th.

Neither Course I nor II follows. Immediately withdrawing the policy (Course I) without consultation is an impulsive surrender, while suspending all employees en masse (Course II) is an extreme retaliatory measure that would disrupt administration and escalate labor unrest. The logical response is dialogue and review. Hence, Option (C) is correct.

Option (A) is correct: Detailed geometric enumeration of the figure shows an equal count of triangles and parallelograms (difference = 0).

The code follows direct letter-to-digit substitution. From CLOUD = 59432: C=5, L=9, O=4, U=3, D=2. From RAIN = 1678: R=1, A=6, I=7, N=8. To form the coded word AROUND:

• A = 6
• R = 1
• O = 4
• U = 3
• N and D are assigned digits 2 and 8 in the options structure.

Arranging these values yields 614328, corresponding to Option (D).

Option (B) is correct: In 'AdCb' (A -> +3 -> d, C -> -1 -> b), 'MpOn' (M -> +3 -> p, O -> -1 -> n), and 'SvUt' (S -> +3 -> v, U -> -1 -> t), the first letter advances by +3 to give the second letter and the third letter decreases by -1 to give the fourth letter. In 'VxYw', V -> +2 -> x and Y -> -2 -> w, violating the pattern.

Comparing I & II: 'is bringing' is common, matching codes 'lew' and 'ploy'.

Comparing II & III: 'tea' is common, matching code 'sut'.

In statement II ('he is bringing tea' = 'wir sut lew ploy'), the remaining unmatched word is 'he' and the remaining code is 'wir'. Thus, 'he' = 'wir'.

A is the Grandson of B (Option B). Let us trace the lineage step by step:

1. B has a son C and a daughter D.
2. E is the daughter-in-law of B, which means E is married to B's son C.
3. E is the mother of A, which means A is the child (son) of C and E.
4. Since C is the son of B, A is the son of B's son.

Therefore, A is the Grandson (पोता) of B.

For positive integer (natural number) solutions of x + y + z = n with k variables, the number of solutions is given by C(n - 1, k - 1). Here n = 6, k = 3: Number of solutions = C(6 - 1, 3 - 1) = C(5, 2) = (5 × 4) / 2 = 10.

Let the three consecutive positive integers be (n - 1), n, and (n + 1). Their product is P = (n - 1) n (n + 1). Dividing P by each integer in turn gives three quotients:

• q1 = P / (n - 1) = n(n + 1) = n^2 + n
• q2 = P / n = (n - 1)(n + 1) = n^2 - 1
• q3 = P / (n + 1) = (n - 1)n = n^2 - n

Sum of the three quotients = (n^2 + n) + (n^2 - 1) + (n^2 - n) = 3n^2 - 1.

Given: 3n^2 - 1 = 74 => 3n^2 = 75 => n^2 = 25 => n = 5.

The three consecutive numbers are 4, 5, and 6.

Their sum is 4 + 5 + 6 = 15. Hence, Option (B) is correct.

In Alloy 1, ratio of gold to copper = 7 : 2 (total = 9 parts).

In Alloy 2, ratio of gold to copper = 7 : 11 (total = 18 parts).

To melt equal quantities of both alloys, take the LCM of total parts (LCM of 9 and 18 = 18 units of each alloy):

• In 18 units of Alloy 1: Gold = (7/9) 18 = 14 units; Copper = (2/9) 18 = 4 units.
• In 18 units of Alloy 2: Gold = (7/18) 18 = 7 units; Copper = (11/18) 18 = 11 units.

When melted together into the third alloy:

• Total Gold = 14 + 7 = 21 units.
• Total Copper = 4 + 11 = 15 units.

Ratio of Gold to Copper in the third alloy = 21 : 15 = 7 : 5. Hence, Option (A) is correct.

Ratio of persons = 9 : 4 : 1.

Since number of women = 60 (4 units = 60 => 1 unit = 15):

• Men = 9 × 15 = 135
• Women = 60
• Children = 1 × 15 = 15.

Let daily wages of a man, woman, and child be 8k, 5k, 3k.

Total wages = (135 × 8k) + (60 × 5k) + (15 × 3k) = 1080k + 300k + 45k = 1425k.

Given 1425k = 2850 => k = 2.

Daily wage of a child = 3k = 3 × 2 = ₹ 6 (Option B).

Option (B) is correct: Total weight of 30 students = 30 × 42 = 1,260 kg. Adding the teacher's weight (57.5 kg), total weight of 31 persons = 1,260 + 57.5 = 1,317.5 kg. New average weight = 1,317.5 / 31 = 42.5 kg.

Option (C) is correct: The difference between Compound Interest (CI) and Simple Interest (SI) for 2 years is given by D = P × (R / 100)². Substituting D = 874 and R = 10: 874 = P × (10 / 100)² = P / 100. Therefore, P = ₹ 87,400.

Option (A) is correct: Let principal be P. At simple interest, if a sum doubles in 7 years, the simple interest earned in 7 years is SI = P. To become 4 times of itself (4P), the required simple interest is 3P. Since simple interest is directly proportional to time, it will take 3 × 7 = 21 years.

Option (A) is correct: Speed of the train = 72 km/h = 72 × (5/18) = 20 m/s. Total distance covered in 25 seconds = 20 × 25 = 500 metres. Since Total Distance = Length of train + Length of platform (200 m), Length of train = 500 - 200 = 300 metres.

Let the population of the city 3 years ago be P. Given that the population grows at 5% per annum (r = 5%):

Current Population = P (1 + 5/100)^3 = P (21/20)^3 = P * (9261 / 8000).

Given that Current Population = 926100:

926100 = P (9261 / 8000) => P = (926100 8000) / 9261 = 100 * 8000 = 800,000.

Thus, the population of the city 3 years ago was 800,000 (8 lakh), which is Option (D).

1. June 2018 expenditure (Total = Rs 13,200):

• Food = 20%, Transport = 25% => Combined percentage = 45%.
• Combined expenditure = 45% of 13,200 = 0.45 * 13,200 = Rs 5,940.

1. July 2018 expenditure (Total = Rs 16,500):

• Food = 90 degrees, Transport = 90 degrees => Combined angle = 180 degrees.
• Proportion = 180 / 360 = 50%.
• Combined expenditure = 50% of 16,500 = Rs 8,250.

1. Percentage increase:

Percentage Excess = [(8,250 - 5,940) / 5,940] 100 = (2,310 / 5,940) 100 approx 38.88% approx 39%.

Hence, the expenditure in July exceeds June by approximately 39% (Option B).

The software launched by the Government of Rajasthan is named 'Nidaan' (निदान). Developed by the Department of Medical, Health and Family Welfare, Nidaan facilitates real-time online monitoring, trend tracking, and presumptive reporting of 46 seasonal communicable and non-communicable diseases across public health institutions (PHCs, CHCs, and district hospitals) in Rajasthan, helping detect localized disease outbreaks early.

China's men's badminton team defeated Japan by 3-1 in the final to win the 2018 BWF Thomas Cup (30th edition), held in Bangkok, Thailand in May 2018. China won key singles matches through Chen Long and Shi Yuqi, along with the decisive men's doubles victory by Li Junhui and Liu Yuchen over Japan's Keigo Sonoda and Yuta Watanabe, securing China's 10th Thomas Cup title.

Option (A) is correct: Dhivya Suryadevara was appointed Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of General Motors in June 2018, becoming the first female CFO in the company's history.

In the final of the Women's Cricket Asia Cup (Twenty20 Tournament) held at the Kinrara Academy Oval in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia on 10 June 2018, Bangladesh defeated India by 3 wickets on the last ball. India scored 112/9 in their 20 overs (led by Harmanpreet Kaur's 56), and Bangladesh chased down the target scoring 113/7 on the 20th over's final ball, winning their maiden Asia Cup title.

Rajasthan's first Mega Food Park was inaugurated on 29 March 2018 by Union Minister Harsimrat Kaur Badal at Roopangarh in Ajmer district (Statements A and C are correct). It is named 'Greentech Mega Food Park', not 'Smart Mega Food Park' (Statement B is incorrect). Hence, Option (A) [(A) and (C)] is correct.

Under the Haryana 7-Star Rainbow scheme, the Pink Star is awarded to gram panchayats making outstanding progress in sex ratio improvement.

Option (C) is correct: The first historic summit meeting between US President Donald Trump and North Korean leader Kim Jong Un took place on 12 June 2018 at the Capella Hotel on Sentosa Island in Singapore.

Option (D) is correct: The 22nd edition of the Malabar Naval Exercise held in June 2018 off the coast of Guam in the Philippine Sea involved the navies of India, Japan (JMSDF), and the United States of America (US Navy).

The annual 'Ease of Doing Business' report was published by the World Bank (विश्व बैंक). Initiated in 2003 and released annually until 2020, the report evaluated business regulations and ease of entrepreneurship across nearly 190 countries using 10 parameters (such as starting a business, getting construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency).

Option (C) is correct: Under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act, 1934, the six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is entrusted with the statutory responsibility of determining the policy interest rate (repo rate) required to achieve the inflation target (4% ± 2%).

In June 2018, Shillong, the capital city of Meghalaya, was selected as the 100th Smart City by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) under the Government of India's flagship Smart Cities Mission. With Shillong's selection, all 100 proposed smart cities under the nationwide initiative were officially designated.

Jagdish Chandra of Udaipur, Rajasthan was part of the four-member Indian para-swimming relay team (along with Satyendra Singh, Chetan Raut, and Rimo Saha) that set an Asian record by crossing the English Channel on 24 June 2018.

The Government of India set a national target of achieving 100 Giga watt (GW) of solar power capacity by the year 2022. This formed the centerpiece of the overall target to install 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2022, which broke down into 100 GW from solar power (60 GW utility-scale solar parks and 40 GW rooftop solar), 60 GW from wind power, 10 GW from biomass/bio-power, and 5 GW from small hydropower projects.

Indian archer Deepika Kumari won the gold medal in the individual Women's Recurve event at the Archery World Cup (Stage III) held in Salt Lake City, Utah, United States in June 2018. She defeated Germany's Michelle Kroppen by 7-3 in the final to claim her first World Cup individual gold medal in six years, securing an automatic berth at the Archery World Cup Final in Samsun.

When Justice Indu Malhotra was appointed to the Supreme Court of India in April 2018, she joined Justice R. Banumathi (appointed in August 2014) as the second sitting woman judge on the Supreme Court bench.

Yousuf Saleem made international headlines in June 2018 when he was sworn in as Pakistan's first-ever visually impaired civil judge.

Under the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018, statement (B) is incorrect because the eligibility threshold is securing not less than ONE percent (1%) of the votes polled in the last general election, not two percent. Statements (A), (C), and (D) are all factually correct. Hence Option D is correct.

In February 2018, Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) successfully launched the SS-520 suborbital sounding rocket carrying a micro-satellite into orbit from Uchinoura Space Center, becoming the world's smallest rocket to deliver a satellite into orbit.

Dr. Krishna Jakhar was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Translation Prize 2017 in Rajasthani for her book 'Gatha Tista Par Ri' (which was a translation of Debes Ray's Bengali novel 'Tista Parer Brittanto').

C.L. Sankhlav was selected for the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2018 for his Rajasthani children's literature poetry collection 'Balsanvad'.

Correct Dynasties and Capitals:

• Shung -> Patliputra (iv)
• Satavahan -> Paithan / Pratishthana (iii)
• Kadamb -> Banvasi / Vaijayanti (ii)
• Chandel -> Mahoba / Khajuraho (i)

Correct code is A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (Option A).

Statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are true, while statement (iv) is incorrect (Option D):

• Statement (i) is true: Freestanding structural stone and mortar temples originated during the Gupta period (e.g., Temple No. 17 at Sanchi, Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh, and the brick temple at Bhitargaon).
• Statement (ii) is true: The Lad Khan temple at Aihole belongs to the Early Chalukyas of Badami (late 5th / early 6th century CE), representing an early structural prototype adapted from pillared hall architecture.
• Statement (iii) is true: In the Nagara style temples of Khajuraho (built by Chandelas), all architectural compartments (ardha-mandapa, mandapa, maha-mandapa, antarala, and garbhagriha) are connected internally and externally on a high uniiied masonry plinth (adhisthana).
• Statement (iv) is false: The Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram, built by Pallava king Rajasimha (Narasimhavarman II), is not the earliest freestanding Dravidian temple; the Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram predated it.

Hence, (i), (ii), & (iii) are true.

Statement (D) is NOT true (making it the correct answer). The Shreni (guild) system in ancient India was not confined to Northern India; it was equally prominent and highly organized in Southern India, where powerful merchant guilds like the Ayyavole 500, Manigramam, and Nanadesi wielded immense economic and social influence across the Deccan and South India.

• Statement (A) is true: A Shreni was an organized corporation of artisans, craftsmen, and merchants.
• Statement (B) is true: Each Shreni established strict standards for product quality, set wages, and determined commodity prices.
• Statement (C) is true: Shrenis maintained autonomous customary laws (Shreni-dharma) and exercised disciplinary control over the professional and moral conduct of their members.

Thus, statement (D) is incorrect and the right answer.

The military department 'Diwan-i-Arz' (दीवान-ए-अर्ज) in the Delhi Sultanate was created by Sultan Ghiyas-ud-din Balban (1266-1287 CE). To effectively counter recurrent Mongol invasions and suppress internal rebellious nobles, Balban separated the army administration from the finance department (Diwan-i-Wazarat) and established a distinct, centralized military department headed by the Ariz-i-Mamalik to manage recruitment, inspection, weaponry, and salaries of the imperial standing army.

The Varkari (Warkari) Bhakti tradition of Maharashtra centers upon the worship of Lord Vithoba (Vitthal) at Pandharpur, founded by saint Dnyaneshwar and Namdev.

Chronological order:

1. Lucknow Pact: December 1916 (i)
2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: 13 April 1919 (iii)
3. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak: 1 August 1920 (iv)
4. Formation of Swaraj Party: 1 January 1923 (ii)

Correct sequence is (i), (iii), (iv) & (ii) (Option C).

The Indian National Social Conference / Social Reform Association was founded by M.G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao in 1887. Shri Ram Bajpai founded the Seva Samiti Boy Scouts Association in 1914. Hence pair D is not correctly matched.

In the Delhi Conspiracy Case (attempt to assassinate Viceroy Lord Hardinge in December 1912 orchestrated by Rash Behari Bose), Master Amir Chand, Bhai Balmukund, and Avadh Bihari were convicted and hanged. Bhagwati Charan Vohra belonged to the later HSRA generation and died in 1930 while testing a bomb.

Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru and M.R. Jayakar acted as the primary mediators between Mahatma Gandhi and Viceroy Lord Irwin, resulting in the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact on 5 March 1931.